A flat loop of wire consisting of a single turn of cross-sectional area 8.20 cm2 is perpendicular to a magnetic field that increases uniformly in magnitude from 0.500 T to 2.60 T in 1.02 s. What is the resulting induced current if the loop has a resistance of 2.70

Answer:

Explanation:

a )

This type of spectrum is called line emission spectrum . Because it consists of lines . It is emission spectrum because it is due to emission of radiation from a source .

b ) The wavelength of a photon  is inversely proportional to its energy .  Photon  due to transition between n = 1 and n = 3 will have higher energy than

that due to transition between n = 2 and n = 5 . So the later photon ( B)  will have greater wavelength or photon  due to transition between n = 2 and n = 5 will have greater wavelength .

Explanation:

It is given that,

Speed of bus 1 is 36 km/h and speed of bus 2 is 108 km/h. We need to find the distance between bus 1 and 2 after 20 minutes.

Time = 20 minutes = [tex]\dfrac{20}{60}\ h=\dfrac{1}{3}\ h[/tex]

As the buses are moving in opposite direction, then the concept of relative velocity is used. So,

Distance, [tex]d=v\times t[/tex]

v is relative velocity, v = 108 + 36 = 144 km/h

So,

[tex]d=144\ km/h \times \dfrac{1}{3}\ h\\\\d=48\ km[/tex]

So, the distance between them is 48 km after 20 minutes.

Answer:

2.9Ω

Explanation:

Resistors are said to be in parallel when they are arranged side by side such that their corresponding ends are joined together at two common junctions. The combined resistance in such arrangement of resistors is given by;

1/Req= 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 .........+ 1/Rn

Where;

Req refers to the equivalent resistance and R1, R2, R3 .......Rn refers to resistance of individual resistors connected in parallel.

Note that;

R1= 6.0Ω

R2 = 9.0Ω

R3= 15.0 Ω

Therefore;

1/Req = 1/6 + 1/9 + 1/15

1/Req= 0.167 + 0.11 + 0.067

1/Req= 0.344

Req= (0.344)^-1

Req= 2.9Ω

The equivalent resistance of this combination of resistors is 2.9Ω.

The combined resistance in such arrangement of resistors is provided by;

1/Req= 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 .........+ 1/Rn

here.

Req means  the equivalent resistance and R1, R2, R3

.Rn means the resistance of individual resistors interlinked in parallel.

Also,

R1= 6.0Ω

R2 = 9.0Ω

R3= 15.0 Ω

So,

1/Req = 1/6 + 1/9 + 1/15

1/Req= 0.167 + 0.11 + 0.067

1/Req= 0.344

Req= (0.344)^-1

Req= 2.9Ω

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Answer:

B.solar panels generate electricity that keeps the satellites running.

Explanation:

Solar panels are a renewable resource because they take energy from the sun.

Answer:

t = 2.95 min

Explanation:

Given that,

The diameter of flywheeel, d = 1.5 m

Mass of flywheel, m = 250 kg

Initial angular velocity is 0

Final angular velocity, [tex]\omega_f=1200\ rpm = 126\ rad/s[/tex]

We need to find the time taken by the flywheel to each a speed of 1200 rpm if it starts from rest.

Firstly, we will find the angular acceleration of the flywheel.

The moment of inertia of the flywheel,

[tex]I=\dfrac{1}{2}mr^2\\\\I=\dfrac{1}{2}\times 250\times (0.75)^2\\\\I=70.31\ kg-m^2[/tex]

Now,

Let the torque is 50 N-m. So,

[tex]\alpha =\dfrac{\tau}{I}\\\\\alpha =\dfrac{50}{70.31}\\\\\alpha =0.711\ rad/s^2[/tex]

So,

[tex]t=\dfrac{\omega_f-\omega_i}{\alpha }\\\\t=\dfrac{126-0}{0.711}\\\\t=177.21\ s[/tex]

or

t = 2.95 min

Answer:

a) 2.278 x 10^-5 volts

b) 1.139 x 10^-6 Ampere

c) 2.59 x 10^-11 W

Explanation:

The radius of the wire r = 2 mm = 0.002 m

the number of turns N = 200 turns

direction of the magnetic field ∅ = 25°

magnetic field strength B = 0.02 T

varying time = 2 sec

The cross sectional area of the wire = [tex]\pi r^{2}[/tex]

