A body temperature of 37oc, blood pressure of 120/80, and a blood ph of 7.35-7.45 are all examples of ____________.

Answers

Answer 1

A body temperature of 37 Celsius degrees, blood pressure of 120/80, and a blood ph of 7.35 to 7.45 are all examples of set points.

What are health set points?

The expression health set points makes reference to certain standard values that the human body exhibits to maintain the state of equilibrium or homeostasis of the biological system.

In conclusion, a body temperature of 37 Celsius degrees, blood pressure of 120/80, and a blood ph of 7.35 to 7.45 are all examples of set points.

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Related Questions

The nurse knows that magnesium is an important component of which processes that are integral to the maintenance of homeostasis? select all that apply.

Answers

Magnesium is required for the cellular membrane activity and energy metabolism within cells.

The sodium-potassium pump's role conduction of nerves.The stable internal, external, and chemical conditions that are maintained by living systems are known as homeostasis in biology. In order for the organism to function at its best, a number of factors, including body temperature and fluid balance, must be maintained within predetermined ranges.Other factors that must be controlled despite changes in the environment, diet, or level of exercise include the pH of extracellular fluid, the concentrations of sodium, potassium, and calcium ions, as well as that of the blood sugar level. One or more regulators or homeostatic mechanisms regulate each of these factors, which collectively help to keep life in balance.A innate resistance to change when circumstances are already ideal leads to homeostasis.

Therefore, maintenance of homeostasis require a number of changes.

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A client who is slightly overweight is preparing for discharge from the hospital after a cholecystectomy. which is important for the nurse to include in teaching the client about nutrition?

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It is important for the nurse to include in teaching the client about nutrition explaining that fatty foods may not be tolerated for several weeks. The correct option is B.

What is cholecystectomy?

The gallbladder is surgically removed during a cholecystectomy. Cholecystectomy is a common treatment for gallstones and other gallbladder problems.

Without a gallbladder, you can live a perfectly normal life. Your liver will continue to produce enough bile to digest your food, but instead of storing it in your gallbladder, it will drip continuously into your digestive system.

A slightly overweight client is preparing to be discharged from the hospital following a cholecystectomy.

It is critical for the nurse to explain to the client that fatty foods may not be tolerated for several weeks when teaching them about nutrition.

Thus, the correct option is B.

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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:

Listing low-protein foods that may be included in the dietExplaining that fatty foods may not be tolerated for several weeksTeaching the importance of a low-calorie diet to promote weight reductionEncouraging the intake of high vitamin C, vitamin A, and zinc foods at each meal

A doctor orders aerosol therapy for a patient receiving mechanical ventilation who is being provided humidification with a heat and moisture exchanger (hme). To assure effective therapy you must?

Answers

A doctor orders aerosol therapy for a patient receiving mechanical ventilation who is being provided humidification with a heat and moisture exchanger (HME) and to assure effective therapy you must remove the HME before aerosol therapy and replace it afterward.

The primary use of aerosol therapy is treatment of metabolic process disorders that include: impeding lung diseases which lead to respiratory disorders such as asthma and chronic impeding pulmonary diseases including the respiratory illness and emphysema.

The single-use drug delivery system that's primarily designed for delivery of aerosolised medications to patient who is on mechanical ventilation, is a breath-synchronized vibrating mesh nebulizer, the Pulmonary Drug Delivery System (PDDS).

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Who are the major players in the us health services system? what are the positive and negative effects of the often-conflicting self-interests of these players? ( unit 1 lecture, chapter 1 reading)

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The major players in the U.S. health services system are the physicians, administrators of health service institutions, insurance executives, large employers, and the government and there are many positive and negative effects of the often-conflicting self-interests of these players.

Rather than operating a national health service, a single-payer national insurance system, or a multi-payer universal insurance fund, the U.S. health service system will best be represented as a hybrid system.

One positive impact of the opposing factors is that they forestall any single entity from dominating the complete system.

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a child who is inappropriately childish and displays extremes in their behavior is showing signs of

Answers

Answer:

ADHD

Explanation:

ADHD in children or toddlers can be presented in engaging in activities loudly or disruptively, excess talking and interrupting other people, constantly needing movement or frequently running around and low attention span while doing schoolwork. etc

Answer: ADHD/Autism i believe, sometimes affects children differently

The single most effective and critical health advantage for individuals wherever they live is.

