During her third trimester of pregnancy, a client asks the medical facility why she is constipated. The growing fetus's pressure on the intestine is most likely the reason given by the nurse.
About 16 to 39% of families receive constipation at a few points before birth. You're seeming to receive constipation in the third trimester of pregnancy when the fetus is most severe and dawdling the most pressure on your bowel. Constipation can occur completely in three trimesters, though.
A fetus or fetus is the future offspring that expands from an animal fetus. Following rudimentary development the fetal stage of the incident takes place. In the human fetal incident, fetal incident starts from the ninth week after pollination and persists just before beginning.
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ataxia-telangiectasia mutated is located in cardiac mitochondria and impacts oxidative phosphorylation
Ataxia-Telangiectasia mutant protein kinase (ATM) deficiency is linked to cardiovascular, metabolic, and neurological problems. Since the protein has been linked to mitochondria, dysfunctional mitochondria result from its lack.
Why does ataxia-telangiectasia occur?Before the age of five, it commonly starts in early childhood. The ATM (ataxia-telangiectasis mutated) gene is the source of AT. Cancer can strike children with AT, most frequently lymphoma or acute lymphocytic leukemia.
How long will someone with ataxia-telangiectasia live?A rare multiorgan neurodegenerative condition called ataxia telangiectasia makes people more susceptible to malignancy and infection. In two sizable cohorts of patients with this condition, one prospective and one retrospective, the median survival is, with a broad variation, 25 and 19 years.
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Full question:
Why is ataxia-telangiectasia mutated is located in cardiac mitochondria and impacts oxidative phosphorylation?
a college student fell and sprained his right ankle. the student health health care provider recommends the student use crutches to facilitate healing. what would the nurse teach the student?
Crutches are advised by the student's health care provider in order to promote healing. The arms and the hands should support the body. An injured client who is healing from a broken neck is helped by a nurse using a tilt table.
Which ambulatory assistance might a nurse provide to help a client who is weak on one side of the body?Explained: An client who's had weakness on one side of the body can benefit from the usage of a baton to help him get around. Hand-held ambulatory aids like canes are made of wood or metal. Clients who require significant balance help utilize walkers.
For which of the above patients would a motorized stand assist device be appropriate?the aforementioned patients would be a good candidate to move with the use of a motorized stand-assist device Feedback: Clients who can follow instructions, are agreeable, and can bear weight on at least one leg can use powered stand-assist devices.
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which are the advantages of the team nursing model of providing nursing care? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct. the nursing care conferences help solve client problems.
The team nursing paradigm of delivering nursing care has the following benefits:
Denial Correct.Anger Correct.Bargaining Correct.Depression Correct.Which benefit comes from employing a team nursing approach to client care?Lower level organizational decision making is a benefit of using a team nursing approach to client care. With the application of a team nursing approach to client care, issues with continuity of care, comprehensive client perspectives, and the equality of client assignments may occur.
What is a team nurse?In the team nursing model of care, nurses are paired up and provide patient care together. The variety of abilities, education, and qualification levels of the complete crew are utilised in this concept. Members of the team cooperate and share responsibility.
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a patient is being discharge home after having a mastectomy. what discharg einstructions should the nurse teach the patient and family
Options 1, 2, 4 & 5 are correct. The nurse teaches the patient and family the following discharge instructions:
Perform arm exercises as directed.Take medications for pain as soon as pain begins.Call your health care provider if inflammation of the incision or swelling of the incision or the arm occurs. Avoid driving, lifting over than 10 pounds, or reaching over your head until the surgeon gives you clearance.In order to cure or prevent breast cancer, a mastectomy is a surgical surgery that removes the entire breast tissue from a breast. Patients experiencing early-stage breast cancer may benefit from a mastectomy as a treatment option. Breast-conserving surgery (lumpectomy) is another option that removes only the tumor from the breast.
