Answer:
The water came out of the strips of the potatoes because a process of balance and oxygen balance called osmosis occurs.
Explanation:
The potato was subjected to a hypertonic environment and it is considered hypotonic, that is why the water seeks to go out to the outside in order to generate that it finds a balance in relation to a solvent solvent.
Since viruses are typically 20-200nm in diameter.. what is the best microscope to view them?
Answer:
electron microscope
Explanation:
Due to their extremely small size, the best microscope to view viruses would be the electron microscope.
The electron microscope has the capability to create resolved images of extremely small objects by utilizing electrons as a source of light instead of the visible light photon that is typical of light microscopes.
There are different two types of electron microscopes:
the scanning electron microscope, andthe transmission electron microscope.A typical scanning electron microscope creates an image of an object by detecting knock-off electrons from the object, whereas a transmission electron microscope uses electrons that pass through the object to create the image of the object.
cm
If a plate moves at a rate of 3 toward
year
the north, where would the plate be in 5,000
years? Express your answer in meters.
You are a graduate student in the lab of a famous fly geneticist. You need to analyze a batch of mutant flies that were recently created in her laboratory to identify the single gene that is most likely mutated in each of the flies. Drag the mutations on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences.
a. knirps (a gap gene)
b. hunchback (a gap gene)
c. hedgehog (a segment-polarity gene)
d. wingless (a segment-polarity gene)
e. kruppel (a gap gene)
f. even-skipped (a pair-rule gene)
1. Mutant fly F has predominantly lost abdominal structures, which is likely the result of a mutation in_____.
2. The wings are missing in mutant fly L, which is likely the result of a mutation in______.
3. Thoracic and abdominal structures are missing in mutant fly Q. The gene most likely responsible for this mutation is______.
4. Segment-sized sections of every other segment are missing in mutant fly Z. One likely candidate gene is_______.
5. Mutant fly X has lost the head and thorax. The gene most likely responsible for this mutation is_______.
6. The mutation observed in mutant fly O resulted in defects within the anterior or posterior regions of each segment. The gene that most likely caused this mutation is_______.
Answer:
knirps (a gap gene)
wingless (a segment-polarity gene)
kruppel (a gap gene)
even-skipped ( a pair-rule gene)
hunchback (a gap gene)
hedgehog (a segment-polarity gene)
Explanation:
The gap, segment-polarity and pair-rule genes play central roles in controlling embryonic development of arthropods. In the first place, the gap genes are associated with the formation of contiguous body segments, thereby mutations in these genes result in gaps in the normal body plan of the embryo. For example, in Drosophila melanogaster, mutations in the knirps, Krüppel and hunchback genes result in deletion of body segments. These genes are also known to regulate segment polarity genes, which determine the polarity of the embryonic parasegments by modulating Wnt and Hedgehog signaling pathways. Finally, the pair-rule genes work together with gap genes to control embryonic development of alternating body segments.
4: Units of inheritance known as genes exist in pairs.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
5: A tall plant (AA) is crossed with a short plant (aa). The offspring produced in Fl will be
a) all Tall
b) short
c) y tall and 72 short
d) no of the above
6: The genotypes (or genotypic ratio) of the Fl offspring in 5 will be
a) all Aa (correct)
b) 12 AA, 12 Aa
c) aa
d) none of the above.
7: Alternate forms of genes are called alleles.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
8: Phenotypes are
a) physical characteristics determined by genes
b) genes
c) genetic characteristics
d) alleles
9: The inheritance law known as the Law of segregation was postulated by
a) Mendel
b) Aristotle
c) Morgan
d) Darwin
10: Heterozygous organisms carry one dominant and one recessive allele
Answer:
4. a
5. a
6. a
7. a
8. a
9. a
10. True
Explanation:
4. Units of inheritance in living organisms are known as genes. These genes exist in pairs in all organisms and a copy of each gene is passed down to the offspring during reproduction.
