4. In the common collector amplifier circuit, which of the following options is the relationship between the input voltage and the output voltage? (10points) A. The output voltage > The input voltage

Answers

Answer 1

In the common collector amplifier circuit, the input voltage and output voltage are in-phase, and the output voltage is slightly less than the input voltage.

Explanation:

The relationship between the input voltage and the output voltage in the common collector amplifier circuit is that the input voltage and output voltage are in-phase, and the output voltage is slightly less than the input voltage.

This circuit is also known as the emitter-follower circuit because the emitter terminal follows the base input voltage.

This circuit provides a voltage gain that is less than one, but it provides a high current gain.

The output voltage is in phase with the input voltage, and the voltage gain of the circuit is less than one.

The output voltage is slightly less than the input voltage, which is why the common collector amplifier is also called an emitter follower circuit.

The emitter follower circuit provides high current gain, low output impedance, and high input impedance.

One of the significant advantages of the common collector amplifier is that it acts as a buffer for driving other circuits.

In conclusion, the relationship between the input voltage and output voltage in the common collector amplifier circuit is that the input voltage and output voltage are in-phase, and the output voltage is slightly less than the input voltage.

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Related Questions

6. A quantum particle is described by the wave function y(x) = A cos (2πx/L) for -L/4 ≤ x ≤ L/4 and (x) everywhere else. Determine: (a) The normalization constant A, (b) The probability of findin

Answers

The normalization constant A can be determined by integrating the absolute value squared of the wave function over the entire domain and setting it equal to 1, which represents the normalization condition. In this case, the wave function is given by:

ψ(x) = A cos (2πx/L) for -L/4 ≤ x ≤ L/4, and ψ(x) = 0 everywhere else.

To find A, we integrate the absolute value squared of the wave function:

∫ |ψ(x)|^2 dx = ∫ |A cos (2πx/L)|^2 dx

Since the wave function is zero outside the range -L/4 ≤ x ≤ L/4, the integral can be written as:

∫ |ψ(x)|^2 dx = ∫ A^2 cos^2 (2πx/L) dx

The integral of cos^2 (2πx/L) over the range -L/4 ≤ x ≤ L/4 is L/8.

Thus, we have:

∫ |ψ(x)|^2 dx = A^2 * L/8 = 1

Solving for A, we find:

A = √(8/L)

The probability of finding the particle in a specific region can be calculated by integrating the absolute value squared of the wave function over that region. In this case, if we want to find the probability of finding the particle in the region -L/4 ≤ x ≤ L/4, we integrate |ψ(x)|^2 over that range:

P = ∫ |ψ(x)|^2 dx from -L/4 to L/4

Substituting the wave function ψ(x) = A cos (2πx/L), we have:

P = ∫ A^2 cos^2 (2πx/L) dx from -L/4 to L/4

Since cos^2 (2πx/L) has an average value of 1/2 over a full period, the integral simplifies to:

P = ∫ A^2/2 dx from -L/4 to L/4

= (A^2/2) * (L/2)

Substituting the value of A = √(8/L) obtained in part (a), we have:

P = (√(8/L)^2/2) * (L/2)

= 8/4

= 2

Therefore, the probability of finding the particle in the region -L/4 ≤ x ≤ L/4 is 2.

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with what minimum speed must you toss a 190 g ball straight up to just touch the 11- m -high roof of the gymnasium if you release the ball 1.1 m above the ground? solve this problem using energy.

Answers

To solve this problem using energy considerations, we can equate the potential energy of the ball at its maximum height (touching the roof) with the initial kinetic energy of the ball when it is released.

The potential energy of the ball at its maximum height is given by:

PE = mgh

Where m is the mass of the ball (190 g = 0.19 kg), g is the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s^2), and h is the maximum height (11 m).

The initial kinetic energy of the ball when it is released is given by:

KE = (1/2)mv^2

Where v is the initial velocity we need to find.

Since energy is conserved, we can equate the potential energy and initial kinetic energy:

PE = KE

mgh = (1/2)mv^2

Canceling out the mass m, we can solve for v:

gh = (1/2)v^2

v^2 = 2gh

v = sqrt(2gh)

Plugging in the values:

v = sqrt(2 * 9.8 m/s^2 * 11 m)

v ≈ 14.1 m/s

Therefore, the minimum speed at which the ball must be tossed straight up to just touch the 11 m-high roof of the gymnasium is approximately 14.1 m/s.

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Show that the free-particle one-dimensional Schro¨dinger
equation for the wavefunc-
tion Ψ(x, t):
∂Ψ
i~
∂t = −
~
2
2m


,
∂x2
is invariant under Galilean transformations
x
′ = x −
3. Galilean invariance of the free Schrodinger equation. (15 points) Show that the free-particle one-dimensional Schrödinger equation for the wavefunc- tion V (x, t): at h2 32 V ih- at is invariant u

Answers

The Galilean transformations are a set of equations that describe the relationship between the space-time coordinates of two reference systems that move uniformly relative to one another with a constant velocity. The aim of this question is to demonstrate that the free-particle one-dimensional Schrodinger equation for the wave function ψ(x, t) is invariant under Galilean transformations.

The free-particle one-dimensional Schrodinger equation for the wave function ψ(x, t) is represented as:$$\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t} = \frac{-\hbar}{2m} \frac{\partial^2 \psi}{\partial x^2}$$Galilean transformation can be represented as:$$x' = x-vt$$where x is the position, t is the time, x' is the new position after the transformation, and v is the velocity of the reference system.

Applying the Galilean transformation in the Schrodinger equation we have:

[tex]$$\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t}[/tex]

=[tex]\frac{\partial x}{\partial t} \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial x} + \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t}$$$$[/tex]

=[tex]\frac{-\hbar}{2m} \frac{\partial^2 \psi}{\partial x^2}$$[/tex]

Substituting $x'

= [tex]x-vt$ in the equation we get:$$\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t}[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{\partial}{\partial t} \psi(x-vt, t)$$$$\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial}{\partial x} \psi(x-vt, t)$$$$\frac{\partial^2 \psi}{\partial x^2} = \frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2} \psi(x-vt, t)$$[/tex]

Substituting the above equations in the Schrodinger equation, we have:

[tex]$$\frac{\partial}{\partial t} \psi(x-vt, t) = \frac{-\hbar}{2m} \frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2} \psi(x-vt, t)$$[/tex]

This shows that the free-particle one-dimensional Schrodinger equation is invariant under Galilean transformations. Therefore, we can conclude that the Schrodinger equation obeys the laws of Galilean invariance.

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