==> A = 3.142 x [tex]0.002^{2}[/tex] = 1.257 x 10^-5 m^2

Field flux Φ = BA cos ∅ = 0.02 x 1.257 x 10^-5 x cos 25°

==> Φ = 2.278 x 10^-7 Wb

The induced EMF is given as

E = NdΦ/dt

where dΦ/dt = (2.278 x 10^-7)/2 = 1.139 x 10^-7

E = 200 x 1.139 x 10^-7 = 2.278 x 10^-5 volts

b) If the two ends are connected to a resistor of 20 Ω, the current through the resistor is given as

[tex]I[/tex] = E/R

where R is the resistor

[tex]I[/tex] = (2.278 x 10^-5)/20 = 1.139 x 10^-6 Ampere

c) power delivered to the resistor is given as

P = [tex]I[/tex]E

P = (1.139 x 10^-6) x (2.278 x 10^-5) = 2.59 x 10^-11 W

Answer:

Explanation:

For this exercise we will use that the potential is created by the charge inside the equinoctial surface and just like in Gauss's law we can consider all the charge concentrated in the center.

Therefore the potential on the ferric surface is

        V = k Q / r

where k is the Coulomb constant, Q the charge of the sphere and r the distance from the center to the point of interest

a) On the surface the potential

        V = 9 10⁹ Q / 0.5

        V = 18 10⁹ Q

Unfortunately you did not write the value of the load, suppose a value to complete the calculations Q = 1 10⁻⁷ C, with this value the potential on the surfaces V = 1800 V

b) The equipotential surfaces are concentric spheres, let's look for the radii for some potentials

for V = 1300V let's find the radius

             r = k Q / V

             r = 9 109 1 10-7 / 1300

             r = 0.69 m

other values ​​are shown in the following table

V (V)      r (m)

1800     0.5

1300     0.69

 800      1,125

 300     3.0

In other words, we draw concentric spheres with these radii and each one has a potential difference of 500V

C) The spacing of the spheres corresponds to lines of radii of the electric field that have the shape

         E = k Q / r²

Answer:

Explanation:

radius of aorta = 1.5 cm

cross sectional area = π r²

= 3.14 x 1.5²

= 7.065 cm²

volume of blood flowing out per second out of heart

= a x v , a is cross sectional area , v is velocity of flow

= 7.065 x 11.2

= 79.128 cm³

heart beat per second = 67 / 60

= 1.116666

If V be the volume of heart

1.116666 V = 79.128

V = 70.86 cm³.

Answer:

Option A

Explanation:

Acceleration will be obviously zero when Force = 0

That is how:

Force = Mass * Acceleration

So, If force = 0

0 = Mass * Acceleration.

Dividing both sides by Mass

Acceleration = 0/Mass

Acceleration = 0 m/s²

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{\mathrm{A. \: It \: will \: be \: 0 \: meters \: per \: second \: per \: second. }}[/tex]

Explanation:

[tex]\mathrm{force=mass \times acceleration}[/tex]

The force is given 0 newtons.

[tex]\mathrm{force=0 \: N}[/tex]

Plug force as 0.

[tex]\mathrm{0=mass \times acceleration}[/tex]

Divide both sides by mass.

[tex]\mathrm{\frac{0}{mass} =acceleration}[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{0 =acceleration}[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{acceleration= 0\: m/s/s}[/tex]

Answer:

a

    [tex]\alpha = 2327.7 \ rev/s^2[/tex]

b

   [tex]\theta = 9124.5 \ rev[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The maximum  angular   speed is  [tex]w_{max} = 391000 \ rpm = \frac{2 \pi * 391000}{60} = 40950.73 \ rad/s[/tex]

     The  time  taken is  [tex]t = 2.8 \ s[/tex]

     The  minimum angular speed is  [tex]w_{min}= 0 \ rad/s[/tex] this is because it started from rest

Apply the first equation of motion to solve for acceleration we have that

       [tex]w_{max} = w_{mini} + \alpha * t[/tex]

=>     [tex]\alpha = \frac{ w_{max}}{t}[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]\alpha = \frac{40950.73}{2.8}[/tex]