Correct option: a
5. Assuming the dominance of allele A over allele a:
AA x aa
Aa Aa Aa Aa
All the offspring will appear tall since the effects of allele a is masked by allele A.
Correct option: a
6. From the cross in (5) above, the genotypic ratio of the offspring is 100% Aa.
Correct option: a
7. Alternate forms of genes in living organisms are known as alleles. A copy of the alleles is usually passed down to the offspring during the process of reproduction.
Correct option: a
8. Phenotypes are the physical appearance of organisms. They are physical interpretation of genes.
Correct option: a
9. The law of segregation was postulated by Gregor Mendel. It states that gene pairs segregate during the process of meiosis and then randomly unite during the process of fertilization.
Correct option: a
10 Heterozygous organisms have two different alleles for the same genes. For genes that obey Mendelian laws, heterozygous condition is characterized by one dominant and one recessive alleles.
Yellow dung flies (Scathophaga stercoraria) are diploid organisms with 12 chromosomes in their diploid cells. Without taking into account recombination, how many different genetic gametes can this fly generate based on the arrangement of its chromosomes in the metaphase plate during meiosis
In the given case, the sum of the number of gametes possible in the fruit fly is 2¹² or 4096.
Determination of the number of genetic gametes:
At metaphase I, the arrangement of chromosomes takes place at the equatorial plate and at the equator, the orientation of homologous pairs takes place randomly. This orientation helps in finding the genes found within a gamete as each of the gametes will get only one chromatid of a chromosome.
Now by independent assortment, the variation occurs within the gametes, which suggests that the alleles of distinct genes separate independently from one another at the time of cell differentiation. Due to independent assortment, the number of different kinds of gametes possible within the chromosomes can be determined by using the formula, 2ⁿ, where n is the number of chromosomes present within a set.
Thus, based on the given information, the number of chromosomes present in a fruit fly is 12. Thus, the sum of the number of gametes possible in the mentioned fruit fly is 2¹² or 4096.
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What material is compressed underground to form fossil fuels?
O A. Oxygen and carbon dioxide
B. Dead plants and animals
C. Greenhouse gases
O D. Water and ice
Answer:
b
Explanation:
A fossil fuel is a fuel formed by natural processes, such as anaerobic decomposition of buried dead organisms, containing organic molecules originating in ancient photosynthesis that release energy in combustion.
Answer:
b,2
Explanation:
b,2
______ is a section of DNA that is required to make a protein. The section of DNA undergoes_______ in order to synthesize a protein. As amino acids are put together, their ______determines the way in which they will fold into a three-dimensional structure. It is the________ of the folded structure that determines its function.
A sequence is a section of DNA that is required to make a protein. The section of DNA undergoes transcription in order to synthesize a protein. As amino acids are put together, their order determines the way in which they will fold into a three-dimensional structure. It is the shape of the folded structure that determines its function.
Gene is a section of DNA that is required to make a protein. The section of DNA undergoes translation in order to synthesize a protein. As amino acids are put together, their sequence determines the way in which they will fold into a three-dimensional structure.
What is a gene?A gene is a segment of DNA that is required to produce one protein. Because they code for proteins made up of hundreds or thousands of amino acids, genes are typically hundreds or thousands of base pairs long.
Translation is the process by which ribosomes in the cytoplasm or endoplasmic reticulum synthesize proteins in molecular biology and genetics.
The amino acid sequence of a protein drives the folding and intramolecular bonding of the linear amino acid chain, that will determines the protein's unique three-dimensional structure.
The folded structure's conformation determines its function, which is directly dependent on the protein's linear amino acid sequence.
Thus, it can be concluded that, section of DNA referred to as gene is involved in protein synthesis, i.e., translation. In this amino acid sequence will decide the type of fold.