Newer mastectomy treatments can preserve breast flesh, giving the breasts a more feminine appearance. This is also known as more than just a skin-sparing mastectomy. Breast reconstruction surgery, which is used to restore the contour of your breast, can be performed at the same time as ones mastectomy or at a later period.
The complete Question:
A patient is being discharged home after having a mastectomy. What discharge instructions should the nurse teach the patient and family?
Multiple selection question
1. Perform arm exercises as directed.
2. Take medications for pain as soon as pain begins.
3. Wash hands only after touching the incision area or drains.
4. Call your health care provider if inflammation of the incision or swelling of the incision or the arm occurs.
5. Avoid driving, lifting more than 10 pounds, or reaching above your head until given permission by the surgeon.
6. Empty surgical drains once a day and as needed, recording the amount in each drain, the date, and time, and bring to your follow-up appointment.
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a client who recently experienced a brain attack (cerebrovascular accident [cva]) and has limited mobility reports constipation. which is most important for the nurse to determine when collecting information about the constipation?
A customer who just had a brain attack (cerebrovascular accident [cva]) and has restricted movement reports constipation; the length of time this condition has existed.
Why do brain assaults occur?A stroke, often known as a brain attack, is brought on by a clogged or ruptured artery. A stroke, commonly referred to as a brain attack, occurs when a blood vessel in the brain bursts or when something prevents blood from reaching a specific area of the brain.
Who experiences a stroke?The chance of having another stroke is significantly raised for the 70% of survivors who make a full recovery. People who have diabetes, high blood sugar, high cholesterol, high blood pressure, or any of these conditions are at risk.
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a 10-year-old boy accidentally spilled a cup of hot water onto his chest as he was taking the cup out of a microwave oven. you see him on the day of injury and assess his burns as 3% tbsa. on post-burn day 3, you re-evaluate his wound. on physical exam, his entire wound has completely unroofed a blister revealing the wound bed as pink, quickly blanching, moist, and quite painful. the depth of his wound is:
There at level of the innervates membrane, the airway is at its narrowest in youngsters. Due to this, cricothyroidotomy is contraindicated in children under the age of two, and emergency surgical airway access often entails needle jet ventilation and ultimately thoracentesis.
Cricothyroid: Adductor or not?They can be functionally separated into sphincters (transverse arytenoid, ” element, lateral cricoarytenoid, and transverse arytenoid), adductors (lateral cricoarytenoid and transverse arytenoid), persecutors (posterior cricoarytenoid), cricothyroid muscles, and vocal cord tensors and relaxors (thyroarytenoid, vocalis).
Semons law: what is it?According to Semon's Law, the abductors lose function before the adductors in a recurrent laryngeal nerve lesion that develops. Accordingly, the adductors will bring the chord to the midline in a partial paralysis, whereas in a complete paraplegia it falls away to the paramedian position.
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which action(s) does the nurse take to care for a client unable to care for dentures? select all that apply.
The action taken by the nurse on a client who cannot care for his dentures is to examine the root canal of the tooth.
What are dentures?The denture is a tool to replace missing teeth and gum tissue around them. The use of dentures can overcome complaints that arise due to missing teeth, such as eating and speaking disorders, and decreased self-confidence.
Installation of dentures has several purposes, namely:
Replace missing teeth due to various causes, such as broken teethImproving chewing and speaking functions in people who have lost teethImprove appearance while increasing self-confidenceProtects remaining teethIf the client is unable to care for his dentures, the nurse will usually examine the root canals to find out if there is decay due to the dentures.
Your question is not complete, maybe the meaning of your question is:
Which action(s) does the nurse take to care for a client unable to care for dentures? select all that apply.
Examine the root canal of the tooth.Examination of teethLearn more about the type of denture prosthesis here :
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which food selections by a client with celiac disease indicate the nurse's dietary teaching was successful? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Green beans, baked potato. Celiac disease patients must adhere to a gluten-free diet. Fresh fruits and vegetables, including green beans, are acceptable on a gluten-free diet.
