A 32-year-old primigravida is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that
a.bed rest and analgesics are the recommended treatment.
b.she will be unable to conceive in the future.
c.a D&C will be performed to remove the products of conception.
d.hemorrhage is the major concern.

Answers

Answer 1

A 32-year-old primigravida is hospitalized with an ectopic pregnancy diagnosis. Nursing care is predicated on the understanding that hemorrhage is a major concern. 

Ectopic pregnancy is a condition where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. It is a life-threatening condition that requires prompt medical attention. Treatment may include medication, surgery, or a combination of both, depending on the severity of the condition.

Bed rest and analgesics are not recommended as the only treatment for ectopic pregnancy, as they do not address the underlying problem and may delay necessary intervention. Additionally, ectopic pregnancy does not necessarily mean that the patient will be unable to conceive in the future, as the unaffected fallopian tube and the ovary can still function normally.

A D&C (dilation and curettage) is not typically performed for ectopic pregnancy, as the products of conception are not located in the uterus.

Hemorrhage is a major concern in ectopic pregnancy, as the developing embryo can cause the fallopian tube to rupture, leading to internal bleeding and potentially life-threatening complications.

Therefore, nursing care for a patient with an ectopic pregnancy would focus on monitoring for signs of hemorrhage and supporting the patient through necessary medical interventions.

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after noting meconium-stained amniotic fluid and fetal heart rate decelerations, the physician diagnoses a depressed fetus. the appropriate nursing action at this time would be to do what?

Answers

Answer: To infuse cefoxitin over 30 minutes, which drip rate that should be used by the nurse is 33 drops/minute.

What is recommended infusion time?

The recommended infusion time is defined as the time that is being prescribed by the physicofor the administration of the client's intravenous drugs and fluids.

From the question, the quantity of cefoxitin given = 1 g in 100 ml of 5% dextrose in water.

The available infusion set has a calibration = 10 drops/ml.

The prescribed infusion time given = 30 mins

That is;

10 drops = 1 mL

X drops = 100 ml

Make X drops the subject of formula;

X drops = 10 × 100 = 1000 drops

From the infusion time given, calculate the drive rate as follows;

1000 drops = 30 minutes

X drops = 1 Minute

Make X drops the subject of formula;

X drops = 1000/30

X drops = 33 drops / minute.

Explanation:

the patient has a history of hit. which is the preferred solution to flush the cvc after blood sampling?

Answers

you have to straddle the road as the

In patients with a history of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), the preferred solution to flush the central venous catheter (CVC) after blood sampling is saline solution.

HIT is a potentially life-threatening immune-mediated disorder that can occur in patients who have been exposed to heparin. In these patients, heparin can activate platelets, leading to thrombocytopenia and an increased risk of blood clots.

Therefore, it is important to avoid using heparin to flush the CVC in patients with HIT. Saline solution is a safe alternative that can be used to flush the CVC without increasing the risk of thrombosis. It is important to follow proper flushing protocols and guidelines to ensure the safety and well-being of patients with a history of HIT.

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type 1 diabetes mellitus results from inability to produce the hormone insulin. how would this condition change the normal events of absorptive state?

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Type 1 diabetes mellitus results from an inability to produce the hormone insulin, which normally acts to regulate the uptake of glucose from the bloodstream. In the absorptive state, insulin normally works to promote the uptake of glucose into cells to be used for energy. In diabetes mellitus, the lack of insulin leads to decreased uptake of glucose and results in higher levels of glucose in the bloodstream.

Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is a chronic condition that occurs when the pancreas is unable to produce enough insulin, a hormone needed to convert glucose into energy. Without enough insulin, glucose accumulates in the blood, resulting in high blood sugar levels. Symptoms of T1DM include increased thirst and urination, unexplained weight loss, and fatigue. Other complications can include blindness, kidney disease, and nerve damage. The cause of T1DM is not fully understood but is thought to involve a combination of genetics and environmental factors.

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people who suffer from gastroesophageal reflux disease can reduce symptoms by avoiding foods that cause discomfort, including:

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People suffering from gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) can reduce symptoms by avoiding foods that cause discomfort, such as: acidic foods, spicy foods, fatty foods  and Alcohol.

People who suffer from gastroesophageal reflux disease can reduce symptoms by avoiding foods that cause discomfort, including acidic foods, spicy foods, and fatty foods.