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the white wallaby in this image has a mutition thatgives it a white colorng. how could this coloring affect its survival in its environment
Answer:
When changes happen in an environment. Many things can and will happen. If there was a gene mutation for the color of beetles, then that would affect their survival because the old color could have helped them hide and be camouflage. (however you spell it) If that is changed it could make them more out in the open, so predators could get them easier. Which would result in less beetles and more predators. Some examples are like the white wallaby, because of its environment it changes color to blend in and survive.
Explanation:
Posted on Brainly before.
When environmental changes occur. Many things are possible and will occur. The survival of beetles would be impacted if there was a gene mutation that changed their color because their previous color may have helped them blend in.
What white wallaby has a mutation that gives it a coloring?The population of white wallabies will become more vulnerable to predators as a result of a mutation that alters their color pattern, and as a result.
There will be a modest drop in the overall number of white wallabies in the environment. In other words, the mutation decreases their chances of surviving.
The young, known as joeys, are nurtured in a pouch by all wallabies, which are marsupials. Their tails, which are not prehensile or grasping like those of kangaroos, are long, strong, and useful for balance.
Long jumps can be made by wallabies using their robust hind legs. The feet of rock wallabies are uniquely adapted to help them grip the rocky environment in which they inhabit.
Therefore, As its name implies, Nail-tail Wallabies have a pointy growth at the end of their tails.
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Ostriches can evade predators by running away on their powerful legs.
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
T
F
Answer:
True
Explanation:
When threatened, ostriches run away, but they can cause serious injury and death with kicks from their powerful legs. Contrary to popular belief, ostriches do not bury their heads in sand to avoid danger. This defensive behavior of lying low, so that they may appear from a distance to have their head buried.
Describe the biosynthetic pathway that produces catecholamines such as norepinephrine and epinephrine from amino acid precursors and explain how the lack of available amino acids precursors would impact homeostasis regulated by catecholamines.
Answer:
Tyrosine and phenylalanine are amino acids required for the synthesis of catecholamines
Explanation:
The catecholamines are hormones composed of a catechol ring group (benzene) and an amine lateral chain. One of the most common catecholamines is the neurotransmitter norepinephrine (noradrenaline). The biosynthesis pathway of the norepinephrine hormone includes the following steps: 1-tyrosine hydroxylase produces L-DOPA from tyrosine, 2-L-DOPA is subsequently tranformed into dopamine by the L-amino acid decarboxylase, and finally, 3-this chemical precursor is converted into norepinephrine by the action of the dopamine β-hydroxylase.
Phenylketonuria is a congenital metabolic disease associated with a decrease in the metabolism of phenylalanine (Phe), which is an amino acid residue that acts as a precursor of different catecholamines including dopamine, norepinephrine (noradrenaline), and epinephrine (adrenaline). Dietary restriction of tyrosine and phenylalanine is the most common treatment against phenylketonuria.
Drag each tile to the correct box.
Lucia is walking barefoot in her yard. She accidentally steps on a nail. How will her nervous system work to generate a reaction? Arrange the events chronologically.
Complete question:
Drag each tile to the correct box.
Lucia is walking barefoot in her yard. She accidentally steps on a nail. How will her nervous system work to generate a reaction? Arrange the events chronologically.
Interneurons relay the impulse to motor neurons in the spinal cord.She immediately moves her foot. The sensory neuron generates an impulse. Receptors in her toe receive stimuli. Motor neurons signal the leg muscles.Answer:
4. Receptors in her toe receive stimuli
3. The sensory neuron generates an impulse.
1. Interneurons relay the impulse to motor neurons in the spinal cord.
5. Motor neuron signal the leg muscles
2. She immediately moves her foot.
Explanation:
The reflex arc refers to an action mechanism that responds to different stimuli. It is an involuntary reaction involving different nervous vias. The reflex arc is composed of receptors, afferent nervous fibers, efferent nervous fibers, and effectors.
Receptors are located in nervous terminals and are widely distributed in the organism. Receptors are capable of receiving stimuli from different nature, and most of them are specialized in one kind of stimuli such as vision, audition, touch, among others. In the exposed example, these sensory receptors were located in the toe, and probably they were touch receptors.
