a bourdon pressure gauge with a range of 0 - 150 psi is used to monitor water pressure in a manufacturing plant. the plant engineer wants to replace the bourdon gauge with a diaphragm gauge that can be monitored electronically. specify the range of pressure in kpa needed for the replacement diaphragm gauge.

Answers

Answer 1

To convert the range of the bourdon pressure gauge from psi to kPa, we need to multiply the psi value by 6.895. Therefore, the range of the bourdon pressure gauge in kPa is 0 - 1034.25 kPa (rounded to two decimal places).

For the replacement diaphragm gauge, we need to know the specific range of pressure required. Without that information, we cannot provide a specific answer. However, we can say that the diaphragm gauge should have a range of at least 0 - 1034.25 kPa to be equivalent to the bourdon pressure gauge that is being replaced. The engineer may choose to have a wider range depending on the specific needs of the manufacturing plant.
To convert the range of the Bourdon pressure gauge (0-150 psi) monitoring water pressure in the manufacturing plant to a range in kPa for the replacement diaphragm gauge, you need to follow these steps:
1. Convert psi to kPa: 1 psi ≈ 6.89476 kPa
2. Multiply the lower and upper limits of the range by the conversion factor.
For the lower limit (0 psi):
0 psi * 6.89476 kPa/psi = 0 kPa
For the upper limit (150 psi):
150 psi * 6.89476 kPa/psi ≈ 1034.21 kPa
Your answer: The range of pressure needed for the replacement diaphragm gauge is 0-1034.21 kPa.

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Answer 2

To convert the range of pressure from psi to kPa, we can use the conversion factor 1 psi = 6.895 kPa. Therefore, the range of pressure for the bourdon gauge is 0-1034.25 kPa (0-150 psi x 6.895 kPa/psi).

For the replacement diaphragm gauge, we need to ensure that it has a suitable range of pressure to monitor the water pressure in the manufacturing plant. The engineer should consider the maximum and minimum pressure values that the plant experiences and select a diaphragm gauge that has a range that encompasses these values.Assuming that the maximum and minimum pressure values in the manufacturing plant are within the range of the bourdon gauge, we can use the same range for the replacement diaphragm gauge. Therefore, the range of pressure for the replacement diaphragm gauge would be 0-1034.25 kPa. However, if the maximum and minimum pressure values in the manufacturing plant exceed the range of the bourdon gauge, the engineer would need to select a diaphragm gauge with a larger range of pressure. They could consult with a supplier or manufacturer to determine the appropriate range of pressure for the replacement diaphragm gauge. In any case, the engineer should ensure that the diaphragm gauge they select is compatible with electronic monitoring and can provide accurate and reliable measurements of the water pressure in the manufacturing plant.

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Related Questions

you have been awarded a contract for wiring a new federal building. what twisted-pair wiring standard must you use?

Answers

As per industry standards, for wiring a new federal building, the recommended twisted-pair wiring standard to be used is Category 6 (Cat6) wiring.

This standard provides improved performance and faster data transfer rates compared to previous standards, making it a suitable choice for government buildings with high data transmission requirements.
When wiring a new federal building using twisted-pair wiring, you must adhere to the TIA/EIA-568 standard, which is the most commonly used standard for commercial and government building installations. This standard outlines the proper installation practices, performance requirements, and cable specifications for twisted-pair cabling systems.

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in what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin

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In order for an aircraft to spin, it must be placed in a specific flight condition known as an aggravated stall. This occurs when the angle of attack of the aircraft is too high and the airflow over the wings becomes disrupted, causing a loss of lift.

As a result, one wing may stall before the other, creating an unequal lift distribution that can cause the aircraft to enter a spin. Pilots must be trained to recognize and recover from this dangerous situation in order to prevent accidents.
In order to spin, an aircraft must be placed in a specific flight condition known as a "stall." A stall occurs when the angle of attack is too high, causing a reduction in lift and an increase in drag. To initiate a spin, the aircraft must be in a stalled condition and have a yawing motion (rotation around the vertical axis). This combination of factors causes one wing to generate more lift than the other, resulting in the spinning motion.

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In order for an aircraft to spin, it must be in a stall condition. A stall occurs when the angle of attack (AOA) is too high, causing the airflow over the wings to separate and the lift generated by the wings to decrease. When the AOA reaches the critical angle of attack, the airflow can no longer create enough lift to keep the aircraft in the air, and it begins to descend.

During a spin, one wing drops while the other rises, and the aircraft rotates around its vertical axis. This occurs when one wing continues to generate lift while the other does not, causing the aircraft to roll and yaw simultaneously.It is important to note that not all aircraft are designed to spin, and attempting to spin an aircraft that is not certified for it can be dangerous. Pilots must receive proper training and follow the aircraft manufacturer's guidelines to perform spins safely.Overall, an aircraft must be in a stall condition to spin. This occurs when the angle of attack is too high and the airflow over the wings separates, causing the aircraft to lose lift and enter a descending motion while rotating around its vertical axis.

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T/F ssds are not subject to mechanical failures like magnetic hard drives, and are more resistant to shock and vibration

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True, SSDs (Solid State Drives) are not subject to mechanical failures like magnetic hard drives, and are more resistant to shock and vibration. This is because SSDs use NAND flash memory with no moving parts, unlike magnetic hard drives which rely on spinning disks and read/write heads.

True, SSDs are not subject to mechanical failures like magnetic hard drives, as they have no moving parts. This makes them more resistant to shock and vibration, as well as less prone to wear and tear over time.
True, SSDs (Solid State Drives) are not subject to mechanical failures like magnetic hard drives, and are more resistant to shock and vibration. This is because SSDs use NAND flash memory with no moving parts, unlike magnetic hard drives which rely on spinning disks and read/write heads.