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is a digestive condition in which stomach acid flows back into the esophagus. People who suffer from GERD should avoid acidic, spicy, and fatty foods because they can cause discomfort and increase acid production in the stomach.

Additionally, some foods can weaken the lower esophageal sphincter (LES), which is a muscular ring that controls the opening between the esophagus and stomach. When the LES is weak, stomach acid can flow back up into the esophagus.

Here are some foods to avoid if you suffer from GERD:

Acidic foods and drinks: oranges, grapefruit, lemons, limes, tomatoes, cranberries, and citrus juices.

Spicy foods: chili peppers, black pepper, curry, hot sauce, and salsa.

Fatty foods: fried foods, fast food, bacon, sausage, cream sauce, butter, and high-fat meats.

Chocolate and mint: chocolate contains caffeine, which can relax the LES and trigger GERD symptoms. Mint can also relax the LES.Caffeine and carbonated drinks: coffee, tea, soda, and energy drinks can increase acid production in the stomach and weaken the LES.

These foods can exacerbate GERD symptoms, so it is recommended to avoid them to reduce discomfort.

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a client has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism. how will the nurse explain this condition in relationship to basal energy expenditure (bee)?

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Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the body does not produce enough of the hormone thyroxine, which is essential for maintaining basal energy expenditure (BEE). This can lead to decreased metabolism and energy production, resulting in fatigue and weight gain.

Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland, which is located in the neck, fails to produce enough of certain important hormones. Symptoms can include fatigue, weight gain, depression, constipation, dry skin, and a low heart rate. Treatment is generally with the replacement of the hormones that the thyroid is not producing, either orally or through injections. Long-term management includes periodic monitoring of hormone levels and other tests to assess thyroid status.

The most common cause of hypothyroidism is an autoimmune disorder known as Hashimoto's thyroiditis, where the body's own immune system attacks the thyroid. Other causes of hypothyroidism include surgical removal of the thyroid, radiation therapy, medications, and other rare medical conditions.

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a patient at a long-term care facility suffered a spinal cord injury at level t 7 several months ago, developed a flushed face, diaphoresis and blurred vision. the nurse notes that the patient's blood pressure is 194/105 mm hg. which of the following interventions should the nurse perform first? a. palpating the area over the bladder for distention b. placing the patient in a semi fowler's position c. give prescribed stool softeners for constipation d. prepare to administer prescribed apresoline ivp

Answers


The nurse should first prepare to administer the prescribed Apresoline IVP. This is due to the fact that the patient's blood pressure is 194/105 mm Hg, which is indicative of hypertension and a medical emergency. Administering the IVP can help quickly bring the patient's blood pressure back to a safe range.

To administer the Apresoline IVP, the nurse should first collect the medication, any equipment needed (e.g. needles, IV bag), and any supplies needed for the procedure (e.g. antiseptic).

The nurse should then explain the procedure to the patient and gain their consent before continuing. The nurse should also check the patient’s vital signs to ensure that the medication can be safely administered. Finally, the nurse should administer the medication as prescribed and monitor the patient’s vital signs for any adverse reactions.

In conclusion, the nurse should prepare to administer the prescribed Apresoline IVP first in this case due to the high blood pressure, with other interventions such as palpating the area over the bladder for distention, placing the patient in a semi-Fowler's position, or giving prescribed stool softeners for constipation being done afterwards.

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2. during a surgical procedure, the rn observes a surgeon wearing sterile gloves brush his posterior hand surface on a tray. the tray had been cleaned with a liquid chemical agent. what is the most appropriate action by the rn?

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The most appropriate action by the RN in this situation would be to remind the surgeon of the importance of maintaining sterility throughout the procedure. It is essential that sterile techniques are followed to prevent the spread of infection. The RN should also take steps to ensure that all necessary equipment is available and that it is sterile.

This can include wiping down any surfaces with a sterile solution prior to use and checking that any containers and instruments are properly labeled. In addition, the RN should monitor the area for potential contaminants and make sure all personnel are using appropriate PPE.

Sterile techniques are the cornerstone of surgical asepsis and must be strictly observed. They include wearing appropriate PPE, washing hands, and using antiseptic solution to clean any surfaces. Contamination can be spread in a number of ways, such as direct contact with contaminated materials, using contaminated instruments, and poor aseptic technique.