When they receive the stimulus the sensory neuron transforms it into an excitatory nervous impulse that goes to the central nervous system along the afferent nerves. This stage is known as the afferent via, beginning with the environmental information received by sensory receptors, and ending in the arrival of the transcripted message to the central nervous system.
When the central nervous system receives the information, it processes it and sends an appropriate answer according to the stimulus. The message goes along the interneurons to the motor fibers, which are in charge of taking that answer to its destiny, the effectors. Effectors are usually muscles or glands, and they transform the received impulse into a motor answer that executes the reflex action. In the exposed example, the effector in the muscle. This stage is known as the efferent via, beginning in the central nervous system sending an answer impulse and ending in the effector (muscle) executing the answer.
Answer:
Receptors in her toe receive stimuli.
The sensory neuron generates an impulse.
Interneurons relay the impulse to motor neurons in the spinal cord.
Motor neurons signal the leg muscles.
She immediately moves her foot.
Explanation:
right on edMentum
46:11
The diagram shows an animal cell.
Which letter marks the location where carbon dioxide
is produced during respiration?
W
Х
Y
Z
Why is it important to classify the millions of species on Earth? to have common names that everyone can remember to more easily sequence their genetic material to devise scientific names that only scientists can learn to organize them and speak about them accurately
Answer:
to organize them and speak about them accurately.
Explanation:
organisms are classified to understand the relationships between all living things.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
If each NADH generates "3 ATP" molecules and each FADH2 generates 2 ATP molecules, calculate the number of ATP molecules generated from one saturated 18 ‑carbon fatty acid.
Answer:
90 ATP
Explanation:
Every acetyl-CoA yields 3 NADH and 1 FADH2
18 carbon fatty acid is known to have 9 Acetyl CoA.
1 acetyl CoA produces a total of 10ATP.
Since the 18 carbon fatty acid has a total of 9 Acetyl CoA then the total number of ATP produced is 9* 10 which results in 90 ATP being formed when it passes through the various reaction mechanisms.
Describe the flow of energy from a glucose molecule to ATP during respiration, and compare this to the flow of energy from glucose to acids and alcohols during fermentation. Specifically, what carries the energy from glucose to ATP - what energy conversions must occur during the process. Compare the ATP production during respiration with ATP production during fermentation.
Answer:
Glycolysis is the first step of the cellular respiration in an organism which is metabolic pathway that is completed in the cytosol of the cell that leads to the converting glucose to the pyruvate in order to produce energy in form of ATP:
1. Glucose-6-phosphate is ---> fructose-6-phosphate
2. fructose-6-phosphate ---> fructose-1,6-biphosphate
3. fructose-1,6-biphosphate ---> glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate(GAP) and dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP).
4. GAP is oxidised ----> 3-bisphosphoglycerate + NADH
5. 3-bisphosphoglycerate ----> 1,3-bisphophoglycerat
6. 1,3-bisphophoglycerate ----> 3-phosphoglycerate
7. 3-phosphoglycerate ----> 2-phosphoglycerate
8. 2-phosphoglycerate ----> phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)
9. phosphoenolpyruvate to ADP ----> pyruvic acid + ATP
Formation of ATP occurs in both pathways or process that are respiration and fermentation. Fermentation is a catabolic pathway leads to the degradation of sugars (partial) that result in the gain of energy and this energy are absorbed in ATP. There are difference of the amount of energy or ATP produce in these process in respiration 38 ATP are produced whereas during fermentation only 2 ATP are produced.
How osmosis works in the three fluid compartments of the body
Answer:
Explanation:
In the body, water moves through semi-permeable membranes of cells and from one compartment of the body to another by a process called osmosis. Osmosis is basically the diffusion of water from regions of higher concentration to regions of lower concentration, along an osmotic gradient across a semi-permeable membrane.
Which of the following statements best describes the role of hormones in the body? Hormones send chemical signals throughout the body to regulate body processes.