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The statement SSDs are not subject to mechanical failures like magnetic hard drives and are more resistant to shock and the vibration is "True".

Solid State Drives (SSDs) are faster and more reliable than magnetic hard drives. They use flash memory to store data, making them more resistant to shock and vibration. Unlike hard drives, SSDs have no moving parts, reducing the risk of mechanical failure. SSDs also consume less power and produce less heat than hard drives. However, SSDs tend to be more expensive than hard drives and have limited storage capacity.

SSDs (Solid State Drives) have no moving parts, unlike magnetic hard drives, which makes them less prone to mechanical failures and more resistant to physical disturbances such as shock and vibration. Additionally, SSDs are designed to be more resistant to shock and vibration, which can be especially important in mobile or rugged computing environments.

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A type of GPS system that transmit data through wireless networks used by cell phone is referred to as a(n) _______________ GPS system.
a. remote
b. continuous
c. active
d. passive

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A type of GPS system that transmits data through wireless networks used by cell phone is referred to as an active GPS system. option c is correct.

Unlike passive GPS systems that rely on external devices to capture and store GPS data, active GPS systems have built-in transmitters that send the data to wireless networks.

These systems allow users to track and monitor their location in real-time, as well as receive directions and other location-based services.Active GPS systems are commonly used in cell phones and other mobile devices, making them a popular choice for individuals who need to stay connected while on the go. They also have applications in various industries, such as transportation, logistics, and emergency services. For example, a trucking company may use active GPS systems to track their vehicles and optimize their routes, while emergency services may use them to locate and respond to incidents more efficiently.Overall, active GPS systems offer a convenient and reliable way to navigate and stay connected in today's mobile world. With their ability to transmit data through wireless networks, they provide a seamless user experience and open up new possibilities for location-based services.

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b. Given that H is a function of T and V, that is H(T,V), derive the following
expression:
dH = [C, + v), ] 4T + [7) - V
dT
] av
Where H is the enthalpy of the system, and all other variables have the usual
meaning. Use the above expression to calculate the enthalpy change for 1 mol of
an ideal gas when is it is compressed from T₁ = 273 K, P₁ = 1 atm and V₁ = 12 L
to P₂ = 10 atm and V₂ = 6 L.. For an ideal gas, Cy= 1.5 R. [10 Marks]
a. The following heat engine produ

Answers

Note that the enthalpy change for 1 mol of the ideal gas during the compression process is -6.42R.

What is the explanation for the above response?


To derive the expression, we use the total differential of H:

dH = (∂H/∂T)dT + (∂H/∂V)dV

From the definition of enthalpy, we know that H = U + PV, where U is the internal energy of the system, P is the pressure, and V is the volume. Thus, we can write:

dH = d(U + PV) = dU + PdV + VdP

Using the first law of thermodynamics, dU = dQ - PdV, where dQ is the heat added to the system. Substituting this into the above equation, we get:

dH = dQ + VdP

Since the ideal gas is assumed to be undergoing an isothermal process, we can write:

dQ = CdT, where C is the heat capacity of the gas.

Also, for an ideal gas, we have the equation of state:

PV = nRT

Taking the differential of this equation, we get:

dP(V) + P(dV) = nR(dT)

Solving for dP/dT at constant volume, we get:

(dP/dT)V = nR/V

Substituting this into the expression for dH, we get:

dH = CdT + VdP = CdT + (nR/V)dT = [(C + nR/V)dT] + [PdV - (nR/V)dV]

Since the process is isothermal, dT = 0, and we have:

dH = [PdV - (nR/V)dV]

Substituting for P and V in terms of T and the given initial and final conditions, we get:

dH = [(nRT₁/V₁)d(V/V₁) - nRdT₁ ln(V₂/V₁)] = [(nRT₁/V₁)(-1/2)ln(2) - nRdT₁ln(6/12)]

Substituting the given values for T₁, V₁, P₂, and V₂, we get:

dH = [-1.5R(273K)/12L(-1/2)ln(2) - 1.5R(273K)ln(6/12)] = -6.42R

Therefore, the enthalpy change for 1 mol of the ideal gas during the compression process is -6.42R.

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Need solution for #hygdrology engineering numerical problem #Rational Method....required ASAP ...i'hv one day only ...thank you

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To solve a hygdrology engineering numerical problem with the rational method, this equation is often used

Q = C * i * A

where Q is the peak runoff flow rate (in cubic feet per second)

C is the runoff coefficient (dimensionless)

i is the rainfall intensity (in inches per hour),

and A is the drainage area (in acres).

How to solve the problem

The attached text is not very legible but here is a general way of solving engineering problems with the rational method. For example, let us say that we want to estimate the peak runoff flow rate from a parking lot that has a drainage area of 5 acres and we know that the rainfall intensity for a 10-year storm event is 2.5 inches per hour, and the runoff coefficient for an urban area is 0.8.

We could use the Rational Method to calculate the peak runoff flow rate as follows:

Q = C * i * A

Q = 0.8 * 2.5 * 5

Q = 10 cubic feet per second

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for overdamped or critically damped systems, the rise time is the time it takes the transient response to go from a of the step change voltage to b of the step change voltage. group of answer choices a - 20%, b - 80% a - 50%, b - 50% a - 10%, b - 90% a - 0%, b - 100%

Answers

For overdamped or critically damped systems, the rise time is the time it takes the transient response to go from a of the step change voltage to b of the step change voltage. The correct answer is a - 10%, b - 90%. This means that the rise time is the time it takes for the transient response to go from 10% to 90% of the step change voltage.