By reminding the surgeon of the importance of maintaining sterility and following appropriate protocols, the RN can help reduce the risk of infection and ensure a successful outcome for the patient.

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which tactor would the nurse assess for in a patient suspected to be at risk for gl problems? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

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The nurse can assess a range of factors in a patient suspected to be at risk for GL problems like: family history, age, vision, etc.

These factors include the following:

Family history and previous glaucoma diagnosis

The nurse can assess whether the patient has a family history of glaucoma or has previously been diagnosed with glaucoma. If the patient has a family history of the condition, the nurse can recommend regular eye exams to monitor the health of the patient's eyes.

Elevated intraocular pressure

The nurse can check the patient's intraocular pressure. Elevated intraocular pressure can be an early indicator of glaucoma. The nurse can use a tonometer to measure the pressure in the patient's eyes.

Age

The nurse can assess the patient's age. Older individuals are at a higher risk of developing glaucoma.

Poor blood flow

The nurse can assess the patient's blood pressure and circulation. Poor blood flow can increase the risk of glaucoma.

A healthy lifestyle

The nurse can assess whether the patient leads a healthy lifestyle. Regular exercise, a balanced diet, and not smoking can help prevent glaucoma.

Vision

The nurse can also ask the patient about any vision changes, such as blurred vision or blind spots. Early detection of glaucoma can help prevent vision loss.

Overall, the nurse can assess these factors in a patient suspected to be at risk for GL problems.

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which activities would the nurse initiate for a client with alzheimer disease who is admitted to a long-term care facility? select all that apply. one, some, or all

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Answer: Weighing the client once a week, having specialized rehabilitation equipment available, establishing a schedule with periods of rest after activities.

(Assuming these were ones that were on your multiple choice list)

Explanation: Monitoring weight is an objective way to assess the nutritional status. Having the rehab equipment facilitates in the client's participation of self-care. The rest periods prevents fatigue and energizes the client for the next activity.

Activities for a client with Alzheimer Disease who is admitted to a long-term care facility should include individualized interventions that are focused on maintaining the highest level of functioning for the individual. Examples of activities may include music therapy, cognitive-behavioral therapy, individual or group activities, or providing sensory stimuli such as aromatherapy.

How is the treatment for Alzheimer's patients?

The nurse should focus on safety measures for the client to prevent wandering and self-injury. Music therapy can help to improve the quality of life for individuals with Alzheimer Disease by providing a non-threatening way to express emotions, reduce agitation, and provide an opportunity to enjoy the music. Cognitive-behavioral therapy can provide the client with strategies to manage symptoms such as anxiety, depression, and agitation. Group activities and one-on-one activities can be tailored to the individual’s interests and ability levels to keep them socially engaged and reduce boredom.

Finally, providing sensory stimuli such as aromatherapy can help reduce agitation and reduce stress for the individual. Overall, the nurse should create an individualized plan for the client that focuses on maintaining their highest level of functioning, safety, and well-being. Music therapy, cognitive-behavioral therapy, individual and group activities, and providing sensory stimuli can all be beneficial to a client with Alzheimer Disease.

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which is the best strategy the nurse manager should include when working to reduce healthcare disparities on a medical-surgical unit?

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The best strategy the nurse manager should include when working to reduce healthcare disparities on a medical-surgical unit is to create a culturally competent nursing staff.

Healthcare disparities are a type of difference in access to and provision of healthcare services among different groups of people. When specific groups of people don't get proper healthcare, they may suffer the consequences of this lack of care. The groups affected by healthcare disparities are usually categorized by race or ethnicity, socioeconomic status, gender identity, age, geographic location, and disability. Disparities in healthcare affect people's overall health outcomes, including mortality, morbidity, and quality of life.

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a nurse is administering digoxin to a 3-year-old child. what would be a reason to hold the dose of digoxin?

Answers

Nausea and vomiting.

One reason to hold the dose of digoxin in a 3-year-old child is if the child's heart rate is below the recommended range.

Digoxin is a medication used to treat heart conditions, and it works by increasing the strength and efficiency of the heart's contractions. However, if the child's heart rate is too slow, giving digoxin can further decrease the heart rate and cause harm.

Therefore, the nurse should check the child's heart rate before administering the medication. If the heart rate is below the recommended range, the nurse should hold the dose and notify the healthcare provider.