An acceptable food on a gluten-free diet is a baked potato. Noodles should not be consumed because they are prepared with gluten-rich flour. Avoid eating the turkey sandwich because the bread contains gluten-rich flour. Whole wheat cereal should be avoided because it contains a lot of gluten. A treatment called common bile duct exploration is performed to determine whether something, such as a stone, is obstructing the bile's path from your liver and gallbladder to your gut. The surgery is carried out while completely unconscious.
The complete question is:
Which food selections by a client with celiac disease indicate that the nurse's dietary teaching is successful? Select all that apply.
1Green beans
2Baked potato
3Noodle pudding
4Turkey sandwich
5Whole wheat cereal
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what term best denotes a record that is composed of electronically stored information from numerous clinical systems (lab, radiology, pharmacy, nursing, and such) along with paper documents?
A record that is made up of electronically stored data from various clinical systems is best described as a hybrid health record.
What phrase describes health-related data on a person that complies with national standards the best?A PHR is defined as "an electronic record of health-related information about an individual that complies with nationally accepted interoperability standards and that can be accessed from many sources while being managed, shared, and controlled by the individual.
What is the name for the handling of corporate information strategically?governance of information. What phrase describes the strategic management of enterprise information, including the standards, guidelines, and practices for its use, access, and control. causing no harm
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a toddler with a repaired myelomeningocele has urinary incontinence and some flaccidity of the lower extremities. which education would the nurse provide the parent?
The child will most often need to spend about 2 weeks in the hospital after surgery. He/she may need physical, occupational, and speech therapy. And may need to see a team of medical experts in spina bifida, often after discharge from the hospital.
Meningocele repair, known as (myelomeningocele repair) is surgery to repair birth defects of the spine and spinal membranes. Meningocele and myelomeningocele are types of spina bifida. If the myelomeningocele is not covered by skin or a membrane when the child is born, surgery will be done within 24 to 48 hours after birth.
Thirty to 40 percent of children with myelomeningocele develop some degree of renal dysfunction. Treatment to reduce bladder pressures and minimize urine stasis typically prevents or attenuates this complication. Ability to walk and control bowel and bladder function depends where the birth defect was on the spine. Defects lower down on the spinal cord may have a better outcome.
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which of the following are by-products of photoelectric absorption? group of answer choices photoelectron and compton scattered electron low-energy scattered x-ray photon and characteristic photon low-energy scattered x-ray photon and compton scattered electron photoelectron and characteristic photon
A photoelectron and a distinctive photon are the by-products of photoelectric absorption.
An x-ray photon interacts with an atom in a solid during photoelectric absorption and is totally absorbed, transferring all of its energy to an inner-shell electron that is ejected from the atom and given the name photoelectron.
An electron that a substance emits after absorbing a photon of light is known as a photoelectron. The process of a photon being absorbed by a substance and then emitting a photoelectron is known as photoelectric absorption.
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A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 1.5 g IV bolus. The nurse reconstitutes a vial of ampicillin to yield a final concentration of 30 mg/mL. how many mL?
A nurse is about to give a 1.5g IV bolus of ampicillin. A bottle of ampicillin is reconstituted by the nurse to a final concentration of 30mg/ml. The nurse should deliver 50 mL.
Meningitis (infection of the membranes that protect the brain and spinal cord) and infections of the throat, sinuses, lungs, reproductive organs, urinary system, and gastrointestinal tract are all treated with ampicillin. Ampicillin belongs to the penicillin class of medicines. It works by destroying germs.
Colds, flu, and other viral diseases will not respond to antibiotics such as ampicillin. Taking medicines while they are not required raises your chances of developing an illness that is resistant to antibiotic therapy later on. If you are allergic to ampicillin or any comparable antibiotic, including such amoxicillin (Amoxil, Augmentin, Moxatag, and many others), dicloxacillin, nafcillin, even penicillin, you should not take it.
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if a patient admitted for ami develops cardiogenic shock, which characteristic sign would the nurse expect to observe?