It is important to note that the rise time is dependent on the damping ratio of the system, which affects the speed at which the transient response reaches its steady state value.For overdamped or critically damped systems, the rise time is the time it takes for the transient response to go from a of the step change voltage to b of the step change voltage, where a and b are specific percentages of the final steady-state value.The correct answer is a - 10%, b - 90%.In an overdamped or critically damped system, the response of the system to a step change in voltage is slower than in an underdamped system, and there is no oscillation in the response. The rise time is defined as the time it takes for the output to rise from 10% to 90% of its steady-state value.For example, if the steady-state value of the output is 100 volts, the rise time for an overdamped or critically damped system would be the time it takes for the output to rise from 10 volts to 90 volts (i.e., 10% to 90% of 100 volts).Overall, the rise time is an important characteristic of the transient response of a system, as it determines how quickly the system responds to changes in input and reaches its steady-state value.For overdamped or critically damped systems, the rise time is the time it takes the transient response to go from 10% (a) of the step change voltage to 90% (b) of the step change voltage. So, the correct answer is: a - 10%, b - 90%.

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For overdamped or critically damped systems, the rise time is the time it takes the transient response to go from 0% of the step change voltage to 100% of the step change voltage.

For overdamped or critically damped systems, the rise time is the time it takes the transient response to go from a of the step change voltage to b of the step change voltage, where a is 0% and b is 100%.

Therefore, the answer would be a - 0%, b - 100%.

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All of the following are included in the central supramolecular activation complex (c-SMAC) except _____.A. CD4 or CD8B. ICAM-1C. CD28D. T-cell receptorE. PKC-

Answers

The answer is E. PKC- is not included in the central supramolecular activation complex (c-SMAC). The central supramolecular activation complex (c-SMAC)

Here, It is a molecular structure that forms at the center of the interface between a T-cell and an antigen-presenting cell (APC) during the process of T-cell activation. It is composed of several molecules including CD4 or CD8, ICAM-1, CD28, and the T-cell receptor.
All of the following are included in the central supramolecular activation complex (c-SMAC) except B. ICAM-1. The c-SMAC typically includes CD4 or CD8, CD28, T-cell receptor, and PKC-. ICAM-1 is not part of the c-SMAC.

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The central supramolecular activation complex (c-SMAC) is an important structure that is formed during T-cell activation. This structure is composed of various proteins and molecules that are involved in the activation of T-cells. Some of the key components of the c-SMAC include the T-cell receptor (TCR), CD4 or CD8 co-receptors, CD28, and intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1). These molecules play a critical role in mediating T-cell activation and subsequent immune responses.

However, one molecule that is not included in the c-SMAC is PKC-. This is because PKC- is an enzyme that is involved in downstream signaling pathways that are activated after the formation of the c-SMAC. While PKC- is not physically present within the c-SMAC, it is still an important molecule in T-cell activation.Overall, the c-SMAC is a complex structure that is essential for T-cell activation. While several key molecules are present within this structure, it is important to remember that other molecules and signaling pathways are also involved in this process. By understanding the various components of the c-SMAC, researchers can gain important insights into the mechanisms of T-cell activation and develop new therapies for immune-related diseases.

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you may use sources in your essay that both support and refute your argument. true or false

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The given statement is True,

it is acceptable to use sources in an essay that both support and refute your argument. In fact, including such sources can strengthen the essay by demonstrating a comprehensive understanding of the topic and acknowledging opposing viewpoints. However, it is important to present these sources in a balanced and fair manner.

When using sources that support your argument, it is important to evaluate the credibility and relevance of the source. The information presented should be accurate and directly related to the topic being discussed. On the other hand, when using sources that refute your argument, it is important to acknowledge the opposing viewpoint and present it accurately without misrepresenting itBy including sources that both support and refute your argument, you can provide a well-rounded perspective on the topic and show that you have considered all sides of the issue. It also allows the reader to form their own opinion and make an informed decision based on the evidence presented.In conclusion, it is true that using sources that both support and refute your argument is acceptable in an essay. However, it is important to use them in a balanced and fair manner, and to evaluate their credibility and relevance before including them in your essay.

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a characteristic of much byzantine architecture is a clear preference for

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A characteristic of much Byzantine architecture is a clear preference for domes, specifically the large central dome. This preference can be seen in the extensive use of mosaics, frescoes, and colorful marble and stone inlays.

This preference can be explained in detail by considering the following factors:

1. Symbolism: Domes in Byzantine architecture represented the heavens, creating a sense of grandeur and spirituality within the building.

2. Engineering Innovations: Byzantine architects developed advanced techniques, such as pendentives and squinches, to support the weight of large domes, allowing for impressive and stable structures.

3. Natural Light: The large central dome allowed for more windows to be incorporated into the design, which in turn provided better illumination within the building.

4. Aesthetic Appeal: The domed structures added a unique visual appeal to Byzantine architecture, distinguishing it from other architectural styles of the time.

These factors explain why the preference for domes is a key characteristic of Byzantine architecture.

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a characteristic of much Byzantine architecture is a clear preference for intricate decoration and elaborate ornamentation. Byzantine architects often incorporated intricate mosaics, detailed carvings, and ornate sculptures into their buildings, creating a rich and opulent visual experience for the viewer. This emphasis on decorative elements was a key feature of Byzantine architecture, reflecting the importance placed on aesthetics and luxury in the Byzantine Empire.

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electronic components are much more likely to fail than electromechanical components. (True or False)

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True. Electronic components are more likely to fail than electromechanical components. This is because electronic components rely on the flow of electrons, which can be affected by factors such as voltage spikes, temperature changes, and moisture.