It is important to closely monitor the child's heart rate and adjust the medication dosage as needed to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes and avoid potential complications.

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a nurse is assessing a client who may be pregnant. the nurse reviews the client's history for presumptive signs. which signs would the nurse most likely note? select all that apply.

Answers

The signs the nurse most likely note are:

Skin Changes

Urinary Frequency

Amenorrhea

Fatigue

The presumptive signs that the nurse would most likely note when assessing a client who may be pregnant are the following:-

Amenorrhea:

This is the most common sign of pregnancy. The pregnant woman will stop having her regular menstrual cycle. Nausea and Vomiting: Also known as morning sickness. It occurs due to hormonal changes in the woman's body.

Fatigue:

Pregnant women often feel tired and sleepy due to the changes in their body and hormonal changes.- Breast Changes: The breast may become tender, sore, or swollen. The nipples may also become darker and more prominent. These changes are due to the hormonal changes in the woman's body.

Urinary Frequency:

Pregnant women may need to urinate more often due to the pressure on the bladder caused by the growing fetus.- Quickening: This is the first movement of the baby that the mother feels. It usually occurs between the 16th and 20th week of pregnancy.

Skin Changes:

Pregnant women may develop dark patches on their face, abdomen, or breasts. This is known as melasma, and it is due to hormonal changes in the woman's body.



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1. what is your overall opinion of the discharge process by the hospital nurse? state three areas of priority concerns.

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The discharge process by the hospital nurse is a very important part of ensuring the patient's safe and comfortable transition from the hospital to home. There are three key areas of priority that should be taken into consideration for the best patient experience and outcomes: communication, instructions, and follow-up care.

Firstly, communication is essential for a successful discharge. Nurses should ensure that they communicate effectively with the patient and their family, including providing clear explanations of the discharge process and instructions on how to properly care for the patient after they leave. Additionally, it is important that they are attentive to any questions or concerns the patient or family may have and make sure to answer them fully.

Secondly, nurses should provide comprehensive instructions on how to take medications and provide instructions for any follow-up care or tests the patient may need. They should also provide instructions for any changes to the patient’s diet and lifestyle, as well as contact information in case the patient or their family needs any additional assistance.

Finally, follow-up care is key to the patient’s recovery and long-term health. The nurse should provide contact information for a follow-up appointment and remind the patient to contact their primary care physician or any specialists if they are experiencing any complications or further issues.

In summary, the discharge process by the hospital nurse should involve effective communication, clear instructions, and follow-up care in order to ensure the patient's safety and comfort during the transition from the hospital to home.

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List two updates provided for QPU April-June 2020

Answers

The two updates provided for QPU April-June 2020 are

layout of the page and incorporated the links to the documents in a table format

What do these QPUs do?

The Quarterly Provider Update lists Agency regulations as well as meeting notices. This list also includes non-regulatory changes to the Medicare and Medicaid programs, such as manual instructions.

The QPU is available in two formats: an Adobe Acrobat file that is sorted by Provider Type for each category—Regulations and/or Issuances, and a zipped Word file. When unzipped, the zipped Word file will allow you to sort by File Code for Regulations or Transmittal, Change Request (CR), and Publication Numbers for Issuances.

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in the emergency care of a client with a pelvic fracture, the nurse must be especially alert for indications of the complication of a. deep vein thrombosis. b. hyperthermia. c. hypovolemic shock. d. infection.

Answers

A nurse must be particularly watchful for signs of hypovolemic shock when providing emergency treatment to a client who has a pelvic fracture. A major injury like a pelvic fracture might result in considerable bleeding and hypovolemic shock. This happens when the body significantly loses blood or other fluids,

Even so, they are not as frequent or as dangerous as hypovolemic shock. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT), hyperthermia, and infection are possible consequences linked to pelvic fractures. When a patient stays immobile for an extended amount of time, DVT, a blood clot that develops in a deep vein, usually in the legs, can be risky. Although it is not directly connected to the pelvic fracture, hyperthermia can develop in reaction to infection. Another possible risk is infection, especially if the pelvic fracture has an open incision. Yet, in the emergency management of a client with a pelvic fracture, this is often not a matter of urgent concern.