Answers

adequate kcalorie intake

A nurse is preparing to obtain an aerobic wound culture from a client's surgical site. what would be most important for the nurse to do to ensure that the results are accurate?

Answers

Wearing of sterile gloves to obtain the needed specimen is the most important for the nurse to do to ensure that the results are accurate.

What are Aerobic wound culture?

This refers to a type of culture which is obtained from the superficial sites of wounds because such microbes can grow in the presence of oxygen alone while anaerobic culture is usually obtained deeper into the tissues because they can grow with the absence of oxygen.

It is best to wear sterile gloves to obtain the needed specimen so as to prevent contamination with ones present in the hand so as to ensure the results are accurate.

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The nurse finds an older-adult patient wandering in the hall. the patient says that he is looking for the bathroom. which intervention is appropriate to ensure the safety of the patient?

Answers

The intervention that would ensure the safety of the patient is assigning a ward boy who will accompany the patient to the bathroom.

What is Patient Safety?

Patient safety is a field that places an emphasis on ensuring patient safety through the prevention, mitigation, reporting, and analysis of mistakes and other types of avoidable harm that frequently result in negative patient events. Before the 1990s, when numerous nations reported sizable numbers of patients injured and killed by medical errors, the frequency and scale of preventable adverse events, also referred as incidents involving patient safety encountered by patients were not well understood.

According to the The World Health Organization (WHO), patient safety is a widespread problem because medical errors affect one in every ten patients globally. Patient safety has in fact become a separate healthcare field, underpinned by a young but developing scientific framework. There is a sizable amount of theoretical and scientific literature that is transdisciplinary

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A nurse is assessing a 2-year-old's language development. what would the nurse expect to assess?

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When a nurse is assessing a 2-year-old's language development. The nurse is expected to assess the use of a two-word noun-verb sentence.

What is language development?

Language development is the process by which children come to understand and communicate language during early childhood.

Language development in humans starts in the early life.

Thus, when a nurse is assessing a 2-year-old's language development. The nurse is expected to assess the use of a two-word noun-verb sentence.

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The complete question is below:

a) Verbalization of 4 to 6 words

b) Knowledge of full name

c) Ability to name one color

d) Use of a two-word noun-verb sentence

Udden infant death syndrome is associated with what risk factors?

Answers

Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is associated with the risk factors of premature infants and intrauterine growth delay.

Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) – typically referred to as "infant death" – is that the fulminant, surprising an unexplained death of an apparently healthy baby. In the UK, around two hundred babies die suddenly and unexpectedly per annum. This statistic might sound dread, however SIDS is rare and also the risk of your baby dying from it is low.

Babies might be at a major risk of SIDS if: their mother smoke-dried, drank, or used medicine throughout maternity and when birth. Their mother had poor paternal care. They were born prematurely or at an occasional birth weight.

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An infant who is able to use different techniques for sucking from a breast and sucking from a bottle is demonstrating?

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An infant who is able to use different techniques for sucking from a breast and sucking from a bottle is demonstrating sensorimotor intelligence.

The infant's sensorimotor process system is designed to facilitate the extraction of information regarding the globe together with people. Additionally, the infant is dowered with motives that make sure that the innate predispositions are reworked into a system of information for guiding actions predictively.

You can take a look at a baby's consumption reflex by inserting a nipple (breast or bottle), clean finger, or pacifier within the baby's mouth. If the reflex has absolutely developed, the baby ought to place their lips round the item then rhythmically squeeze it between their tongue and roof of the mouth.

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Darnell got into a terrible boating accident one weekend. the doctors found that he had substantial damage to his cerebellum. what effect will the injury have?

Answers

Due to the substantial damage caused to the brainstem in the boating accident, Darrel will die. Thus, option (b) Death is the correct answer.

The brainstem is the part which connects the brain and the spinal cord. Additionally, it should be remembered that the brainstem is necessary for sustaining vital biological functions like heart regulation and respiration, and that humans cannot survive without such activities. Although we wouldn't be aware that we were living without a cerebrum, the body cannot function without the brainstem. The cerebellum, sometimes known as the "little brain," connects to the brainstem and is located under the occipital lobes of the cerebral hemispheres. Its anatomy is comparable to that of the cerebrum and it contains a gray matter-dominated cortex with white matter in the center. Similarly, the cerebellum's surface is made up of folds known as folia.

