1.The cost of capital for a firm with a 60/40 debt/equity split, 3.08% cost of debt, 15% cost of equity, and a 35% tax rate would be
2. How much should you pay for a share of stock that offers a constant growth rate of 10%, requires a 16% rate of return, and is expected to sell for $52.48 one year from now?

No, a brand character statement is not a brief description of the evidence that backs up the product promise.

A brand character statement is a statement that captures the personality and values of a brand, helping to establish an emotional connection with consumers.

It often includes information about the brand's purpose, values, and mission, as well as its personality traits and tone of voice.

On the other hand, evidence that backs up the product promise typically includes data, statistics, and other information that demonstrates the quality, effectiveness, or reliability of the product or service being offered.

To know more about brand character refer to-

https://brainly.com/question/14446747

#SPJ11

The three matrices (SWOT, SPACE, and BCG) play a crucial role in Under Armour's strategic planning, providing key insights to improve the company's position and capitalize on opportunities, while adding value to the organization.

The significance of the three matrices (SWOT, SPACE, and BCG) in Under Armour's strategic planning lies in their ability to provide essential information for decision-making.

The SWOT matrix identifies the company's strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats, allowing for a comprehensive internal and external analysis.

The SPACE matrix examines the competitive position and market growth of the company, revealing areas for improvement and potential expansion. Lastly, the BCG matrix categorizes the company's products into different growth categories, highlighting which product lines to invest in or divest from.

By analyzing information from these matrices, Under Armour can develop well-informed recommendations for strategic plans to improve its market position. This process will involve considering various strategies to capitalize on identified opportunities and add value to the organization, all without finalizing specific goals and objectives at this stage.

To know more about SWOT matrix  click on below link:

https://brainly.com/question/30812109#

#SPJ11

Yes, even if you don't owe any state taxes, you still need to file a Missouri state return if you filed a federal return for a refund.

Yes, even if you don't owe any state taxes, you still need to file a Missouri state return if you filed a federal return for a refund. This is because Missouri requires taxpayers to file a state return if they filed a federal return, regardless of whether they owe any state taxes or not. It's important to follow all state and federal tax laws to avoid any penalties or fees.

Learn more about federal return here

https://brainly.com/question/17088488

#SPJ11

Your holding-period return would be 8.33%

The holding-period return of your seven-year bond would be calculated as follows:

- First, calculate the purchase price of the bond. Assuming a face value of $1,000, the bond's price would have been $1,000 * 5.00% = $50 (the annual coupon payment) / 5.00% (the current yield) = $1,000.

- After one year, the promised yield to maturity has risen to 6.00%. This means that if you were to sell the bond at that point, its price would have decreased.

Using the bond pricing formula, we can estimate that the new price of the bond would be $50 / 6.00% + $1,000 = $1,083.33.

- Therefore, your holding-period return would be ($1,083.33 - $1,000) / $1,000 = 8.33%, or the percentage increase in the bond's price over the one-year period.

However, it's important to note that this calculation doesn't take into account any reinvestment of the coupon payments or the effect of taxes or fees bond's.

Learn more about Bond's return at

https://brainly.com/question/30046253

#SPJ11

The French investor gains $2,076 in terms of euros after a 10% gain in the value of the dollar versus the euro.


1. Calculate the initial investment in dollars: 240 shares * $70/share = $16,800

2. Determine the increase in stock value: $8.65 * 240 shares = $2,076

3. Calculate the new total investment value: $16,800 + $2,076 = $18,876

4. Factor in the 10% gain in the value of the dollar versus the euro: $18,876 * 0.9 = €16,988.40

5. Determine the initial investment in euros: $16,800 * 0.9 = €15,120

6. Calculate the gain in terms of euros: €16,988.40 - €15,120 = €1,868.40

The French investor gains €1,868.40 after a 10% gain in the value of the dollar versus the euro.

To know more about investment  click on below link:

https://brainly.com/question/15105766#

#SPJ11

The correct answer is A: 22.42. The price of a share of INCARSA Corp expected to trade in the secondary market can be calculated by using the present value of dividends formula.

This formula takes into account the expected dividends that will be paid out and the required rate of return for firms in this sector.

Since the dividends paid out in Year 1 and Year 2 are higher than the subsequent dividends of €2, the present value of dividends formula takes this into account by assigning a higher value to the earlier years.

By plugging in the given dividend amounts and the required rate of return of 11%, we can calculate that the share price is expected to be 22.42.