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a nurse is caring for a client with a transvenous pacemaker. the nurse notes the pacer spikes are falling to close on the client's own rhythm. what is the next best action of the nurse? group of answer choices

Answers

The next best action of the nurse would be to consult with the healthcare provider and obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG) to assess the pacemaker function and adjust the pacemaker settings as necessary.

A transvenous pacemaker is a medical device that is used to treat heart conditions by pacing the heart's rhythm. Pacer spikes falling too close to the client's own rhythm could mean that the pacemaker is not functioning properly, and may require adjustment.

Consulting with the healthcare provider and obtaining an ECG is necessary to evaluate the pacemaker function and determine if any changes need to be made to the pacemaker settings. The nurse should also closely monitor the client's vital signs and heart rhythm to ensure that they remain stable while the pacemaker is being evaluated and adjusted.

The answer is general as no options are provided.

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The nurse obtains a history from a client suspected of having cirrhosis. Which statement, if made by the client to the nurse, should the nurse recognize as most directly related to a client's development of cirrhosis?
A. "For the past several weeks I have not slept for more than 5 hours a night."
B. "Since my spouse left me 5 years ago, I have been eating terribly."
C. "I have been drinking about a fifth of vodka a day for the last few months."
D. "My spouse was a heavy smoker, and I am concerned about second-hand smoke."

Answers

The nurse obtains a history from a client suspected of having cirrhosis. The statement made by the client to the nurse which the nurse should recognize as most directly related to a client's development of cirrhosis is C. "I have been drinking about a fifth of vodka a day for the last few months."

Cirrhosis is a chronic illness in which the liver becomes scarred, hardened, and damaged. The liver is unable to function properly due to this damage, and it can cause various health problems. Cirrhosis is a common and severe health problem that causes damage to the liver. There are several factors that can lead to the development of cirrhosis in a person. Some of the factors that can cause cirrhosis include chronic hepatitis, alcohol abuse, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, and some genetic disorders.The client's statement that the nurse should recognize as most directly related to the client's development of cirrhosis is C. "I have been drinking about a fifth of vodka a day for the last few months." Excessive alcohol intake is one of the most frequent causes of cirrhosis. Therefore, the nurse should recognize that the client's excessive drinking can be the primary cause of the client's liver damage.

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a client has just been diagnosed with psoriasis and frequently has lesions around his right eye. what should the nurse teach the client about topical corticosteroid use on these lesions?

Answers

The nurse should taught to the client regarding the use of topical corticosteroids: Wash your hands before and after using the cream or ointment.

Do not use on broken or infected skin or in the eye. Apply sparingly to the affected area using a gentle, rubbing motion. Overuse of topical corticosteroids can cause thinning of the skin or other adverse effects. If you experience side effects such as itching, burning, or rash, stop using the cream or ointment and consult your doctor or nurse. Avoid long-term use of corticosteroids, as this can lead to more severe psoriasis symptoms or other health problems.

Psoriasis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the skin, scalp, and nails. The condition causes the body to produce excess skin cells, which then accumulate on the surface of the skin, resulting in scaly, itchy, and painful patches. Although psoriasis cannot be cured, there are treatments available to manage the symptoms. Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to treat mild to moderate psoriasis symptoms.

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the nurse explains to a client that immunotherapy initially starts with injections at which interval?

Answers

Answer:

The interval for immunotherapy injections can vary depending on the specific treatment plan prescribed by the healthcare provider. However, it is common for immunotherapy to begin with a series of weekly or biweekly injections, with the frequency gradually decreasing over time as the body develops immunity to the allergen. It's important for the client to follow the specific instructions provided by their healthcare provider and attend all scheduled appointments to ensure the best possible outcome from the immunotherapy treatment.

which action would the nurse anticipate when admitting a client having a sickle cell crisis to the nursing unit? select all that apply

Answers

When admitting a client having a sickle cell crisis to the nursing unit, the nurse should anticipate the following actions:

Assessing the client's pain and initiating treatment Monitoring vital signs and oxygen saturation Administering oxygen Administering medications

During a sickle cell crisis, a client's pain can be intense and need to be managed with medications and oxygen. Vital signs and oxygen saturation also need to be monitored regularly to assess the client's overall condition. Depending on the severity of the crisis, medications may need to be administered to control pain and prevent further complications.

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which individual will receive priority care within the special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and children (wic) program?