Characteristic signs of a patient experiencing cardiogenic shock that the nurse expects to observe are a rapid heartbeat and shortness of breath.
What is cardiogenic shock?Cardiogenic shock is a condition characterized by a sudden inability of the heart to pump blood throughout the body. Cardiogenic shock usually causes symptoms, such as a drop in blood pressure, shortness of breath, and a feeling of coldness in the feet and hands.
The symptoms of cardiogenic shock are:
Chest pain.Restlessness, confusion, and dizziness.The skin looks pale.The skin feels cold to the touch.Loss of consciousness.Decreased frequency of urination not even at all.Excessive sweatingLow blood pressure.Heart rate becomes faster suddenly with a weak pulse.Shortness of breath or breathing faster.Learn more about the evaluation of cardiogenic shock here :
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which nursing action would be included in the plan of care after herniorrhaphy in a client with a history of lower extremity thrombophlebitis and varicose veins?
A client with a history of thrombophlebitis and varicosities is to have a herniorrhaphy for an incarcerated hernia.
What is the main cause of hernia?Hernia Causes Ultimately, all hernias are caused by a combination of pressure and an opening or weakness of muscle or fascia. The pressure pushes an organ or tissue through the opening or weak spot. Sometimes the muscle weakness is present at birth. But more often, it happens later in life .
Is hernia is a serious problem?An inguinal hernia isn't necessarily dangerous. It doesn't improve on its own, however, and can lead to life-threatening complications. Your doctor is likely to recommend surgery to fix an inguinal hernia that's painful or enlarging. Inguinal hernia repair is a common surgical procedure.
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7. many physiological systems have thresholds or tipping points. in this model, experiment with the initial conditions of oxytocin (ot) to discover the threshold. oxytocin has side effects including, vomiting, therefore, the minimal amount of drug administered to induce labor is desirable. as the attending physician, design an experiment that would test what would be the best dose of oxytocin to induce contractions greater than 30 contractions per minute? run each experiment 5 times (for reliability in the results.) record the contractions per minute in the spreadsheet (described below).
All the steps are mentioned below.
What do you mean by Oxytocin?Oxytocin is a hormone that is produced by the hypothalamus and released by the pituitary gland. It plays a role in a variety of physiological processes, including the regulation of labor and delivery during childbirth, stimulation of milk production in lactating women, and regulation of social behavior and bonding. It is sometimes referred to as the "love hormone" due to its role in promoting social bonding and sexual behavior.
The first step would be to choose a range of doses for oxytocin and administer them to a group of patients in labor. It's important to start with a low dose and gradually increase it, ensuring that the patient's vital signs are monitored throughout the process.
Next, measure the number of contractions per minute for each patient at regular intervals (e.g., every 5 minutes) and record the data in a spreadsheet. The data should include the dose of oxytocin, the time elapsed, and the number of contractions per minute.
By analyzing the data, you can determine the threshold dose of oxytocin needed to induce contractions greater than 30 contractions per minute. It's important to repeat the experiment multiple times (in this case, 5 times) to ensure the reliability of the results.
It's also crucial to adhere to ethical standards and guidelines when conducting such an experiment, and to ensure the safety and well-being of the patients at all times.
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which symptoms would the nurse include when teaching a client to recognize symptoms of hypoglycemia? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Anxiety, agitation, headache, irritability, disorientation, diaphoresis, chilly skin, tremors, unconsciousness, and seizures are all indications of hypoglycemia, which is diagnosed when blood sugar levels fall below 45 mf/dl.
Blood sugar or glucose levels that are below the normal range are known as hypoglycemia. Diabetes medication frequently has an impact on hypoglycemia. However, persons without diabetes might experience low blood sugar due to other medications and a range of, often rare, diseases. Treating hypoglycemia urgently is necessary. A fasting blood sugar of 70 mmol/l, or 3.9 mmol/l, or less should be seen as a warning sign for hypoglycemia in many people. With the aid of a high-sugar food or beverage or by taking medicine, you must swiftly bring your blood sugar levels back into the normal range. Finding and addressing the source of hypoglycemia is necessary for long-term treatment.