Answer:
Hormone production and release are primarily controlled by negative feedback. In negative feedback systems, a stimulus elicits the release of a substance; once the substance reaches a certain level, it sends a signal that stops further release of the substance. In this way, the concentration of hormones in blood is maintained within a narrow range. For example, the anterior pituitary signals the thyroid to release thyroid hormones. Increasing levels of these hormones in the blood then give feedback to the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary to inhibit further signaling to the thyroid gland, as illustrated in Figure 18.14. There are three mechanisms by which endocrine glands are stimulated to synthesize and release hormones: humoral stimuli, hormonal stimuli, and neural stimuli.
Explanation:
Hyperthyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland is overactive. Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland is underactive. Which of the conditions are the following two patients most likely to have?
Patient A has symptoms including weight gain, cold sensitivity, low heart rate and fatigue.
Patient B has symptoms including weight loss, profuse sweating, increased heart rate and difficulty sleeping.Humoral Stimuli
The term “humoral” is derived from the term “humor,” which refers to bodily fluids such as blood. A humoral stimulus refers to the control of hormone release in response to changes in extracellular fluids such as blood or the ion concentration in the blood. For example, a rise in blood glucose levels triggers the pancreatic release of insulin. Insulin causes blood glucose levels to drop, which signals the pancreas to stop producing insulin in a negative feedback loop.
Hormonal stimuli refers to the release of a hormone in response to another hormone. A number of endocrine glands release hormones when stimulated by hormones released by other endocrine glands. For example, the hypothalamus produces hormones that stimulate the anterior portion of the pituitary gland. The anterior pituitary in turn releases hormones that regulate hormone production by other endocrine glands. The anterior pituitary releases the thyroid-stimulating hormone, which then stimulates the thyroid gland to produce the hormones T3 and T4. As blood concentrations of T3 and T4 rise, they inhibit both the pituitary and the hypothalamus in a negative feedback loop.
The statement that describes the role of hormones in the body is Enzymes reduce the activation energies of biological reactions.
What are hormones?Hormones are chemicals that are secreted by the two glands, endocrine and exocrine glands.
Endocrine glands secrete hormone directly into the bloodstream, and exocrine glands are secrete hormones into ducts.
The options are attached here:
A.Enzymes aid biological reactions by providing more reactants.B.Enzymes aid biological reactions by removing products quickly.C.Enzymes raise the temperature in a cell to speed up biological reactions.D.Enzymes reduce the activation energies of biological reactions.E.Enzymes reduce the energy of products in biological reactions.Thus, the correct option is D.Enzymes reduce the activation energies of biological reactions.
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Reptiles are closely related to birds. Which of the following characteristics do birds and reptiles share?
Which blood type can be transfused into a patient who has blood type A–?
Answer:
o negative
Explanation:
Hypoxia induces transcription of a DNA methyltransferase, DNMT1. What does this suggest about the relationship between hypoxia and regulation of gene expression
Answer:
Hypoxia is defined as an inherent condition of tumors that causes cancer development.
Hypoxia induces transcription of DNA methyltransferase, DNMT1 which suggest that hypoxia and regulation of gene expression have epigenetic relationship that refers to inheritable mechanisms responsible for regulating gene expression without altering the sequence of DNA bases.
DNA methylation is main epigenetic mechanism of Hypoxia.
Organisms inherit specific traits and characteristics from their parents.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
It gets passed doen like one dominant brown eye and a recessive blue eye. most likley the brown would be passed down.
What would happen to a bacterial cell if its protective covering was destroyed? It would be better protected from the outside environment. It would be able to take in materials more easily. It would be harmed by chemicals in the environment. It would reproduce more slowly.
Answer:
it would be harmed by chemicals in the environmenti
If a bacterial cell's protective covering was destroyed - It would be harmed by chemicals in the environment.
The cell wall of bacteriaThe cell wall is a outer layer that surrounds the cell membrane and protects bacteria. It is serve as a protective barrier between inner membrane and external environment.