Answers

Within the WIC program, priority for care is given to pregnant women, postpartum women up to six months after delivery, and infants and young children who are at nutritional risk.

The Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) is a federally funded program that provides nutrition education, healthy food, and support to low-income pregnant women, new mothers, and young children up to age five. The program is designed to improve the health outcomes of these vulnerable populations and reduce the risk of poor nutrition and health problems. Among these groups, priority is given to those with the greatest need, which may be determined based on factors such as income, nutritional status, and medical history.

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which intervention will the nurse prioritize for the medical management of a client with a dissecting aortic aneurysm?

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The nurse will prioritize controlling the client's blood pressure for the medical management of a dissecting aortic aneurysm.

This is done to reduce the risk of further aortic rupture or dissection. A combination of medications, such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, are typically used to reduce blood pressure to a safe level. In some cases, the client may require intravenous fluids or medication to reduce their blood pressure quickly.

Additionally, the nurse may perform frequent monitoring of the client's vital signs and blood pressure levels to ensure the medications are effective. The nurse will also provide education to the client on the importance of lifestyle modifications and long-term management of the condition, such as avoiding strenuous activity, following a healthy diet, and monitoring their blood pressure.

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an adolescent with asthma has controlled her asthma using a drug regimen that includes theophylline. which new behavior would be of greatest priority to report to the prescriber?

Answers

The new behavior of smoking or any tobacco use should be of greatest priority to report to the prescriber.

Smoking or any tobacco use can decrease the effectiveness of theophylline and increase the risk of adverse effects. Smoking can also worsen asthma symptoms, making it more difficult to control the condition. Therefore, it is essential to inform the prescriber if the adolescent starts smoking or using tobacco products.

The prescriber may need to adjust the medication regimen or recommend smoking cessation resources to help manage the asthma effectively. Reporting any changes in behavior to the prescriber is crucial to ensure the best possible treatment outcomes and prevent any potential harm.

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which action by the nurse is approriate when managing care of a client? combine nursing activities whenever possible

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When managing care of a client, combining nursing activities whenever possible is an appropriate action by the nurse.

What is the meaning of the term nurse?

A nurse is an individual who provides health care services to patients. They are primarily responsible for the safety and well-being of the patients. Nurses work in a variety of healthcare settings, including hospitals, nursing homes, doctor's offices, and private homes. Care management is a nursing strategy that promotes patient-centered care, coordination, and improved outcomes by promoting collaborative and inter professional practice.

The objective of care management is to improve the quality of care by ensuring that patients receive the right care at the right time, in the right place, and by the right team members. Care management involves the provision of comprehensive care to patients by combining the functions of care coordination, assessment, and planning, resource management, and discharge planning.

Combining nursing activities is an appropriate action when managing care of a client to save time and enhance patient-centered care.

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a nurse is teaching a client with an ileostomy about foods that could result in the production of liquid stools. which food selected by the client indicates further instruction is required?

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When a nurse is teaching a client with an ileostomy about foods that could result in the production of liquid stools,  food selected by the client indicates further instruction is required are vegetables.

Clients who have ileostomies have had their small intestines removed, and their large intestine or colon may or may not be present. They have bowel movements as a result of the stoma (surgical opening) in their abdomen. An ileostomy is formed by connecting the end of the small intestine to the stoma.

The output from an ileostomy is thin or watery, has no odor or solid pieces, and is sometimes yellow in color. The output can irritate the skin around the stoma, causing skin problems if it is in contact with the skin. To prevent such difficulties, the nurse instructs the client to avoid certain foods that can produce loose stools such as beans, nuts, and fresh fruits, and vegetables.

In conclusion, the food item selected by the client, which indicates the need for further instruction, is raw vegetables.

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use of which restraint requires the nurse to stay with the client until the restraint is discontinued?

Answers

The use of a physical restraint, such as a vest restraint, requires the nurse to stay with the client until the restraint is discontinued.

This is because physical restraints can cause physical and psychological harm to the client if they are not monitored closely. Additionally, physical restraints can be distressing for the client and may cause anxiety, fear, or feelings of helplessness.

Therefore, it is important for the nurse to continuously assess the client's condition, comfort, and safety while they are restrained. The nurse should also document the client's response to the restraint and any adverse effects or complications that may arise.

Once the restraint is no longer necessary, the nurse should carefully remove it and continue to monitor the client's response.

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why are patients who suffer from rare terminal diseases more likely to die even though the cost of new drug development is about the same for rare and more common terminal diseases?

Answers

Patients who suffer from rare terminal diseases are more likely to die because of several reasons, despite the cost of new drug development being about the same for rare and more common terminal diseases.

First off, pharmaceutical corporations find it less desirable to invest in R&D due to the smaller patient pool of uncommon diseases.

Second, because rare diseases are by definition uncommon, conducting extensive clinical studies to test new treatments can be difficult. Due to the paucity of information on the effectiveness and safety of novel treatments for uncommon diseases, it may be challenging for medical professionals to recommend the best courses of action.

Finally, it might be exceedingly expensive to research novel therapies for rare disorders. Although the cost of drug development may be comparable for rare and more widespread terminal diseases, the cost per patient for uncommon diseases can be significantly higher due to the smaller patient pool.

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a nurse is caring for an infant who just had open-heart surgery and the parents are asking why there are wires coming out of the infant's chest. what is the best response by the nurse?

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As a nurse, what would be the best response when an infant's parents ask why there are wires coming out of the infant's chest after open-heart surgery? Infants and their families require a lot of support and understanding from the nurses who provide care for them.

The best response to the infant's parents when they inquire about the wires coming out of their infant's chest after an open-heart surgery is that they are attached to the chest to monitor the infant's heart function and rhythm. Another possible response could be that the wires are in place to help maintain the chest tubes in position.

The nurse should communicate to the infant's parents the purpose of these wires, explain how to care for them, and encourage them to ask questions or raise concerns at any time about their infant's recovery.

Also, the nurse should offer the parents the opportunity to meet with the pediatric surgeon who performed the operation and discuss any queries they may have with the physician.

Additionally, the nurse should give the parents some coping mechanisms and encourage them to take time to rest and look after themselves. Finally, the nurse should reassure the infant's parents that they are part of the medical team and can assist in the care of their baby during this crucial period.

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the nurse is assessing an older adult. the client states that she feels a constant, sharp pain only when walking. the nurse suspects the client is experiencing what?

Answers

The nurse suspects that the client is experiencing peripheral neuropathy, which is a condition caused by damage to the peripheral nerves.  This can be caused by many different factors, such as diabetes, chemotherapy, trauma, and vitamin deficiencies.

Peripheral neuropathy often causes a constant, sharp pain that worsens with movement or exercise. In addition, it may cause other symptoms such as tingling or numbness, muscle weakness, balance problems, and abnormal sensations.
The nurse should conduct a thorough physical assessment of the patient to better understand the source of the pain.

Tests such as a complete blood count, nerve conduction studies, and electromyography may also be used to diagnose peripheral neuropathy. The goal of treatment is to reduce the pain and manage other symptoms. Treatments may include medications, physical therapy, and lifestyle modifications.

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the nurse is caring for a client with right-sided weakness after having a cerebrovascular accident (cva). while conducting the head-to-toe assessment, the nurse notices the client has redness around the right elbow. when developing the client's care plan, which problem-focused nursing concern will the nurse include?

Answers

When the nurse is caring for a client with right-sided weakness after having a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) and during the head-to-toe assessment, the nurse notices redness around the right elbow, the nursing care plan will include the nursing concern of impaired mobility due to joint pain.

What is a Cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?

A cerebrovascular accident (CVA), also known as a stroke, happens when blood supply to the brain is interrupted, causing brain cells to die. It's a serious medical emergency that necessitates quick treatment. There are three different types of stroke: Ischemic, hemorrhagic, and transient ischemic attacks (TIA).

It is critical to note that the best care for a patient with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is prevention. Impaired mobility due to joint pain is a nursing concern that can be included in the nursing care plan. This nursing diagnosis is classified as a problem-focused nursing diagnosis because it is concerned with addressing the client's current issue.

It is also known as a present health problem, which is described as an undesirable response to an existing problem.

What is a Nursing care plan?

A nursing care plan is a written guide that describes the goals, objectives, and nursing care activities to be performed to meet the client's health care requirements. Nursing care plans help the nursing staff to provide comprehensive and individualized care for their patients. A nursing care plan helps in prioritizing nursing care interventions, and the nursing team can easily identify and manage the client's health care needs.


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