It aids with motor coordination, motor learning, and balance. A functional cerebellum is necessary for smooth, coordinated skeletal muscle action as it plays a critical role in fine-tuning the motions as we practice and acquire complicated actions. The cerebellum receives a copy of the commands provided to the muscles by the motor cortex of the frontal lobes. It also gets information about balance and equilibrium from the inner ear as well as feedback from the proprioceptors in the muscles and joints, and it compares the motor cortex instructions. Information is sent back to the motor cortex in the cerebrum to adjust the motor activity based on these comparisons and results in the development of coordinated and smooth movements and agility for tasks.

The complete question is:

Darrel got into a terrible boating accident one weekend. The doctors found that he had substantial damage to his brainstem. Based on the function of the brainstem, what effect will the injury have?

a. complete paralysis, although he will remain conscious

b. death

a. an impairment of regulating feelings

d. an impairment in speech

e. a visual impairment

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2.
4.
6.
1. Highlight the diagram and click 'edit' at the bottom of the diagram.
2. Label all the regions
3. Click 'save' at the top right.
8.
1.
A
9.
3.
5.
7.

Answers

good luck man or woman or whatever

How do people use anger to have power over others?

Answers

anger can cause serious damage. Unresolved, recurrent anger can lead to health problems (hypertension, cardiovascular disease), interpersonal issues (damaged/terminated relationships, problems at work, isolation), decreased life satisfaction, and physical and emotional harm to self and others.

Sophie suffered right hemisphere damage following a stroke. she is least likely to experience difficulty in?

Answers

If Sophie has experienced, right hemisphere damage, she is least likely to experience any kind of difficulty in understanding a step in a recipe.

Which cerebral cortex are directly attached to touch and posture?

The cerebral cortex region that is located at the top of the head and present at the back is known as the parietal lobe. This part is known to receive sensory input for touch and body position.

Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is directly involved in the process of hearing?

One of the cerebral cortex’s four main lobes is the temporal lobe. It is primarily responsible for understanding any kind of sounds from the ears and is crucial for understanding and using language.

Which area of brain presents a swollen extension of the spinal cord?

The lowest section of the brain and the brainstem or called as the medulla oblongata, often known as the medulla is the area that presents a swollen extension of the spinal cord.

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Two cards are drawn without replacement from a well-shuffled deck of 52 playing cards. what is the probability that the first card drawn is a heart and the second card drawn is not a heart?

Answers

The probability that the first card drawn is a heart and the second card drawn is not a heart is 0.191.

What is the probability that the first card drawn is a heart and the second card drawn is not a heart?

The likelihood of the first card being a heart is 13/52.

If a heart is the first card drawn, there are still 51 cards overall and 39 of them are not hearts.

Therefore, the odds of the second card chosen not being a heart are 39/51.

This is how the necessary probability is discovered:

P(Heart first + Non-heart second) = 13/52 * 39/51

P(Heart first + Non heart second) = 0.191

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To identify the exact nature of a service, a(n) __________ is attached to the anesthesia code.

Answers

To identify the exact nature of a service, an ICD-10-CM procedure code  is attached to the anesthesia code.

What is ICD-10-CM procedure code?

ICD-10-PCS is the official system of assigning codes to procedures associated with hospital utilization.

CD-10-PCS codes will support data collection, payment and electronic health records.

ICD-10-PCS is a medical classification coding system for procedural codes.

Thus, to identify the exact nature of a service, an ICD-10-CM procedure code  is attached to the anesthesia code.

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outer layer of the skin

Answers

Answer:

the outer layer of skin is lots of cells witch are skin cells and with these they fall off and keep producing on a daily basis

Explanation:

5. Which determines the onset of AIDS?
a very high number of helper T cells in the blood
a persistent fever along with weight loss
O a fungal infection
O a very low number of helper T cells in the blood

Answers

The onset of AIDS occurs when there is:  a very low number of helper T cells in the blood; option D

What is AIDS?

AIDS is a sexually transmitted infected which is caused by infection with the HIV virus. AIDS means acquired immune deficiency syndrome.

The HIV virus or human immunodeficiency virus is a retrovirus which attacks and destroys the immune system which then results in the symptoms of AIDS.

The helper T cells are responsible for fighting and destroying invading foreign pathogens in the body.

The HIV virus attacks and destroys the helper T cells. When the number of helper T cells in the body becomes very low, this marks the onset of AIDS.

In conclusion, the HIV virus destroys the helper T cells leading to AIDS.

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The nurse identifies that the patient with the greatest risk for a urinary tract infection is?

Answers

The nurse identifies that the patient with the greatest risk for a urinary tract infection is: (4) 72-year-old woman hospitalized with a stroke who has a urinary catheter because of urinary incontinence.

Urinary tract infection are the infections of the urinary tract. The most commonly infected organs from the urinary tract are bladder and kidney. UTI is caused by bacteria that may enter the body from the skin or the urethra.

A urinary catheter is a tube attached to the bladder in order to empty it and remove the urine. It is attached to severely ill patients or to the old persons who find themselves unable to walk easily. The catheter can very easily allow bacteria to enter the body and hence has the greatest risk for infection.

The question is incomplete, the complete question is:

The nurse identifies that the patient with the greatest risk for a urinary tract infection is?

37-year-old man with renal colic associated with kidney stones.26-year-old pregnant woman who has a history of urinary tract infections.69-year-old man who has urinary retention caused by benign prostatic hyperplasia.72-year-old woman hospitalized with a stroke who has a urinary catheter because of urinary incontinence.

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When exercising in hot weather, what should you not do?

Drink extra water
Lower your intensity
Wear sunscreen
Exercise for a longer period of time

Answers

Answer: Exercise for a longer period of time.

What is the prefix, root word, and suffix of the word "Hepatitis"? all I really know is the meaning of hepatitis is liver inflammation.​

Answers

What are prefixes, root words, and suffixes?

Prefix: A group of letters that comes at the beginning of a word.
Root word: The basic part of the word, where the suffix and prefix are added.
Suffix: a group of letters that comes at the ending of a word.

In this case, Hepatitis has no PREFIX.
The root word is HEPAT, meaning liver.
The suffix is ITIS meaning inflammation.
_______________________________________________________
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If theo were a smaller child or toddler, amy could use a one-hand technique to perform high-quality chest compressions. true or false?

Answers

This is true that if theo were a smaller child or toddler, amy could use a one-hand technique to perform high-quality chest compressions.

How should one hold their hands when applying chest compressions to a six-year-old?compressions of the chest:Put the heel of one hand right below the nipples on the breastbone.Keep the child's head tilted back and your other hand on their forehead.Approximately one third to one half of the child's chest's depth should be compressed by applying pressure to the child's chest.30 chest squeezes should be given.enlarge the airway. With one hand, raise the chin. Tilt the head while simultaneously applying downward pressure on the forehead with the other hand.For signs of breathing, look, listen, and feel. Put your ear in close proximity to the kid's mouth and nose. Keep a close eye on your chest. On your cheek, check for breath.Give the child CPR if they are not breathing.If you are by yourself and the child is still not breathing normally, coughing, or moving after roughly 2 minutes of CPR, leave the child and dial 911 or the local emergency number. If a child AED is available, use it right away.Up until the child feels better or aid shows up, keep performing rescue breathing and chest compressions. If there is only one rescuer available, children receiving CPR should take two breaths after every 30 chest compressions. If there are two rescuers, they should get two breaths after every 15 chest compressions.

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A student nurse asks why chlorhexidine gluconate was ordered twice daily for a patient with an et tube. which response should the nurse preceptor provide?

Answers

"Oral decontamination lowers pathogenic bacterial colonization in the oral cavity, which may cause VAP if contaminated secretions are aspirated," should be the nursing preceptor's response.

In what ways do bacterial pathogens invade their hosts?

Bacteria have developed a variety of adhesion methods to stick to the surface of organs that come into contact with the environment, such as the intestine. Additionally, certain bacteria can integrate themselves into different types of host cells and adopt an intracellular lifestyle to proliferate beyond the humoral host immune responses.

What is the remedy for bacterial colonization?

For the majority of healthy people, rubbing an antiseptic on a cut or ingesting an antibiotic will kill the infection, promote tissue healing, and help the body reestablish a healthy balance of bacteria.

Why is oral care crucial for patients who are on intubation?

For intubated patients, oral care is a crucial nursing intervention to preserve patient comfort and stop respiratory infections from colonizing dental plaque.

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UNIT I
MAINTAINING AN ACTIVE LIFESTYLE
LESSON 2: PHYSICAL ACTIVITY PYRAMID
CHECKUP A (5 points)
Instruction: Compare the two components of Energy Balance. (Activity and Diet)
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
CHECKUP B (5 points)
Instruction: Compare moderate exercise to vigorous exercise
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
CHECKUP C (5 points)
Instruction: Give one example of an activity or exercise for each level in the physical activity pyramid.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Answers

1. The components of energy balance include activities and diet. It should be noted that activities are forms of exercise while diet has to do with food eaten that gives energy.

2. Moderate physical activity requires less energy than vigorous physical activity.

3. An example of moderate physical activity in the physical activity pyramid is clapping and an example of vigorous physical activity is playing football.

How to explain the information?

Energy intake, energy expenditure, and energy storage are the three fundamental elements of energy balance. Only when energy intake is more than energy expenditure during a specific time period does body weight alter. Humans consume protein, carbohydrates, fats, and alcoholic beverages as sources of energy.

Activities that are comparable in intensity to brisk walking or biking are considered to be moderate physical activity. Large increases in breathing or heart rate are produced by vigorous physical activity, such as jogging, aerobic dancing, or climbing hills on a bicycle.

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The intersection of science and society includes issues that will require both an understanding of science and a healthy conversation about what to do about them. such issues include?

Answers

The intersection of science and society includes issues that will require both an understanding of science and a healthy conversation about what to do about them and such issues include the question of whether or not we should use DNA technology to bring back extinct species, the value of research on stem cells and confidentiality relative to the results of genetic testing.

Science is one in all the foremost vital channels of information. It's a particular role, moreover as a spread of functions for the good thing about our society include making new information, rising education, and increasing the standard of our lives. Science answers social wants and world challenges.

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Which option distinguishes why the pear is pink in the following scenario?
Carolyn bought pears, apples, and strawberries at the farmer's market. When she got home, she cut into a pear
and noticed a pink hue
1. the pear contained too much absorbic acid
2. the pear still contained trace elements
3. the pair contained too many nitrites
4 the pear contained EDTA

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Answer:

4. the pear contained to much EDTA.

Explanation:

Calcium disodium EDTA is a white, odorless, crystalline powder, with a faint, salty taste. In the food industry, it is commonly used a preservative.

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Why were indigenous peoples vulnerable to european diseases? indigenous peoples did not have the same vaccines that europeans did. indigenous peoples had not been exposed to diseases from different parts of the world. indigenous peoples had never been sick before europeans came. indigenous peoples ate different plants and animals than europeans did.

Answers

The indigenous peoples were vulnerable to European diseases because  indigenous peoples had never been sick before Europeans came.

Native Americans typically contracted vulnerable diseases through commercialism and exploration contacts with Europeans, and these were transmitted faraway from the sources and colonial settlements, through solely Native American commercialism transactions. Warfare and enslavement additionally contributed to disease transmission.

Throughout the Americas, Indigenous contact with Europeans was before long followed with forceful declines in indigenous populations. With no immunity to diseases introduced by the Europeans, indigenous people were decimated by waves of epidemics of  smallpox, TB, scarlatina, grippe and measles.

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Answer:

C. indigenous peoples had never been sick before Europeans came.

Explanation:

i took the test

When does disposition begin for psychiatric patients admitted to the emergency department (ed)?

Answers

The disposition begin for psychiatric patients admitted to the emergency department (ED) upon entry to ED.

Emergency Department is the initial purpose of contact for any critically unwell patient, needing immediate medical attention. trendy Emergency Departments are managed by qualified Emergency Physicians and nurses, trained specifically for providing emerging care to save lots of a life or limb.

Symptoms of a psychiatric patient includes feeling sad or down, confused thinking or reduced ability to concentrate, excessive fears or worries, or extreme feelings of guilt, extreme mood changes of highs and lows, withdrawal from friends and activities and significant tiredness, low energy or problems sleeping.

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Which patient care services prvides structure in which patients eat meals receive medication attend activities and participate

Answers

Inpatient care is the patient care service which provides structure in which patients eat meals receive medication attend activities and participate.

What is inpatient care?

When a patient needs medical attention that can only be provided in a hospital or other healthcare facility, that patient is given inpatient care and is formally admitted to the facility by a doctor.

With the structure of inpatient care, clients have a regular schedule of activities, food, medication administration (if required), and group and individual therapy sessions. Services for psychiatric rehabilitation involve coordinated care from a range of specialties and are centered on the ultimate objective of reintegration into society. Any medical health practitioner, but generally nurses with prior inpatient care experience, can provide psychiatric home care. Primary care physicians, nurses, and social workers use intensive outpatient programs as a bridge between inpatient and outpatient care.

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