It is essential for maintenance of cell shape and structure as well as the prevent it from harmfull chemicals present in the environement.
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The cardiac tissue has fewer T tubules and store less calcium than skeletal muscle. What is the outcome of these two traits
Answer:
The slow arrival of contraction or the slow onset of contraction.
Explanation:
The T tubules function in the transformation of the action potential from the sarcolemma to the sarcopasm reticulum.
In the skeletal muscles, it is located at the junction of the A and I bands but in the cardiac muscles, it is located only at the z discs thus giving rise to to T tubules.
The cardiac muscles also do not possess as much calcium as the skeletal muscles thus, its calcium ion must come from outside producing the slow arrival of contraction or the slow onset of contraction.
The cardiac tissue has fewer T tubules and stores less calcium than skeletal muscle, thereby the onset for muscle contraction is SLOWER in the heart than in skeletal muscle.
The sarcolemma is the plasma (excitable) membrane of muscle cells, which are surrounded by endomysial connective tissue.The T-tubules are invaginations of the sarcolemma that enter into the muscle cell in order to form interconnected networks.These tubules (T tubules) store intracellular calcium ions under the supervision of membrane depolarization through a voltage sensor channel (i.e., DHPR).In conclusion, the cardiac tissue has fewer T tubules and stores less calcium than skeletal muscle, thereby the onset for muscle contraction is SLOWER in the heart than in skeletal muscle.
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There are two primary models of the universe. One is the expanding model, which says that the universe is constantly increasing in size. The other is, the steady state model, which says that the universe is approximately constant in size and shape. What evidence would you expect to see if the expanding model were correct?
Answer:
Ok, suppose that the universe is expanding:
If the universe is expanding, then the distance between "fixed" points in the universe (we can set the fixed points as planets, galaxies, etc) would change with the time.
This means that, if the distance between the Earth and a given star or planet (that is not in our nearby region) should change as time goes by.
Now, this was actually observed:
There is something called the doppler effect:
In a short way, if an object is moving away, the light that comes from that object will have a red shift (it seems a little more reddish than it actually is)
If the object is moving towards us, the light that comes from the object will have a blue shift (it seems a little more blueish than it actually is)
Those shifts can be observed from the Earth, so from that is safe to conclude that the expanding model is actually correct.
Answer:
Observing objects in the sky that gradually move away from Earth could prove that the expanding model is correct.
Explanation:
The diagram shows animal and plant cells placed in 3 different types of solutions.
a) Name the 3 types of solutions taking inference from the picture above and explain the process taking place in A
b) When plant cell is placed in solution C, which part prevents it from bursting and how?
c) Name the process by which Amoeba obtains its food
This diagram shows vegetal and animal cells placed in solutions of different concentrations.
a)Solution A is called hypertonic because it has a higher concentration than the cell's cytoplasm. In the animal cell, it causes the water to diffuse out through osmosis. In the plant cell water is lost through the same process but the cell wall remains intact while the membrane reduces in volume.
Solution B is called isotonic because it has around the same concentration as the cytoplasm of the cell. It does not influence the volume of the cell.
Solution C is called hypotonic because it has a lower concentration than the cytoplasm. In the animal cell, it causes the cell to fill with water until it bursts(this process is called cytolysis). In the plant cell water diffuses through the membrane, but the cell doesn't burst.
b)Plant cells have a strong cell wall made of cellulose, hemicellulose and, lignin that prevents cytolysis.
c)Amoeba obtains its food through a process called phagocytosis in which the solid material is engulfed in a vesicle that enters the cell.
Plant cells have a strong cell wall made of cellulose, hemicellulose and, lignin that prevents cytolysis.
What do you mean by cytolysis?Cytolysis, or osmotic lysis, occurs when a cell bursts due to an osmotic imbalance that has caused excess water to diffuse into the cell. Water can enter the cell by diffusion through the cell membrane or through selective membrane.