       [tex]\alpha = 14625 .3 \ rad/s^2[/tex]

converting to [tex]rev/s^2[/tex]

  We have

           [tex]\alpha = 14625 .3 * 0.159155 \ rev/s^2[/tex]

           [tex]\alpha = 2327.7 \ rev/s^2[/tex]

According to the first equation of motion the angular displacement is  mathematically represented as

       [tex]\theta = w_{min} * t + \frac{1}{2} * \alpha * t^2[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]\theta = 0 * 2.8 + 0.5 * 14625.3 * 2.8^2[/tex]

      [tex]\theta = 57331.2 \ radian[/tex]

converting to revolutions  

        [tex]revolution = 57331.2 * 0.159155[/tex]

        [tex]\theta = 9124.5 \ rev[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

For circular path in magnetic field

mv² / R = Bqv ,

m is mass , v is velocity , R is radius of circular path , B is magnetic field , q is charge on the particle .

a )

R = mv / Bq

If v is changed  to 2v , keeping other factors unchanged , R will be doubled

b )

magnitude of acceleration inside field

= v² / R

= Bqv / m

As v is doubled , acceleration will also be doubled

c )

If T be the time inside the magnetic field

T = π R / v

=  π  / v x  mv / Bq

= π m / Bq

As is does not contain v that means T  remains unchanged .

d )

Net force acting on electron

= m v² / R = Bqv

Net force = Bqv

As v becomes twice force too becomes twice .

So a . b , d are correct answer.

Answer:

Infrared telescope and camera

Explanation:

An infrared telescope uses infrared light to detect celestial bodies. The infrared radiation is one of the known forms of electromagnetic radiation. Infrared radiation is given off by a body possessing some form of heat. All bodies above the absolute zero temperature in the universe radiates some form of heat, which can then be detected by an infrared telescope, and infrared radiation can be used to study or look into a system that is void of detectable visible light.

Stars are celestial bodies that are constantly radiating heat. In order to see a clearer picture of the these bodies, Infrared images is better used, since they are able to penetrate the surrounding clouds of dust, and have located many more stellar components than any other types of telescope, especially in dusty regions of star clusters like the Trapezium cluster.

Answer:

0.0127m

Explanation:

Using

Ym= (1)(633x10^-9m)(2m) / (0.1x10^-3m) = 0.0127m

Answer:

I believe it's called rapid growth

Explanation:

that is my answer no matter what

Answer:

acting force is the answer

The direction of the magnetic force on the moving electron is upward.

The direction of the magnetic force on the electron can be determined by applying right hand rule.

This rule states that when the thumb is held perpendicular to the fingers, the thumb will point in the direction of the speed while the fingers will point in the direction of the field and the magnetic force will be perpendicular to the field.

Thus, we can conclude that, the direction of the magnetic force on the moving electron is upward.

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Answer:

Yes. Something similar occurs here on Earth.

Explanation:

Gravity tends to pull objects perpendicularly to the ground. In space, the absence of this force means there is no compression on the spine due to gravity trying to pull it down. This means that astronauts undergo an increase in height in space.

Here on Earth, we experience gravity pull on our spine during the day. At night when we sleep, we lie down with our spine parallel to the ground, which means that our spine is no longer under compression from gravity force. The result is that we are a few centimetres taller in the morning when we wake up, than we are before going to bed at night. The increase is not much pronounced here on Earth because there is a repeated cycle of compression and decompression of our spine due to gravity, unlike when compared to that of astronauts that spend long duration in space, all the while without gravity forces on their spine

Answer:

New location at time 3.01 is given by: (7.49, 2.11)

Explanation:

Let's start by understanding what is the particle's velocity (in component form) in that velocity field at time 3:

[tex]V_x=x^2=7^2=49\\V_y=x+y^2=7+2^2=11[/tex]

With such velocities in the x direction and in the y-direction respectively, we can find the displacement in x and y at a time 0.01 units later by using the formula:

[tex]distance=v\,*\, t[/tex]

[tex]distance_x=49\,(0.01)=0.49\\distance_y=11\,(0.01)=0.11[/tex]

Therefore, adding these displacements in component form to the original particle's position, we get:

New position: (7 + 0.49, 2 + 0.11) = (7.49, 2.11)

Answer:

The bright fringes will appear much closer together

Explanation:

Because λn = λ/n ,

And the wavelength of light in water is smaller than the wavelength of light in air. Given that the distance between bright fringes is proportional to the wavelength

Answer:

Explanation:

The sum of force along both components x and y is expressed as;

[tex]\sum Fx = ma_x \ and \ \sum Fy = ma_y[/tex]

The magnitude of the net force which is also known as the resultant will be expressed as [tex]R =\sqrt{(\sum Fx)^2 + (\sum Fx )^2}[/tex]

To get the resultant, we need to get the sum of the forces along each components. But first lets get the acceleration along the components first.