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The complete question is:Which symptoms would the nurse include when teaching a client to recognize symptoms of hypoglycemia? select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
Anxiety
agitation
headache
irritability
disorientation
diaphoresis
seizures
the nurse is assessing a client at her first prenatal visit and notes the fundal height is palpable at the level of the umbilicus. the nurse predicts the client is at which gestational age?
The nurse is assessing a client at 14 weeks' gestation at a routine prenatal visit and notes the fundal height is at the umbilicus.
What is your Fundal?Fundal height is the distance from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus measured in centimeters. After 24 weeks of pregnancy, fundal height often matches the number of weeks you've been pregnant.
What is Fundal uterus?The part of a hollow organ that is across from, or farthest away from, the organ's opening. Depending on the organ, the fundus may be at the top or bottom of the organ. For example, the fundus of the uterus is the top part of the uterus that is across from the cervix the opening of the uterus
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an adult child of a dying client says to the nurse, 'i am so upset because my parent is always angry at me.' which would be the correct response by the nurse?
The correct response by the nurse would be "Your parent is working through acceptance of the situation."
The family member may be able to better appreciate the client's emotions and fury if they are aware of the stages leading up to the acceptance of death. If the client does not express fear for the parent, the parent may not be scared; some clients view death as a reprieve from suffering.
Given that anger is one of the stages of accepting death, it is doubtful that the parent is striving to lessen the family member's need. The nurse makes the presumption that the parent is distressed since the family member won't give physical care at home unless the client specifically requests it.
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what medications are traditionally used in treatment of physical symptoms of premenstrual syndrome
Traditional drugs used to treat physical symptoms of premenstrual syndrome include:
AntidepressantsNonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugsDiureticsHormonal contraceptivesPremenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is the more severe and debilitating end of the premenstrual syndrome range, affecting an estimated 2% to 9% of menstruation women. Anger/irritability, anxiety/tension, feeling sleepy or sluggish, mood fluctuations, feeling sad or depressed, & increased interpersonal conflicts are the most common PMDD symptoms among women seeking therapy. PMDD appears to be caused by serotonergic dysregulation, which may be induced by cyclic variations in gonadal hormones.
In the last decade, a significant rise in the number of very well placebo-controlled trials has established numerous selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors as effective first-line therapies for this illness. Continuous and intermittent luteal dosage regimens both result in quick improvement in symptoms & functionality.
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three months after beginning chemotherapy, a client develops severe anorexia, stomatitis, and episodes of diarrhea. goals for the client are to increase caloric intake and decrease the pain associated with stomatitis. to address the goals, which activity would the nurse include in the plan of care?
The nurse should advise the patient to suck on an ice pop every two hours since three months after starting chemotherapy, the client gets acute anorexia, stomatitis, and episodes of diarrhea.
What is chemotherapy and how is it done?A form of cancer treatment called chemotherapy employs chemicals to eradicate cancer cells. There are many different types of chemotherapy medications, but they all have a similar mechanism of action. They prevent cancer cells from reproducing, preventing the growth and spread of the disease throughout the body. Chemotherapy is a medical treatment that destroys your body's quickly multiplying cells by using strong chemicals. The most common form of cancer treatment is chemotherapy because cancerous cells multiply and divide much more quickly than that of the bulk of other bodily cells. There is a wide variety of chemotherapeutic medications.
How painful is chemotherapy for cancer?Chemotherapy side effects can be excruciating and include mouth ulcers, headaches, muscle or stomach pain, as well as burning, numbness, and tingling and shooting pains in the hands and feet. Both chemotherapy and cancer have had the potential to be painful.
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Attachment is sometimes discussed as existing at the
intersection of two different trait dimensions. Identify
those two traits dimensions and discuss how each of the
four attachment styles incorporates them.
The two trait dimensions at the intersection of which attachment is discussed is the dimension of anxiety and avoidance.
What do you mean by attachment?
Attachment is a strong emotional connection between two people, typically developed through shared experiences and a sense of trust. It can refer to the bond between parent and child, romantic partners, or even close friends. Attachment is an important part of healthy relationships and helps to provide a sense of security, comfort, and belonging.
Each of the four attachment styles incorporates both anxiety and avoidance in different ways. Secure attachment involves low levels of both anxiety and avoidance. Anxious-preoccupied attachment involves high levels of anxiety and low levels of avoidance. Dismissive-avoidant attachment involves low levels of anxiety and high levels of avoidance. Fearful-avoidant attachment involves high levels of both anxiety and avoidance.
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which glasgow coma scale score would the nurse give a client who does not open the eyes to any stimulus, only makes incomprehensible sounds and moans, and extends the arm at the elbow with adduction and internal rotation of the arm at the shoulder?
The lowest score is 3 (no response to pain + no verbalization + no eye opening), since 1 is the lowest score for each category. A GCS of 8 or less denotes serious injury, a score of 9 to 12 denotes moderate injury.
What does a 5 on the Glasgow Coma Scale mean?An initial score of less than 5 is linked to an 80% likelihood of passing away or being in a permanent vegetative state. 90% chance of recovery is connected with an initial score greater than 11. GCS ratings for concussions often range from 13 to 15.
What does a 3 on the Glasgow Coma Scale mean?Patients with head injuries who were admitted to the hospital with low Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) scores had a dismal prognosis. There is no possibility of surviving with a GCS score of 3, which is the lowest possible score and is linked to an extraordinarily high mortality rate.
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which nursing interventions would provide safe oxygen therapy? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Nursing interventions would be beneficial for providing safe oxygen therapy:
Checking the tubes for kinks Posting "no smoking" signs in the client's roomABOUT OXYGEN THERAPYOxygen is a gas that is vital to human life. It is one of the gases that is found in the air we breathe. If you have a chronic lung disease, you may need additional (supplemental) oxygen for your organs to function normally.
Here are some conditions that may require supplemental oxygen, either temporarily or long-term:
COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)Pulmonary fibrosisPneumoniaA severe asthma attackCystic fibrosisSleep apneaAlthough oxygen therapy may be common in the hospital, it can also be used at home. There are several devices used to deliver oxygen at home. Your healthcare provider will help you choose the equipment that works best for you. Oxygen is usually delivered through nasal prongs (an oxygen cannula) or a face mask. Oxygen equipment can attach to other medical equipment such as CPAP machines and ventilators.
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a client with arthritis of the hands and fingers is having difficulty using a metered-dose inhaler (mdi). the nurse suggests asking the primary health care provider for which prescription?
A client with arthritis of the hands and fingers is having difficulty using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI).
What is a inhaler used for?Inhalers are the primary method of delivery for medications used to treat asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease . However, they can only be effective if they are used properly. Using your inhaler correctly delivers the medication to your lungs, where it can work to control your symptoms.
Is an inhaler good for a cough?Asthma medications prescribed by your allergist will help to relieve the coughing attacks. These include a fast-acting bronchodilator inhaler, which expands the airways in the lungs and offers quick relief, or a corticosteroid inhaler, which relieves inflammation when used daily. Often both types are needed.
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which need has the highest priority when caring for a patient who is intoxicated from alcohol
When caring for a patient who is intoxicated from alcohol, Safety and security has the highest priority.
Alcohol intoxication is treated with supportive care. Typically, this entails placing the individual in the recovery posture, keeping the person warm, and ensuring adequate breathing. Gastric lavage and activated charcoal have been shown to be ineffective. To rule out other potential reasons of a person's symptoms, repeated evaluations may be necessary. Acute intoxication has been chronicled throughout history, and alcohol is still one of the most popular recreational substances in the world. Alcohol intoxication is considered a sin by certain faiths.
Lower-dose intoxication symptoms may include moderate drowsiness and impaired coordination. Higher dosages may cause slurred speech, difficulty walking, and vomiting. Excessive dosages might cause respiratory depression, coma, or death.
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the nurse is evaluating a client's response to receiving an intermittent gravity flow percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (peg) tube feeding. which clinical finding indicates that the client is unable to tolerate a continuation of the feeding?
The feeding comes in quickly, Epigastric area tenderness A increase in the formula level inside the tube denotes a full stomach. intestinal motion is reflected in flatus passage.
Tenderness resembles pain in what way?Painful things hurt because they are painful. When something is delicate, it hurts when it is moved or touched. Abdominal discomfort is a good illustration of how we apply these phrases.
What does point tenderness signify in medical terms?I could have a terrible stomachache.
Tenderness in the abdomen. When pressure is applied to a specific spot of the abdomen, you experience abdominal point tenderness, which causes discomfort (abdomen). You may recognize a certain body by using the three body views (front, back, and side).
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the nurse is completing a developmental assessment on a 6-month-old infant. which findings indicate the need for additional follow-up? select all that apply.
Sound originating from behind him is ignored by the infant, the infant frequently has his or her eyes crossed, the infant doesn't seem to be bothered by its surroundings shows a need for additional follow up.
Young infants might not respond to loud noises, they might not be able to focus on an object that is close to them, they might not start to babble or make sounds by the age of four months, they might not turn to look for sounds at that age, and they might cross their eyes frequently by the time they are six months old.
Putting two-word phrases together is not a necessary aspect of language development at this stage.
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a client newly diagnosed with glaucoma requires assistance with understanding and performing eye care. which intervention(s) does the nurse use related to eye care for this client? select all that apply.
The nurse slides the soft contact lens to the sclera and gently compresses it to remove the lens from the patient's eye. The surface tension holding the lens to the eye is disturbed by this maneuver.
What nursing care is provided for cataracts?Make sure the patient's room has a nightlight and has enough light for their needs. The patient's eyes could need more time to adjust to changes in lighting levels. Injury can be avoided with the help of sufficient lighting. if necessary, get the patient ready for cataract surgery.
What treatment for eye damage is the most effective?A punch to the face: Put a cold compress on your eye without applying pressure. In addition, you can take painkillers like acetaminophen or ibuprofen.
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the nurse is helping an adolescent with type 1 diabetes establish a consistent meal pattern. which feedback indicates that further teaching is needed?
The feedback from the client that he avoids complex carbohydrate substitutes indicates that further teaching is needed.
Depending on the amount eaten per serving and the caloric value, complex carbs may be replaced. To encourage adherence to any diet plan, flexibility is required. Consistent portion management is essential for keeping diabetes under control. The adolescent gains the ability to determine the appropriate amount to consume at a glance by weighing and measuring portion sizes over a period of months.
Teenagers should carefully study nutrition labels, paying close attention to the items' carbohydrate and calorie counts. Sorbitol is present in most dietetic meals. When possible, limit the usage of sorbitol because it metabolizes to fructose and subsequently glucose.
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which of the following are true regarding sharing phi with individuals directly involved in the care of an assigned patient?
Any healthcare professional can access patient files could find the data they need when it comes to sharing phi with those who are directly responsible for a patient's care.
PHI definition:PHI refers to any information in a medical record otherwise designated record set that may be used to identify a person and that was developed, utilised, or disclosed while a health care service, such as a diagnosis or treatment, was being provided.
what does PHI mean In terms of medicine?Confidential Health Information protected health information, or PHI. In accordance with the HIPAA Privacy Rule, patients have a number of rights in relation to the personal health information that covered companies hold.
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which of the following are true regarding sharing phi with individuals directly involved in the care of an assigned patient?
A. You can allow any healthcare provider to view patient files to find the information they are interested in.
B. Share any patient information with any supervisor above you in the chain of command.