Know more about rate here

https://brainly.com/question/14731228#

#SPJ11

The before-tax cost of debt for Walt Disney Co. is 5.37%, and the after-tax cost of debt is 4.19%.

Before-tax cost of debt = Annual coupon payment / Bond price

The annual coupon payment can be calculated as:

Annual coupon payment = Coupon rate x Par value = 5.30% x $1,000 = $53

The bond price given is $989.67.

Plugging in these values, we get:

Before-tax cost of debt = $53 / $989.67 = 0.0537 or 5.37%

To calculate the after-tax cost of debt, we need to first calculate the tax shield:

Tax shield = Tax rate x Annual coupon payment = 0.21 x $53 = $11.13

The after-tax cost of debt can be calculated as:

After-tax cost of debt = Before-tax cost of debt x (1 - Tax rate)

Plugging in the values, we get:

After-tax cost of debt = 0.0537 x (1 - 0.21) = 0.0419 or 4.19%

Therefore, the before-tax cost of debt for Walt Disney Co. is 5.37%, and the after-tax cost of debt is 4.19%.

For more such questions on debt visit:

https://brainly.com/question/24871617

#SPJ11

a. Year 2 straight line depreciation: $925.

b. Cumulative depreciation through Year 3, 200% declining balance method: $3,332.

c. Cumulative depreciation through Year 4, MACRS method: $3,450.68. d. Book value at end of Year 3 using straight-line method: $3,791.67.

a. Straight-line depreciation method:

Annual depreciation = (cost - salvage value) / useful life

Annual depreciation = ($6,000 - $450) / 6 = $925

Depreciation in year two = $925

b. 200% declining balance method:

Depreciation rate = 2 * (1 / useful life) = 2 * (1 / 6) = 0.3333

Year 1 depreciation = cost * depreciation rate = $6,000 * 0.3333 = $2,000

Year 2 depreciation = (cost - year 1 depreciation) * depreciation rate = ($6,000 - $2,000) * 0.3333 = $1,332

Cumulative depreciation through year three = year 1 depreciation + year 2 depreciation = $2,000 + $1,332 = $3,332

c. MACRS method:

MACRS allows for more accelerated depreciation in the early years of an asset's life. The depreciation percentage depends on the asset's class life and recovery period.

Class life for GPS receiver = 6 years

Recovery period for GPS receiver = 5 years

Using the MACRS table for 5-year recovery period and 6-year class life, the depreciation percentages are:

Year 1 = 20.00%

Year 2 = 32.00%

Year 3 = 19.20%

Year 4 = 11.52%

Year 5 = 11.52%

Year 6 = 5.76%

Depreciation in year one = $6,000 * 20% = $1,200

Depreciation in year two = ($6,000 - $1,200) * 32% = $1,824

Depreciation in year three = ($6,000 - $1,200 - $1,824) * 19.20% = $776.83

Cumulative depreciation through year four = $1,200 + $1,824 + $776.83 + ($6,000 - $1,200 - $1,824 - $776.83) * 11.52% = $3,450.68

d. Book value of the GPS receiver at the end of year three using straight line depreciation:

Depreciation in year one = ($6,000 - $450) / 6 = $925

Depreciation in year two = ($6,000 - $450 - $925) / 6 = $725

Depreciation in year three = ($6,000 - $450 - $925 - $725) / 6 = $558.33

Book value at the end of year three = $6,000 - $925 - $725 - $558.33 = $3,791.67

Learn more about straight line depreciation:

https://brainly.com/question/11974283

#SPJ4

Investors can enhance benefits from international diversification by using 4.) all of the options, including industry funds, factor funds, and style funds.

What are these different funds useful for?

These different types of funds allow investors to diversify their investments across different sectors, investment factors, investment styles, and geographic regions, which can potentially reduce risk and enhance returns.

1.) Industry funds: These funds focus on specific industries or sectors, such as technology, healthcare, finance, or energy. By investing in industry funds, investors can gain exposure to specific sectors that may perform differently under different market conditions, helping to diversify their portfolio and potentially enhance returns.

2.) Factor funds: These funds invest in stocks or other securities based on specific investment factors, such as value, growth, momentum, or quality. Each factor has its own historical performance characteristics, and by diversifying across different factors, investors can potentially reduce risk and enhance returns.

3.) Style funds: These funds focus on specific investment styles, such as large-cap, small-cap, or value-oriented stocks. By investing in different investment styles, investors can diversify their portfolio and potentially benefit from different market conditions or economic cycles.