Cytolysis or osmotic lysis occurs in animal cells and certain bacteria, especially when the cells are exposed to a hypotonic environment, causing the water to move into the cell, thereby increasing or expanding the cell.
When cells burst and die, their contents are released, causing inflammation. Every day, more than 50 billion cells die in our bodies. These are not random events, but part of a finely tuned biological mechanism called programmed cell death.
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Merlin’s paper discusses two types of data: artifactual and paleoethnobotanical. Give specific examples of each and describe the sources of data and the type of information you can gain.
Answer:
Merlin's paper discusses two types of data: artifactual and paleoethnobotanical. Give specific examples of each and describe the sources of data and the ...
How do the products of meiosis compare to the original cell?
Answer:
Meiosis is the type of cell division in which a parent cell divides into four daughter cells. Meiosis generally occurs in the gamete or sex cells. The haploid cells are produced by the meiosis.
The original cell is diploid that contains the chromosome number (2X). The original is divided into the four daughter cell. The daughter cells produced by the meiosis contains the half chromosome number as compared with original cell (X). The crossing over occurs in meiosis and the daughter cells are quite different from the original cells.
Explanation:
New mutations can also occur randomly, so there’s a chance that children of parents who didn’t inherit the gene for Huntington’s can develop a mutation in the gene that causes Huntington’s disease explain how protein synthesis contributes to the symptoms of the disease
Answer:
It depends on the mutation rate
Explanation:
Mutations are genetic changes that occur naturally by errors during DNA replication which are not repaired by the DNA repair mechanisms. When a mutation occurs in the germline line, it may pass to the next generations and thus perpetuate itself. Huntington's disorder is an autosomal dominant disorder associated with a trinucleotide repeat mutation in the huntingtin (HTT) gene localized on chromosome 4, which encodes the Huntingtin protein. It has been shown that the high levels of Huntingtin are linked to Huntington's disorder, thereby it is believed that this mutation might be associated with a higher expression of the HTT gene.
In the microarray analysis some genes, such as ERB-B2 and ESR1, have been found to be associated with particular disease or conditions such as cancer. Other genes, such as the ABC-B2 gene, are not associated with a disease but are involved in resistance to certain drugs or treatments. Why would it be useful to test for the expression of genes like the ABC-B2 gene on the microarray
Answer:
The expression of genes associated with drug resistance leads to the reduction in the effectiveness of drugs against cancer cells.
Explanation:
In cancer, drug resistance is produced when oncogenic cells are able to develop mechanisms of resistance against drugs such as, for example, chemotherapeutic agents. In these cases, therapeutic treatments become ineffective to fight against cancer cells and tumor progression. In consequence, it is imperative to trace the expression of target oncogenes associated with drug resistance in order to provide effective treatments to eliminate cancer cells.
The medulla oblongs ya controls the contraction and relaxation of the blank causing the lungs to inflate and deflate during breathing.
Answer:
This question includes some errors, the question should be written as:
The medulla oblongata controls the contraction and relaxation of the ______ causing the lungs to inflate and deflate during breathing.
Although there are no options, the answer is generally RESPIRATORY MUSCLES i.e. diaphragm and intercostal muscles
Explanation:
Breathing is an involuntary action required to take place in order to get oxygen into the system and carbon dioxide out of the system. However, the process of breathing is neurally controlled by brain portion called RESPIRATORY CONTROL CENTERS.
The Medulla oblongata located in the hindbrain is one of the two respiratory control centers (the other being the PONS). The medulla sends nerve signals to the muscles responsible for bringing about the ventilation process i.e. the DIAPHRAGM and INTERCOSTAL MUSCLES.
This nerve impulse brings about the contraction of the diaphragm, which is the major respiratory muscle, and intercostal muscle causing the lungs to inflate and allow the entry of oxygen-containing air. On the other hand, it also brings about the relaxation of these muscles causing the lungs to deflate allowing the expelling of air.