Given the position of the object along the x-component to be x = 6t² − 4;

[tex]a_x = \frac{d^2 x }{dt^2}[/tex]

[tex]a_x = \frac{d}{dt}(\frac{dx}{dt} )\\ \\a_x = \frac{d}{dt}(6t^{2}-4 )\\\\a_x = \frac{d}{dt}(12t )\\\\a_x = 12m/s^{2}[/tex]

Similarly,

[tex]a_y = \frac{d}{dt}(\frac{dy}{dt} )\\ \\a_y = \frac{d}{dt}(5t^{3} +6 )\\\\a_y = \frac{d}{dt}(15t^{2} )\\\\a_y = 30t\\a_y \ at \ t= 2.15s; a_y = 30(2.15)\\a_y = 64.5m/s^2[/tex]

[tex]\sum F_x = 3.15 * 12 = 37.8N\\\sum F_y = 3.15 * 64.5 = 203.18N[/tex]

[tex]R = \sqrt{37.8^2+203.18^2}\\ \\R = \sqrt{1428.84+41,282.11}\\ \\R = \sqrt{42.710.95}\\ \\R = 206.67N[/tex]

Hence, the magnitude of the net force acting on this object at t = 2.15 s is approximately 206.67N

Answer:

The critical angle is  [tex]i = 41.84 ^o[/tex]

Explanation:

From the  question we are told that

    The index of refraction of the sugar solution is  [tex]n_s = 1.5[/tex]

   The  index of refraction of air is  [tex]n_a = 1[/tex]

Generally from Snell's  law

      [tex]\frac{sin i }{sin r } = \frac{n_a }{n_s }[/tex]

Note that the angle of incidence in this case is equal to the critical angle

Now for total internal reflection the angle of reflection is [tex]r = 90^o[/tex]

So  

      [tex]\frac{sin i }{sin (90) } = \frac{1 }{1.5 }[/tex]

      [tex]i = sin ^{-1} [\frac{ (sin (90)) * 1 }{1.5} ][/tex]

      [tex]i = 41.84 ^o[/tex]

Answer:

 x = 0.006 m

Explanation:

The potential at one point is given by

          V = k ∑ [tex]q_{i} / r_{i}[/tex]

remember that the potential is to scale, let's apply to our case

          V = k (q₁ / x₁ + q₂ / x₂ + q₃ / x)

in this case they indicate that the potential is zero

          0 = k (2 10⁻⁶ / (- 1 10⁻²) + (-6 10⁻⁶) / 2 10⁻² + ​​3 10⁻⁶ / x)

         3 / x = + 2 / 10⁻² + ​​3 / 10⁻²

         3 / x = 500

          x = 3/500

          x = 0.006 m

Answer:

2.55m

Explanation:

Using 1/do+1/di= 1/f

di= (1/f-1/do)^-1

( 1/0.0500-1/0.0510)^-1

= 2.55m

Answer:

[tex]3.1\times 10^{5}m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

The computation of the speed does the proton gain is shown below:

The potential difference is the difference that reflects the work done as per the unit charged

So, the work done should be

= Potential difference × Charge

Given that

Charge on a proton is

= 1.6 × 10^-19 C

Potential difference = 500 V

[tex]v= \sqrt{\frac{2.q.\Delta V}{m_{p}}} \\\\\\= \sqrt{\frac{2\times 1.6\times 10^{-19}\times 5\times 10^{2}}{1.67\times 10^{-27}}}[/tex]

[tex]v= \sqrt{9.58\times 10^{10}}m/s \\\\= 3.095\times 10^{5}m/s\\\\\approx 3.1\times 10^{5}m/s[/tex]