Electromechanical components, on the other hand, use physical movement to perform their function, which is generally more reliable than electronic components.
if electronic components are much more likely to fail than electromechanical components. The statement is False. The failure rate of electronic and electromechanical components depends on various factors like quality, operating conditions, and usage. It is not correct to generalize that electronic components are more likely to fail than electromechanical components.

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The statement that electronic components are much more likely to fail than electromechanical components is generally true. Electronic components are devices that rely on the flow of electrons through them, while electromechanical components use a combination of electrical and mechanical processes to operate.

There are several reasons why electronic components are more likely to fail. One major factor is that they are often more complex than electromechanical components, and thus have more potential points of failure. Electronic components also tend to generate more heat than electromechanical components, which can cause them to degrade and fail over time. Additionally, electronic components are more susceptible to damage from electrical surges, static electricity, and other forms of electrical interference.Despite these challenges, electronic components are still widely used in many applications because of their numerous advantages over electromechanical components. They are typically smaller, lighter, and more efficient than electromechanical components, and can be integrated more easily into complex systems. Electronic components are also capable of performing a wider range of functions than electromechanical components, making them essential for many modern technologies.In summary, while electronic components may be more prone to failure than electromechanical components, their advantages often make them the preferred choice for many applications. It is important to take appropriate measures to protect electronic components from damage and ensure their longevity, such as using proper grounding and surge protection measures, and following best practices for storage and handling.

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A two-way is normally used as an off/on switch and to control _____.

Answers

A two-way switch is generally used as an on/off switch to control one light or electrical device from two locations.

It is to help the user access te electronic devices from multiple locations.

Thus, a two-way switch is very useful.

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A two-way is normally used as an off/on switch and to control the flow of electrical power or circuitry between two points.

A switch is a simple device that makes or breaks a circuit. A switch can perform mainly two functions- ON, by closing its contacts, or fully OFF, by opening its contacts. When contacts are closed, it creates a path for the current to flow, and vice-versa, an open contact will not allow the current to flow. In electrical wiring, switches are most commonly used to operate electric lights, permanently connected appliances or electrical outlets.

In 1884, John Henry Holmes invented the quick break light switch. His technology ensured the internal contacts moved apart quickly enough to deter the electric arching which could be a fire hazard and shorten the switch’s lifespan. This quick break technology is still employed in today’s domestic and industrial light switches.

The most commonly available and used electrical switches in our homes is the one-way switch. But there also exists two-way switch, though not commonly used. In its working, the main difference between them is the number of contacts they each have. The one-way switch has two contacts and the two-way switch has three contacts. In a two-way switch, there are two, one-way switches combined in one. One of the terminals can be connected to either of the two, but not both at the same time.

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building techniques using steel played an important role in promoting the decentralization of the urban area. true or false

Answers

It is true that building techniques using steel played an important role in promoting the decentralization of the urban area.

Building techniques using steel played an important role in promoting the decentralization of the urban area. Steel is a versatile and durable material that allows for the construction of high-rise buildings, bridges, and other structures that can support large populations. Steel allows for the construction of taller buildings with larger floor areas, which leads to more efficient land use. This, in turn, encourages the spreading out of urban areas, as businesses and residents can be accommodated in smaller footprints. This has enabled cities to expand vertically, rather than horizontally, which helps to reduce urban sprawl and preserve natural areas.

Additionally, steel construction is often faster and more cost-effective than traditional building methods, making it an attractive option for developers looking to build in urban areas.  Steel's strength and durability enable the creation of longer bridges and tunnels, connecting urban areas with their surrounding regions and promoting further decentralization. Overall, the use of steel in building techniques has been instrumental in promoting decentralization and sustainable urban development.

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The statement "Building techniques using steel played an important role in promoting the decentralization of the urban area" is true because this helped to decentralize urban areas by creating new opportunities for growth and expansion outside of the city center.

Building techniques using steel allowed for taller and stronger structures to be built, which made it possible to construct buildings in areas that were previously considered too crowded or expensive for development. Additionally, steel buildings were often cheaper and faster to construct than traditional brick or stone structures, making them a more attractive option for developers looking to build in suburban or rural areas.

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What is the minimum number of disks to the computer to create a RAID 5 array?

Answers

To create a RAID 5 array, you need a minimum of three disks. RAID 5 is a type of RAID that uses block-level striping with distributed parity. This means that data is striped across multiple disks, and parity information is distributed among all the disks.

The minimum number of disks required for RAID 5 is three because the distributed parity requires at least one disk for parity information. If one disk fails, the parity information can be used to rebuild the data on the failed disk. This provides some level of data redundancy and protection against disk failure.However, it's important to note that while RAID 5 provides some level of data protection, it's not a complete backup solution. It's still important to have regular backups of important data in case of catastrophic failure or other types of data loss. Additionally, RAID 5 may not be the best choice for all scenarios, and other RAID levels or storage solutions may be more appropriate depending on your specific needs and requirements.

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fermentation tank in a pullman brewpub is rated for a maximum absolute pressure of 75 psia. a bourdon gauge attached to the tank reads 64 psig. is there a danger that the pressure limit for the fermentation tank has been exceeded? explain why or why not

Answers

Yes, there is a danger that the pressure limit for the fermentation tank has been exceeded. This is dangerous because the tank could rupture or explode if the pressure continues to increase.

This is because:

First, it's important to understand what "absolute pressure" and "psig" mean in this context. Absolute pressure is the total pressure exerted by a gas, including atmospheric pressure (which is around 14.7 psi at sea level). Psig, on the other hand, refers to the pressure exerted by a gas above atmospheric pressure. So if a tank has a reading of 64 psig, that means the gas inside is exerting a pressure of 64 psi above atmospheric pressure.

Now, let's look at the numbers. The fermentation tank in the Pullman brewpub is rated for a maximum absolute pressure of 75 psia. This means that the total pressure inside the tank (including atmospheric pressure) should not exceed 75 psi. However, the bourdon gauge attached to the tank reads 64 psig, which means that the pressure inside the tank is actually 78.7 psia (64 psig + 14.7 psi atmospheric pressure).

This is above the maximum absolute pressure rating of 75 psia for the tank, which means that the pressure limit for the fermentation tank has been exceeded. This is dangerous because the tank could rupture or explode if the pressure continues to increase. It's important to take immediate action to relieve the pressure and prevent further build-up to ensure the safety of the people working with the tank and the surrounding area.

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Hi! Your question is whether there is a danger that the pressure limit for the fermentation tank in a Pullman brewpub has been exceeded, given that it is rated for a maximum absolute pressure of 75 psia, and the Bourdon gauge reads 64 psig.

To answer this, we need to compare the actual absolute pressure in the tank to the rated maximum absolute pressure limit.

Step 1: Convert the gauge pressure (psig) to absolute pressure (psia).
Gauge pressure measures pressure relative to atmospheric pressure. To convert it to absolute pressure, add the atmospheric pressure to the gauge pressure. The standard atmospheric pressure is approximately 14.7 psi.

Absolute Pressure = Gauge Pressure + Atmospheric Pressure
Absolute Pressure = 64 psig + 14.7 psi (approximately)

Step 2: Calculate the absolute pressure.
Absolute Pressure = 64 + 14.7
Absolute Pressure ≈ 78.7 psia

Step 3: Compare the calculated absolute pressure to the maximum pressure limit.
In this case, the calculated absolute pressure (78.7 psia) is higher than the maximum rated pressure limit of the fermentation tank (75 psia).

In conclusion, there is a danger that the pressure limit for the fermentation tank has been exceeded, as the calculated absolute pressure (78.7 psia) is higher than the rated maximum absolute pressure limit (75 psia).

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If two current are in the same direction at any instant of time in a given branch of a circuit, the net current at that instant

Answers

If two currents are in the same direction at any instant of time in a given branch of a circuit, the net current at that instant will be the sum of the two individual currents. In other words, the net current is the algebraic sum of the two currents.

How can this be illustrated?

For example, if one current is 2 amperes and the other current is 3 amperes, and they are flowing in the same direction in a given branch of the circuit, then the net current at that instant will be 5 amperes (2 + 3 = 5).

It's important to note that this only applies at a specific instant in time, and the net current may change as the circuit changes or the currents vary.

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a fitting is defined as an accessory, such as a locknut, bushing, or other part of a wiring system, that is intended primarily to perform a(n) ? rather than an electrical function.

Answers

A fitting is primarily intended to perform a mechanical function, such as connecting or securing wires, cables, or other components in a wiring system. Although fittings may contribute to the overall performance and safety of the electrical system, their primary purpose is to facilitate installation, maintenance, and repair processes.

Common types of fittings include couplings, connectors, adapters, terminals, and strain reliefs, among others. These components may be made of various materials, such as plastic, metal, or rubber, and come in different shapes and sizes to accommodate specific wiring configurations and environmental conditions.

Proper selection, installation, and maintenance of fittings are essential for ensuring the overall reliability and safety of the wiring system.

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the sum of the numbers (1ae)16 and (bbd)16 is

Answers

The sum and product of each hexadecimal number are for a D6A, 1A3F88 for b 216BB, 1438D5A for c ACD8F, B051FA2E for d E0BAA8, 92A26ABAE4

Here is how you find the sum and product of each of these pairs of hexadecimal numbers.

a) (1AE)16, (BBC)16
Sum: 1AE + BBC = D6A (in hexadecimal)
Product: 1AE * BBC = 1A3F88 (in hexadecimal)

b) (20CBA)16, (A01)16
Sum: 20CBA + A01 = 216BB (in hexadecimal)
Product: 20CBA * A01 = 1438D5A (in hexadecimal)

c) (ABCDE)16, (1111)16
Sum: ABCDE + 1111 = ACD8F (in hexadecimal)
Product: ABCDE * 1111 = B051FA2E (in hexadecimal)
d) (E0000E)16, (BAAA)16
Sum: E0000E + BAAA = E0BAA8 (in hexadecimal)
Product: E0000E * BAAA = 92A26ABAE4 (in hexadecimal)

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if reynolds experiment was performed with a 38-mm- id pipe, what flow velocity would occur at transition?

Answers

Note that the flow velocity at transition for a 38-mm-ID pipe carrying water at 20°C is approximately 0.615 m/s.

What is the explanation for the above response?

Reynolds experiment is used to determine the transition point from laminar to turbulent flow in a pipe, and it depends on the Reynolds number (Re) which is defined as the ratio of inertial forces to viscous forces. The Reynolds number can be expressed as:

Re = ρVD/μ

where:

ρ = density of the fluid

V = velocity of the fluid

D = diameter of the pipe

μ = viscosity of the fluid

For transition to occur in a pipe, the critical Reynolds number (Rec) is approximately 2300. If the Reynolds number is less than Rec, the flow is laminar, and if it is greater than Rec, the flow is turbulent.

To determine the flow velocity at transition for a 38-mm-ID pipe, we need to know the properties of the fluid flowing in the pipe. Let's assume that the fluid is water at a temperature of 20°C, which has a density of 998.2 kg/m³ and a viscosity of 1.002 x 10^-3 Pa.s.

The diameter of the pipe is 38 mm, which is equivalent to 0.038 m. Therefore, the Reynolds number can be calculated as:

Re = (ρVD)/μ = (998.2 kg/m³ x V x 0.038 m)/(1.002 x 10^-3 Pa.s)

For transition to occur, the Reynolds number should be equal to Rec, which is 2300. Therefore, we can rearrange the equation to solve for V:

V = (Reμ)/(ρD) = (2300 x 1.002 x 10^-3 Pa.s)/(998.2 kg/m³ x 0.038 m)

V = 0.615 m/s

Therefore, the flow velocity at transition for a 38-mm-ID pipe carrying water at 20°C is approximately 0.615 m/s.

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The flow velocity at transition in a Reynolds experiment with a 38-mm-ID pipe would depend on the Reynolds number. Reynolds number is the ratio of inertial forces to viscous forces and is used to predict the onset of turbulence in fluid flow.

In general, transition to turbulence occurs at a Reynolds number between 2,000 and 4,000 for pipe flow. However, the specific value at which transition occurs depends on factors such as surface roughness and fluid properties.

Therefore, without knowing the fluid and surface properties, it is impossible to accurately determine the flow velocity at transition in a Reynolds experiment with a 38-mm-ID pipe.
Hi! To determine the flow velocity at the transition point in a 38-mm-ID pipe, we need to use the Reynolds number (Re) formula:

Re = (ρ * v * D) / μ

where:
- Re is the Reynolds number
- ρ is the fluid density (in kg/m³)
- v is the flow velocity (in m/s)
- D is the pipe diameter (in m)
- μ is the dynamic viscosity of the fluid (in Pa·s)

At the transition point, the Reynolds number is typically around 2,000 to 4,000. Let's assume a value of 2,300 for this calculation. To find the flow velocity (v), we'll need to rearrange the formula:

v = (Re * μ) / (ρ * D)

However, we don't have values for the fluid density (ρ) and dynamic viscosity (μ). These values will depend on the specific fluid being used in the experiment.

Once you have the values for ρ and μ, plug them into the formula along with the pipe diameter (D = 0.038 m) and the assumed Reynolds number (Re = 2,300) to find the flow velocity (v) at the transition point.



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As Apple’s CEO, the late Steve Jobs orchestrated innovations that revolutionized all of these industries except which?Multiple Choicemusicsmartphonesdigital publishingcable televisiontablet computing

Answers

The industry that Steve Jobs did not revolutionize through his innovations as Apple's CEO was cable television.

As Apple's CEO, the late Steve Jobs orchestrated innovations that revolutionized all of these industries except cable television. The industries that he did revolutionize include music, smartphones, digital publishing, and tablet computing. He revolutionizes the music industry with the iPod and iTunes, smartphones with the iPhone, digital publishing with the iPad, and tablet computing with the iPad as well.

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this type of member function may be called from a statement outside the class. group of answer choices global undeclared none of these public private

Answers

The type of member function that may be called from a statement outside the class is a public function. Public functions are accessible from outside the class and can be called by any part of the program.

This is in contrast to private functions, which are only accessible from within the class and cannot be called from outside the class. In addition, there is another term that is related to public and private functions, which is "global".

Global functions are functions that are not part of a class and can be accessed from anywhere in the program. They are similar to public functions in that they are accessible from outside the class, but they are not part of any specific class.

It is important to use public and private functions to control the access to the members of a class. Public functions are used to provide an interface to the class that can be accessed from outside the class, while private functions are used to encapsulate the implementation details of the class and are not accessible from outside the class. This helps to prevent the accidental modification of the internal state of the class by external code, which can lead to unexpected behavior and bugs in the program.

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To determine what type of member function can be called from a statement outside class:

The type of member function that may be called from a statement outside the class is a "public" function.

Public member functions can be accessed from outside the class, allowing other parts of the code to interact with the class and use its functionality.

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lateral buckling is inhibited by the rigid frame action of the arches and the horizontal elements linking the two arches to each other. b. roll-thru buckling is partly inhibited by the combined effect of the angled suspenders and the deadweight of the roadbed. c. roll-thru buckling is partly inhibited by the road bed, which attaches to the arch at about the quarter points of the arch. d. tension elements in the roadbed are all the horizontal force required to achieve full arch action over the full length of the arches. e. roll-through buckling is inhibited by the rigid frame action of the arches and the horizontal elements linking the two arches to each other.

Answers

Lateral buckling is inhibited by the rigid frame action of the arches and the horizontal elements linking the two arches to each other. This provides stability and support for the structure.

Roll-thru buckling is partly inhibited by the combined effect of the angled suspenders and the deadweight of the roadbed, as well as by the roadbed attaching to the arch at about the quarter points of the arch. This attachment helps distribute the load and prevent buckling. Tension elements in the roadbed provide the horizontal force required to achieve full arch action over the full length of the arches, ensuring stability. Finally, roll-through buckling is also inhibited by the rigid frame action of the arches and the horizontal elements linking the two arches to each other, maintaining the overall structural integrity.

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The statement that best describes the buckling mechanisms of an arch bridge is e. roll-through buckling is inhibited by the rigid frame action of the arches and the horizontal elements linking the two arches to each other.

Arch bridges are designed to support loads primarily through axial compression forces. However, they are also susceptible to different types of buckling under certain loading conditions. Roll-through buckling is one of the most critical types of buckling in arch bridges, where the arch rolls or twists laterally due to insufficient lateral bracing, resulting in instability and possible collapse.To inhibit roll-through buckling, arch bridges typically incorporate horizontal elements that link the two arches, creating a rigid frame action that can resist lateral forces. The angled suspenders also provide additional bracing to reduce the lateral displacement of the arches. In contrast, tension elements in the roadbed primarily resist the vertical forces that act on the bridge, such as the weight of the traffic and the weight of the bridge itself.In summary, the rigid frame action of the arches and the horizontal elements linking the two arches together are critical factors that inhibit roll-through buckling in an arch bridge.

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determine the maxiumim tensile an dcomrpessive bedning stress in the beam if it is dubjected to a moment of

Answers

The maximum tensile and compressive bending stress in a beam subjected to a moment can be calculated using the formula σ = M*y/I, where M is the moment, y is the distance from the neutral axis to the outermost fiber, and I is the moment of inertia of the cross-section.

The bending stress in a beam is directly proportional to the distance from the neutral axis and the magnitude of the moment. The maximum tensile and compressive bending stress occur at the outermost fibers of the beam.

To calculate the maximum tensile and compressive bending stress, the moment of inertia of the beam's cross-section and the distance from the neutral axis to the outermost fibers must be determined.

Once these values are known, the maximum tensile and compressive bending stress can be calculated using the formula σ = M*y/I, where σ is the bending stress, M is the moment, y is the distance from the neutral axis to the outermost fiber, and I is the moment of inertia of the cross-section.

The maximum tensile bending stress occurs at the outermost fiber located furthest from the neutral axis and the maximum compressive bending stress occurs at the outermost fiber located closest to the neutral axis.

It is important to ensure that the maximum tensile and compressive bending stress in the beam are below the yield strength of the material to prevent plastic deformation or failure of the beam.

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A style of roof that has a short front gable roof and gently sloping rear roof is a _____.
a. Shed
b. Gable
c. Salt Box

Answers

The style of roof that has a short front gable roof and gently sloping rear roof is known as a Salt Box roof. This type of roof is named after the wooden box that was used to store salt during colonial times, which had a similar shape to this particular roof style.option C is the correct answer

The Salt Box roof is characterized by its asymmetrical shape, with one side of the roof being shorter than the other. The shorter side typically has a steep slope, while the longer side has a gentle slope. This unique design is not only visually appealing but also serves a practical purpose. The steeper slope of the shorter side allows for easy snow and rain runoff, while the longer slope provides extra headroom and space for living areas.The Salt Box roof was popular during the colonial period in North America, particularly in New England, and can still be seen in many historic homes today. It is a versatile style of roof that can be used on both traditional and modern homes and can be made of various materials, including shingles, metal, or tiles.In conclusion, a Salt Box roof is a unique and practical style of roof that adds character and charm to any home. Its distinctive shape and historical significance make it a popular choice among homeowners and architects alike.

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T/F: the file history utility only keeps the most recent version of a file.

Answers

The statement " the file history utility only keeps the most recent version of a file" is False.

The File History utility does not only keep the most recent version of a file. Instead, it maintains multiple versions of files, allowing users to restore previous versions if needed. This feature helps protect against data loss and makes it easier to recover from accidental deletions or unwanted changes.

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True. The file history utility only keeps the most recent version of a file. This means that older versions of the file will be replaced when a new version is saved or when the storage limit for file history is reached and content loaded T/F: the file history utility only keeps the most recent version of a file.

Simply put, File History is a free backup feature that first appears in Microsoft Windows 8.1 and remains to be available in Windows 10 and Windows 11. File History backs up files automatically and keeps a history of all your changes. Only to note that File History only backs up copies of files that are in the Documents, Music, Pictures, Videos, and Desktop folders and the OneDrive files available offline on your PC. In a word, File History creates snapshot(s) of files and folders that are associated with user accounts. Over time, you'll have a complete history of your files.Whenever you add, change, or delete a file from the original location, File History creates a copy of that file and stores it in a separate location called a backup drive. This way, if you ever need to restore your personal files from a previous date, you can easily make it by using the File History tool.

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1. Convenience receptacles that are installed in bedrooms in a house are required to be protected by
a(n)
a. arc-fault circuit interrupter
e. ground-fault circuit interrupter
b. surge suppressor
surface-mounted incandescent luminai (light fir

Answers

Convenience receptacles that are installed in bedrooms in a house are required to be protected by a arc-fault circuit interrupter. (Option A)

What is the explanation for the above response?


Arc-fault circuit interrupters (AFCIs) are designed to detect dangerous electrical arcs in wiring and shut off power before they can cause a fire. AFCIs are required by the National Electrical Code (NEC) to be installed in certain areas of the home, including bedrooms, to provide increased electrical safety.


Ground-fault circuit interrupters (GFCIs) are also required in areas where water and electricity may come into contact, such as bathrooms, kitchens, and outdoor outlets, to protect against electric shock. Surge suppressors and surface-mounted incandescent luminaires are not required for bedroom receptacles.

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Air is flowing through a venturi meter whose diameter is 2. 6 in at the entrance part (location 1) and 1. 8 in at the throat (location 2). The gage pressure is measured to be 12. 2 psia at the entrance and 11. 8 psia at the throat. Neglecting frictional effects, show that the volume flow rate can be expressed as

Answers

The volume flow rate of air through the venturi meter is approximately 69.4 cubic feet per second.

To determine the volume flow rate of air flowing through the venturi meter, we can use the principle of conservation of mass.

Since air is an incompressible fluid, the mass flow rate at location 1 (entrance) must be equal to the mass flow rate at location 2 (throat).

Therefore, we can express the volume flow rate Q as:
[tex]Q = A_1V_1[/tex]

= [tex]A_2V_2[/tex]
where [tex]A_1[/tex] and [tex]A_2[/tex] are the cross-sectional areas of the entrance and throat respectively, and [tex]V_{1}[/tex] and [tex]V_{2}[/tex] are the velocities of air at the two locations.

To calculate the velocities, we can use Bernoulli's equation which states that the sum of the pressure,

kinetic energy and potential energy per unit mass of a fluid is constant along a streamline.

Neglecting potential energy and kinetic energy changes (since the diameter changes only slightly), we have:
[tex]P_1 +\frac{1}{2}[/tex]ρ[tex]V_1^2 = P2 + \frac{1}{2}[/tex]ρ[tex]V_2^2[/tex]
where [tex]P_1[/tex] and [tex]P_2[/tex] are the pressures at the entrance and throat respectively, and ρ is the density of air.

Rearranging this equation, we get:
[tex]V1 = \sqrt(\frac{2\times (P_1 - P_2)}{/\rho} ) \times (\frac{A_2}{A_1)}^2[/tex]

Substituting the given values, we get:
[tex]V1 = \sqrt\frac{(2\times (12.2 - 11.8)}{(144*0.0765))} \times \frac{(1.8}{2.6)}^2[/tex]
  ≈ 37.4 ft/s
Using the equation for volume flow rate, we get:
[tex]Q = A_1V_1[/tex]

[tex]= \pi \times (\frac{2.6}{2})^2\times 37.4[/tex]
  ≈ [tex]69.4 ft^3/s[/tex]

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the data sheet for the transistor reports that , , and . we bias the transistor such that , and . suppose what is the value of the voltage ?

Answers

Based on the information provided, it is not possible to determine the value of the voltage. Additional information, such as the type of transistor and the circuit configuration, would be needed to calculate the voltage.


It seems that your question is missing some information related to the transistor, its values, and the biasing conditions. In order to provide an accurate answer, please provide the missing details such as the transistor's parameters (like base current, collector current, and emitter current) and the biasing conditions. Once you provide these details, I'd be more than happy to help you find the value of the voltage for the transistor in question.

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The value of the voltage drop across the collector-emitter junction of a biased transistor, we need to know the collector current, the load resistor value, and the current gain of the transistor. by the given we cannot calculate the voltage.

By applying the voltage divider rule and Ohm's law, we can calculate the voltage drop and ensure that it is within the safe operating limits specified in the data sheet.

Based on the information provided, it seems that we have a bipolar junction transistor (BJT) that has a specified collector current (Ic), base current (Ib), and collector-emitter voltage (Vce) at a certain operating point. We are also given that the transistor is biased in such a way that the base-emitter junction is forward-biased (Vbe > 0) and the collector-emitter junction is reverse-biased (Vce < 0).


To determine the value of the voltage drop across the collector-emitter junction, we need to use the voltage divider rule, which states that the voltage across a series of resistors is proportional to the resistance values. In this case, we can treat the transistor as a current-controlled resistor, where the resistance value is proportional to the collector current (Ic).

Assuming that the transistor is in the active region (i.e. not in saturation or cutoff), we can use the following equation to calculate the collector current:

Ic = beta * Ib

where beta is the current gain of the transistor, which is also specified in the data sheet. Once we know the value of Ic, we can use Ohm's law to calculate the voltage drop across the collector resistor (Rc), which is equal to Vce:

Vce = Ic * Rc

where Rc is the external load resistor that is connected in series with the collector terminal.

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advanced control system and matlab
help in q2

Answers

The overall transfer function of the system with the compensator is: G_ol(s) = 10.5 * (1 + 0.2s) / (s(s+2)(s+5)(1+0.035s)(1+5.6s))

How the explain the transfer function

The transfer function of the overall with the lag-lead compensator can be written as:

= Kp * Kz * G(s) * G_c(s)

Substituting the given values and the values of G(s) and G_c(s), we get:

= 10.5 * (1 + 0.2s) / (s(s+2)(s+5)(1+0.035s)(1+5.6s))

Thus, the required lag-lead compensator is:1.75 * (1 - 5.67s) / (1 + 0.2s)

The overall transfer function of the system with the compensator is:

10.5 * (1 + 0.2s) / (s(s+2)(s+5)(1+0.035s)(1+5.6s))

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the use of soft surfaces and noise control measures for interiors are part of:

Answers

The use of soft surfaces and noise control measures for interiors are part of interior design. Interior design involves the planning and designing of spaces that are aesthetically pleasing and functional.

Soft surfaces such as carpets, curtains, and upholstered furniture can help absorb sound and reduce noise levels in a room.

This is especially important in spaces such as offices, schools, and hospitals where noise can be a distraction or even affect the quality of care.Noise control measures can also include the use of acoustical panels or sound-absorbing tiles on walls and ceilings. These materials are designed to reflect, absorb or diffuse sound, which can help to create a more pleasant and comfortable environment. By reducing the level of ambient noise, these measures can also help to reduce stress and promote better health.When designing an interior space, it is important to consider both the aesthetic and functional aspects. Soft surfaces and noise control measures can not only enhance the visual appeal of a space but also improve the comfort and functionality. Therefore, these measures are an essential part of interior design and should be incorporated into any design plan to ensure that the space is not only beautiful but also functional and comfortable.

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a secured creditor may repossess goods without resorting to the judicial process as long as the repossession is accomplished without: Which statements accurately describe matter? Check all that apply.Only living things are made up of matter.Matter is made up of tiny particles called atoms.Atoms were discovered in the twenty-first century.Atoms cannot be divided and still retain the properties of its original state.A single atom can be seen only with a standard microscope when sampling from a population with , which of the following sample means is more surprising? why? sample a: a random sample of 9 pell grant recipients with a mean award amount of $2750. sample b: a random sample of 36 pell grant recipients with a mean award amount of $2750. Write an analytical essay about Things Fall Apart in which you examine how the culturaland historical settings of the novel influence the development of one character. 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