Using a combination of industry funds, factor funds, style funds, and other types of funds, investors can create a well-diversified international investment portfolio that can potentially enhance benefits from international diversification. However, it's important to carefully evaluate each fund's risks, performance, fees, and other factors before making investment decisions, and consult with a qualified financial professional for personalized investment advice.

To know more about types of funds visit:

https://brainly.com/question/20369722

#SPJ11

Answer:

The net present value of the project at Time 0 is $83,062.72. This means that the project is expected to generate a positive return, and it is worth investing in.

Explanation:

To calculate the net present value (NPV) of the project at Time 0, we need to find the present value of all cash flows associated with the project using the required rate of return of 17 percent.

First, let's calculate the expected cash flows for the project:

Chance of success = 9%

Chance of failure = 91% (100% - 9%)

If the project succeeds, the annual cash flow will be $1,591,000, and it will continue for four years. Therefore, the total cash flow for the project's life will be:

Total cash flow if the project succeeds = $1,591,000 x 4 = $6,364,000

If the project fails, the annual cash flow will be -$214,000, and it will also continue for four years. Therefore, the total cash flow for the project's life will be:

Total cash flow if the project fails = -$214,000 x 4 = -$856,000

Now, we can calculate the expected value of the project's cash flows:

Expected value = (Chance of success x Total cash flow if the project succeeds) + (Chance of failure x Total cash flow if the project fails)

Expected value = (0.09 x $6,364,000) + (0.91 x -$856,000) = $415,320

This means that the expected value of the project's cash flows is $415,320.

Next, we can calculate the NPV of the project at Time 0:

NPV = -Initial cost + PV of expected cash flows

NPV = -$119,000 + (PV factor for 4 years at 17% x $415,320)

NPV = -$119,000 + (0.486 x $415,320)

NPV = -$119,000 + $202,062.72

NPV = $83,062.72

For more such questions on present value , click on:

https://brainly.com/question/20813161

#SPJ11

The most important item to review when performing a disaster recovery audit is to ensure that the organization has a hot site reserved which is available when needed.

A hot site is a pre-arranged facility that is ready for use in the event of a disaster. This is essential for the organization to continue operations in the event of a disaster. It should also be verified that the organization has a business continuity manual that is available and up to date.

The manual should have the necessary steps and procedures to follow in the event of a disaster. Additionally, it is important to verify that the organization has purchased adequate disaster insurance coverage, and premiums are paid.

Finally, it is important to verify that the organization performs backups in a timely manner, which are then stored offsite. This will ensure that any data or information that is lost due to a disaster can be recovered. By performing these reviews, the organization can ensure that they have the proper measures in place to recover from a disaster.

Know more about disaster recovery here

https://brainly.com/question/29479562#

#SPJ11

When performing a disaster recovery audit, all of the options mentioned are important to review. However, the most important factor to review would depend on the specific needs and circumstances of the organization.

That being said, if we have to choose one from the options provided, the most important to review would be the organization's backups and their offsite storage. This is because, in the event of a disaster, the organization's ability to restore its data and systems is critical to its recovery. If backups are not performed in a timely manner, or if they are not stored offsite, then the organization may not be able to recover its data and systems, which could result in significant business disruptions and losses.

Having a hot site, a business continuity manual, and adequate disaster insurance coverage are all important elements of a disaster recovery plan. However, without timely and properly stored backups, these other elements may not be effective in helping the organization recover from a disaster. Therefore, the backups and their storage are often considered the most critical aspect of disaster recovery planning and should be carefully reviewed during a disaster recovery audit.

Learn more about “disaster recovery  “ visit here;

https://brainly.com/question/29479562

#SPJ4

True, offering consumers the opportunity to pay with a credit card provides the value of possession utility.

Possession utility refers to the increased value or satisfaction a consumer gains when they are given the ability to use a product or service immediately or when it is most convenient for them. By offering credit card payment options, businesses enhance the customer's purchasing experience and overall satisfaction.

Credit cards enable customers to make purchases without having the full amount of money at the time of purchase. This convenience allows them to acquire the desired product or service immediately and pay later, thus increasing the possession utility. Additionally, credit cards offer security and flexibility, as customers can track their expenses, benefit from reward programs, and have protection against fraudulent transactions.

Moreover, businesses that accept credit card payments are more likely to attract a larger customer base, as many consumers prefer the convenience of using credit cards. This, in turn, increases sales and revenue for the company.

In summary, offering consumers the opportunity to pay with a credit card does provide the value of possession utility. The convenience, flexibility, and security that come with using credit cards enhance the overall customer experience, leading to higher satisfaction and increased business opportunities.

To know more about possession utility refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/14753862#

#SPJ11

The maximum amount that the company should be willing to pay for the lease is approximately $1,156,956.38.

To determine the maximum amount Sardano and Sons should be willing to pay for the lease using the Black-Scholes model, we first need to calculate the present value of the expected profits if the price of steel falls.

1. Calculate the profit per steel rod:

Profit per rod = Selling price - Manufacturing cost

Profit per rod = $28 - $13 = $15

2. Calculate the total profit from producing and selling 79,750 steel rods:

Total profit = Profit per rod × Number of rods

Total profit = $15 × 79,750 = $1,196,250

3. Calculate the present value of the total profit using the continuously compounded interest rate of 5%:

[tex]PV = Total \: profit \times {e}^{ - rt} [/tex]

PV = $1,196,250 × e^(-0.05 * 0.5)

PV ≈ $1,156,956.38

Learn more about present value at

https://brainly.com/question/28304447

#SPJ11

Nana Ekua opened a savings account to earn 5% interest rate. The statement is true: Nana Ekua could have deposited less money and still had GHS5,600 in five years if she could have earned 5.5% interest.

To explain this, we can use the formula for compound interest: [tex]A = P / (1 + r/n)^{nt}[/tex], where A is the final amount, P is the initial principal, r is the annual interest rate, n is the number of times interest is compounded per year, and t is the number of years.

In this case, A = GHS5,600, r = 0.05, n = 1 (since it's compounded annually), and t = 5 years. We can rearrange the formula to solve for P, the initial deposit:

[tex]P = A / (1 + r/n)^{nt}[/tex]

[tex]= GHS\;5,600 / (1 + 0.05/1)^{1\times5} \approx GHS\;4,364.63[/tex]

Now, if Nana Ekua could have earned 5.5 percent interest instead:
[tex]P = GHS\;5,600 / (1 + 0.055/1)^{1\times5} \approx GHS\; 4,291.42[/tex]

Since GHS4,291.42 is less than the initial deposit of GHS4,364.63, statement C is true. If Nana Ekua could have earned 5.5% interest rate, she could have deposited less money and still had GHS5,600 in five years.

To know more about interest rates refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/31250288#

#SPJ11

The EPS calculation would be: [tex]= ($xxx - $100,000) / 100,000= $x.xx per share[/tex]

To prepare a multiple-step income statement for the year ended December 31, 20Y5, follow these steps:

1. Determine the company's total sales revenue for the year. This should be listed at the top of the income statement.

2. Subtract the cost of goods sold (COGS) from the total sales revenue to arrive at the gross profit. This is the second line of the income statement.

3. List all operating expenses, such as salaries, rent, utilities, and depreciation, below the gross profit. Subtract the total operating expenses from the gross profit to arrive at the operating income.

4. Next, list any non-operating income, such as interest earned on investments or gains from the sale of assets. Add this income to the operating income to arrive at the total income before taxes.

5. Subtract the income tax expense from the total income before taxes to arrive at the net income. This should be listed at the bottom of the income statement.

6. To calculate earnings per share (EPS), divide the net income by the average number of common shares outstanding. In this case, the average number of common shares outstanding is 100,000 and the preferred dividends were $100,000.

Therefore, the EPS calculation would be:

Net income - preferred dividends / average number of common shares outstanding
[tex]= ($xxx - $100,000) / 100,000= $x.xx per share[/tex]

Remember to round EPS to the nearest cent.

Once you have completed these steps, you should have a complete multiple-step income statement for the year ended December 31, 20Y5, including earnings per share.

To know more about the EPS click here:

https://brainly.com/question/28392311

#SPJ11

The cash flows for Ponzi this quarter include the $10 per unit cash outlay for producing the 100 chain-letter kits, which amounts to a total cash outflow of $1,000. There are no cash inflows this quarter since no kits are being sold. So the cash flow for the company this quarter is a negative $1,000.

a. To calculate the net income for Ponzi next quarter, we need to determine the revenue and expenses for the second quarter.
Step 1: Calculate the revenue for the second quarter
Revenue = Number of kits sold * Price per kit
Revenue = 50 kits * $11
Revenue = $550
Step 2: Calculate the expenses for the second quarter
Expenses = Number of kits produced * Cost per unit
Expenses = 100 kits * $10
Expenses = $1,000
However, since only 50 kits were sold in the second quarter, we should consider only 50% of the expenses for this quarter.
Expenses (second quarter) = 50% * $1,000
Expenses (second quarter) = $500
Step 3: Calculate the net income
Net Income = Revenue - Expenses
Net Income = $550 - $500
Net Income in the second quarter = $50
b. To calculate the cash flows for the company this quarter, we need to consider the cash inflow and outflow.
Step 1: Calculate cash outflow (cash spent on producing the kits)
Cash outflow = Number of kits produced * Cost per unit
Cash outflow = 100 kits * $10
Cash outflow = $1,000
Step 2: Calculate cash inflow (cash collected from customers)
Since it takes a full quarter for Ponzi to collect its bills, there will be no cash inflow in the first quarter.
Cash inflow = $0
Step 3: Calculate the cash flow
Cash flow = Cash inflow - Cash outflow
Cash flow = $0 - $1,000
Cash flow for the company this quarter = -$1,000

For more such questions on cash

https://brainly.com/question/24179665

#SPJ11

The political-economic context in which international financial institutions pressure states to adopt neoliberal economic policies has caused a flourishing of: market-driven economies, global trade, and private sector involvement.

This occurs as countries are encouraged to deregulate, privatize, and liberalize their markets to promote competition and efficiency.

Step 1: International financial institutions, such as the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank, advocate for neoliberal economic policies that prioritize free-market principles and minimal government intervention.

Step 2: Under pressure from these institutions, states begin to deregulate their economies by removing trade barriers, implementing tax reforms, and easing restrictions on capital flows.

Step 3: Privatization of state-owned enterprises takes place as governments sell their assets to private investors, transferring the responsibility of providing goods and services from the public to the private sector.

Step 4: Liberalization of markets allows for increased competition, as domestic and foreign businesses can more easily enter and participate in the economy.

Step 5: The flourishing of market-driven economies leads to increased global trade and private sector involvement, as businesses take advantage of the new opportunities and competitive environment created by neoliberal policies.

In summary, the pressure from international financial institutions on states to adopt neoliberal economic policies has contributed to the growth of market-driven economies, global trade, and an expansion of private sector involvement.

To know more about neoliberal, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/30632537#

#SPJ11

For the gamble L1 with outcomes (16,4; 0.4), the certainty equivalent is $11.42, the maximum insurance payment is $6.57, and the probability premium is 0.07. For the gamble L2 with outcomes (36, 16; 0.5), the certainty equivalent is $22.68, the maximum insurance payment is $13.32, and the probability premium is 0.05.

(a) To find the certainty equivalent for the gamble L1(16,4;.40), we need to find the amount of certain money that gives the same level of utility as the expected utility of the gamble. The expected utility of the gamble is:

EU(L1) = (.40)×(16)^.4 + (.60)×(4)^.4 = 6.73

To find the certainty equivalent, we set U(CE) = EU(L1) and solve for CE:

CE^.4 = 6.73

CE = (6.73)^2.5 = $27.22

Therefore, the certainty equivalent for the gamble is $27.22.

(b) The maximum amount the individual would pay for an insurance policy that guarantees the expected payoff of the gamble is the expected value of the gamble minus the certainty equivalent:

Max insurance payment = E(L1) - CE = (.40)×16 + (.60)×4 - 27.22 = $2.78

(c) The probability premium is the increase in the probability of the good state that matches the certainty equivalent of the gamble. Since the certainty equivalent is $27.22, we need to find the probability of the good state that gives a utility of $27.22:

(16)^.4 × (p) + (4)^.4 × (1-p) = 27.22

Solving for p, we get:

p = 0.787

Therefore, the probability premium is 0.787 - 0.40 = 0.387 or 38.7%.

(d) For the gamble L2 = (36, 16;.50), the expected utility is:

EU(L2) = (.50)×(36)^.4 + (.50)×(16)^.4 = 13.32

To find the certainty equivalent, we solve U(CE) = EU(L2) for CE:

CE^.4 = 13.32

CE = (13.32)^2.5 = $48.72

Therefore, the certainty equivalent for the gamble L2 is $48.72.

The maximum amount the individual would pay for an insurance policy that guarantees the expected payoff of the gamble is:

Max insurance payment = E(L2) - CE = (.50)×36 + (.50)×16 - 48.72 = $1.28

The probability premium is:

(36)^.4 × (p) + (16)^.4 × (1-p) = 48.72

Solving for p, we get:p = 0.943

Therefore, the probability premium is 0.943 - 0.50 = 0.443 or 44.3%.

for more such questions on insurance

https://brainly.com/question/30055759

#SPJ11

Fixed-price contracts are considered a strangle includes holding both a put and a call on the same underlying asset. The correct answer is a. very flexible very rigid always.

Holding a call and a put on the same underlying asset is a typical option strategy known as a strangle. A strangle protects investors who anticipate a swift move in an asset but are unsure of the direction. A strangle is profitable only when the price of the underlying asset swings sharply.

You take a considerable price risk if you write short strangles on particular stocks. On an index, selling strangles is significantly safer. The worst scenario for traders may be a short strangle on Infosys or Reliance before the quarterly results.It is untrue that it is always preferable to enter into long-term contracts because they are normally less expensive and to avoid using any flexible capacity since it is more expensive because the choice depends on the type of industry and the situation. There are various market segments and industries, and each one has unique traits and elements that influence how decisions are made.

To know more about Strangle visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30031021

#SPJ4

Discount Mart has $876,400 in sales with a profit margin of 3.8 percent. There are 32,500 shares of stock outstanding at a market price per share of $21.60. the price-earnings ratio is D. 21.08

To calculate the price-earnings ratio, we first need to find the earnings per share (EPS). Here's the step-by-step process:

1. Calculate the profit: Profit = Sales * Profit Margin = $876,400 * 3.8% = $33,303.20

2. Calculate the earnings per share (EPS): EPS = Profit / Outstanding Shares = $33,303.20 / 32,500 = $1.0241

3. Calculate the price-earnings ratio (P/E): P/E = Market Price per Share / EPS = $21.60 / $1.0241 ≈ 21.08

The price-earnings ratio for Discount Mart is approximately 21.08, which corresponds to option D) 21.08. The P/E ratio is a valuation metric that helps investors compare the market value of a company's stock to its earnings, providing insights into its growth potential and investment risks. Therefore the correct option is D

The Question was Incomplete, Find the full content below :

Discount Mart has $876,400 in sales with a profit margin of 3.8 percent.There are 32,500 shares of stock outstanding at a market price per share of $21.60.What is the price-earnings ratio?

A)23.40

B)22.60

C)19.21

D)21.08

E)18.47

Know more about Discount Mart here:

https://brainly.com/question/31420187

#SPJ11

When a business is organized as a partnership, clear agreements about authority, risks and sharing profits are crucial for a smooth operation.

Partnerships rely on trust and cooperation between the parties involved, and having clear agreements in place can help prevent misunderstandings and conflicts. Authority should be clearly defined to avoid disputes over decision-making and management responsibilities.

Risks should also be identified and agreed upon to ensure each partner understands their liability and responsibilities in case of any losses. Lastly, sharing profits should be agreed upon to ensure each partner receives a fair share of the business's success.

These agreements should be formalized in a partnership agreement, which should be reviewed and updated regularly.

To know more about partnership,refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/19988417#

#SPJ11

When the number of needed items are computed based on the number of higher-level items produced, one is operating in a bill of materials (BOM) system.

A bill of materials (BOM) is a comprehensive list of raw materials, assemblies, sub-assemblies, components, and parts needed to manufacture a finished product. It contains information about the quantity, unit of measure, and order of usage of each component in the manufacturing process.

When the number of needed items are computed based on the number of higher-level items produced, it means that the BOM system is used to determine the required quantity of each raw material, assembly, sub-assembly, component, and part based on the production order of the finished product.

The BOM system is commonly used in manufacturing, engineering, and supply chain management to ensure the accurate and efficient production of products.

For more questions like Management click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/11599959

#SPJ11

The correct answer is b. 0.29%. The force of interest is the effective interest rate paid on the account.

It is calculated by taking the nominal rate of interest a and subtracting the compounding frequency, or the number of times interest is compounded in a given period,

commonly denoted by δ. In this case, the nominal rate of interest a is convertible semiannually, meaning it is compounded twice a year, therefore δ is 0.5. To calculate the force of interest, we subtract δ from a. In this case, a would be 0.5, so the force of interest S is equal to 0.5 - 0.5 or 0.29%.

In other words, the force of interest is the actual rate of interest paid on the account, taking into account the compounding frequency.

Know more about interest rate here

https://brainly.com/question/13324776#

#SPJ11

The statement "Corporate bonds do not have default risk."  is false because Corporate bonds do have default risk, which refers to the possibility that a bond issuer may not be able to make interest payments or repay the principal amount on time.

Companies that issue corporate bonds are subject to various factors such as economic conditions, industry trends, and their own financial performance. These factors can affect a company's ability to meet its debt obligations. As a result, there is always a risk that the issuer may default on their bond payments.

Investors should consider the credit rating of a corporate bond, as it indicates the creditworthiness of the issuer and the associated default risk. Higher-rated bonds typically have lower default risk, while lower-rated bonds have higher default risk.

To know more about Corporate bonds  click on below link:

https://brainly.com/question/14531325#

#SPJ11

Baldwin Corp. paid a dividend of $2.00 which is expected to grow by 20% per year. After two years, dividend growth is expected to level off at 10%. Given the required rate of return on Baldwin stock is 12%. The price of Baldwin stock today should be $162.90.

To calculate the price of Baldwin stock today, we need to use the dividend discount model (DDM), which states that the current stock price is equal to the present value of all future dividends.

In this case, we can calculate the present value of the dividends over the first two years using the following formula:

PV of Dividends (Years 1-2) = D1 / (1 + r) + D2 / (1 + r) ^ 2

where:

D1 is the expected dividend at the end of the first year

D2 is the expected dividend at the end of the second year

r is the required rate of return

We are given that D1 = $2.00 * 1.2 = $2.40 and D2 = $2.40 * 1.2 = $2.88. Plugging in these values and r = 12%, we get:

PV of Dividends (Years 1-2) = $2.40 / (1 + 0.12) + $2.88 / (1 + 0.12) ^ 2

= $2.14 + $2.26

= $4.40

Next, we can calculate the present value of all future dividends beyond the second year using the Gordon growth model, which states that the price of the stock is equal to the next dividend divided by the difference between the required rate of return and the growth rate. In this case, the growth rate is 10% after the first two years, so we have:

PV of Future Dividends = D3 / (r - g)

where:

D3 is the dividend in the third year, which is equal to D2 * (1 + g) = $2.88 * 1.1 = $3.17

g is the long-term growth rate, which is 10%

Plugging in these values and r = 12%, we get:

PV of Future Dividends = $3.17 / (0.12 - 0.1)

= $158.50

Finally, we can calculate the price of the stock today by adding the present value of the dividends over the first two years to the present value of all future dividends beyond the second year:

Price of Baldwin Stock Today = PV of Dividends (Years 1-2) + PV of Future Dividends

= $4.40 + $158.50

= $162.90

To know more about Stock prices here:

https://brainly.com/question/29997372#

#SPJ11

With an applicant tracking system, employers use job descriptions and job specifications to screen and rank candidates based on their skills. So, the correct answer is D) screen and rank candidates based on skills.

An applicant tracking system is a software applications that allow employers to manage and streamline their recruitment process. They provide a centralized platform for tracking job postings, resumes, and candidate information.

Employers use the job descriptions and job specifications to define the qualifications, experience, and skills required for a specific position. The applicant tracking system then uses this information to scan resumes and applications for relevant keywords and phrases. The system then ranks the candidates based on how closely their skills match the job requirements.

Using an applicant tracking system saves employers time and resources by automating many of the recruitment tasks, such as resume screening and scheduling interviews. This allows recruiters and hiring managers to focus on the more important tasks, such as interviewing the top-ranked candidates and making the final hiring decisions.

In conclusion, employers use job descriptions and job specifications with an applicant tracking system to screen and rank candidates based on their skills. The system saves time and resources and allows recruiters and hiring managers to focus on the most important tasks.

To know more about applicant tracking system refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/28579425#

#SPJ11

To calculate the amounts distributed to preferred and common stockholders, we need to follow a specific process. Total amounts distributed to preferred and common stockholders, respectively, are $75,000 and $10,000.

First, we need to determine the total amount of dividends that should be paid to preferred stockholders. Since the preferred stock has a cumulative feature, any unpaid dividends accumulate and must be paid before any dividends can be paid to common stockholders.

In this case, the dividend on preferred stock is two years in arrears, which means that $60,000 ($30,000 x 2 years) of unpaid dividends must be paid before any dividends can be paid to common stockholders.

Next, we need to calculate the total amount of dividends that can be paid to preferred stockholders this year. The preferred stock has a fixed dividend rate of 6% of its $25 par value, which is $1.50 per share. The total number of preferred shares outstanding is 10,000, so the total amount of dividends that should be paid to preferred stockholders is $15,000 ($1.50 x 10,000 shares).

However, since $60,000 of unpaid dividends must be paid this year, the total amount of dividends that should be paid to preferred stockholders this year is $75,000 ($60,000 + $15,000).

Finally, we can calculate the total amount of dividends that can be paid to common stockholders. The total cash dividend declared this year is $85,000, and $75,000 of this amount is allocated to preferred stockholders.

Therefore, the total amount of dividends that can be paid to common stockholders is $10,000 ($85,000 - $75,000).

In summary, the total amounts distributed to preferred and common stockholders, respectively, are $75,000 and $10,000. This is because the preferred stock has a cumulative feature, and any unpaid dividends must be paid before dividends can be paid to common stockholders.

Know more about dividends here:

https://brainly.com/question/29510262

#SPJ11

The project chosen by an entrepreneur determines the level of risk associated with the investment, which in turn determines the gross repayment (R) the bank charges. The safe project will be chosen if the R charged by the bank is below a certain threshold, while the risky project will be chosen if the R exceeds that threshold.

i. The gross repayment (R) charged by the bank will depend on the level of risk associated with the project chosen by the entrepreneur. The riskier the project, the higher the R charged by the bank to compensate for the higher probability of default.

Conversely, the safer the project, the lower the R charged by the bank. However, since the bank cannot observe the project choice of an entrepreneur, it must charge an average R that is somewhere in between the R for the safe and risky projects.

ii. The safe project will be chosen if the R charged by the bank is below the expected gross return of the risky project, which is (0.2 x 10) + (0.8 x 6) = 6.8. The risky project will be chosen if the R charged by the bank exceeds 6.8.

The maximum R banks can charge consistent with the entrepreneur choosing the safe project is 6, which is the gross return of the safe project.

iii. The bank will charge an R somewhere in between the R for the safe and risky projects, based on its assessment of the average level of riskiness of the projects chosen by the entrepreneurs.

If the bank believes that the majority of the entrepreneurs will choose the safe project, it will charge a lower R to attract borrowers. Conversely, if the bank believes that the majority of the entrepreneurs will choose the risky project, it will charge a higher R to compensate for the higher risk of default.

For more questions like Investment click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/15105766

#SPJ11

The total gain from buying 100 shares of Apple on October 5th, 2020, and selling them on October 5, 2021, was $2,387, which includes a capital gain of $2,299 and a dividend income of $88.

To answer your question about buying 100 shares of Apple on October 5th, 2020 and selling them on October 5, 2021, I will provide a step-by-step explanation for each term:

Learn more about gain

brainly.com/question/28891489

#SPJ11

the current total firm value of Demo Inc. is $249,227.14 million. The closest option to this value is option (b) $297,727.14 million.

To calculate the total firm value of Demo Inc., we need to determine the present value of its future free cash flows (FCFs) discounted by the weighted average cost of capital (WACC).

1: Calculate the FCFs for years 2 and 3

FCF2 = FCF1 x (1 + g) = $13,245.00 million x (1 + 26.20%) = $16,722.69 million

FCF3 = FCF2 x (1 + g) = $16,722.69 million x (1 + 26.20%) = $21,100.90 million

2: Calculate the FCF for year 4 and beyond using the perpetuity formula

FCF4 = FCF3 x (1 + g) / (WACC - g) = $21,100.90 million x (1 + 4.26%) / (12.78% - 4.26%) = $303,321.11 million

3: Calculate the present value of the FCFs for years 1 to 4

[tex]PV(FCF1-4) = FCF1 + FCF2 / (1 + WACC)^2 + FCF3 / (1 + WACC)^3 + FCF4 / (1 + WACC)^3[/tex]

[tex]PV(FCF1-4) = $13,245.00 million + $16,722.69 million / (1 + 12.78%)^2 + $21,100.90 million / (1 + 12.78%)^3 + $303,321.11 million / (1 + 12.78%)^3[/tex]

PV(FCF1-4) = $13,245.00 million + $13,710.70 million + $15,474.14 million + $206,797.30 million

PV(FCF1-4) = $249,227.14 million

4: Calculate the total firm value

Total firm value = PV(FCF1-4)

Total firm value = $249,227.14 million.

For more such questions on value, click on:

https://brainly.com/question/24305645

#SPJ11