Simply we applied the above formulas

Complete Question

The complete question is shown on the first uploaded image  

Answer:

The  wavelength is  [tex]\lambda = 622 nm[/tex]

Explanation:

  From the question we are told that

    The distance of the slit to the screen is  [tex]D = 5 \ m[/tex]

    The order of the fringe is m  =  6

     The distance between the slit is  [tex]d = 0.9 \ mm = 0.9 *10^{-3} \ m[/tex]

    The fringe distance is  [tex]Y = 1.9 \ cm = 0.019 \ m[/tex]

Generally the for a dark fringe the fringe distance is  mathematically represented as

        [tex]Y = \frac{[2m - 1 ] * \lambda * D }{2d}[/tex]

=>     [tex]\lambda = \frac{Y * 2 * d }{[2*m - 1] * D}[/tex]

substituting values

=>      [tex]\lambda = \frac{0.019 * 2 * 0.9*10^{-3} }{[2*6 - 1] * 5}[/tex]

=>     [tex]\lambda = 6.22 *10^{-7} \ m[/tex]

       [tex]\lambda = 622 nm[/tex]

Answer:

constant horizontal force developed in the coupling C = 11.25KN

the friction force developed between the tires of the truck and the road during this time is 33.75KN

Explanation:

See attached file

The friction force between the tires of the truck and the road is 22500 N.

It is given that a 2 Mg truck ( m = 2000 Kg) is initially moving with a speed of u = 15 m/s.

Distance traveled before coming to rest, s = 10m

The final velocity of the truck will be zero, v = 0

When the breaks are applied, only the frictional force is acting on the truck and it is opposite to the motion of the truck.

The frictional force is given by:

f = -ma

the acceleration of the truck = -a

The negative sign indicates that the acceleration is opposite to the motion.

Applying the third equation of motion we get:

v² = u² -2as

0 = 15² - 2×a×10

225 = 20a

a = 11.25 m/s²

So the magnitude of frictional force is:

f = ma = 2000 × 11.25 N

f = 22500 N

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Answer:

The  frequency is  [tex]F = 325 Hz[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The frequency for the first note is  [tex]F_1 = 330 Hz[/tex]

     The  beat frequency of the first note is  [tex]f_b = 5 \ Hz[/tex]

     The  frequency for the second note is  [tex]F_2 = 350 \ H_z[/tex]

      The  beat frequency of the first note is [tex]f_a = 25 \ Hz[/tex]

Generally beat frequency is mathematically represented as

        [tex]F_{beat} = | F_a - F_b |[/tex]

Where [tex]F_a \ and \ F_b[/tex] are frequencies of two sound source

  Now in the case of this question

For the first note

     [tex]f_b = F_1 - F \ \ \ \ \ ...(1)[/tex]

Where  F is the frequency of the string note

For the second note  

      [tex]f_a = F_2 - F \ \ \ \ \ ...(2)[/tex]

Adding  equation 1 from 2

      [tex]f_b + f_a = F_1 + F_2 + ( - F) + (-F) )[/tex]

      [tex]f_b + f_a = F_1 + F_2 -2F[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]5 +25 = 330 + 350 -2F[/tex]

=>     [tex]F = 325 Hz[/tex]

Answer:

The wave is traveling in the y axis direction

Explanation:

Because the wave will always travel in a direction 90° to the magnetic and electric components

Answer:

B) the particle's momentum.

Explanation:

We know that

The centripetal force  on the particle when its moving in the radius R and velocity V

[tex]F_c=\dfrac{m\times V^2}{R}[/tex]

The magnetic force on the particle when the its moving with velocity V in the magnetic filed B and having charge q

[tex]F_m=q\times V\times B[/tex]

At the equilibrium condition

[tex]F_m=F_c[/tex]

[tex]q\times V\times B=\dfrac{m\times V^2}{R}[/tex]

[tex]R=\dfrac{m\times V}{q\times B}[/tex]

Momentum = m V

Therefore we can say that the radius of curvature is directly proportional to the particle momentum.

B) the particle's momentum.

Answer:

It will displace the same weight of fresh water i.e.16000N. The point is the body 'floats'- which is the underlying assumption here, and by Archimedes Principle, for this body or vessel or whatever it may be, to float it should displace an equal weight of water

Explanation: