The action that the medical assistant should follow is to place the zero mark of the measuring tape against the infant's forehead.
Who is a medical assistant?A medical assistant is defined as the individual that is professionally trained and is licensed to offer assistance to physicians with the purpose of rendering an effective care to patients.
The roles and responsibilities of a medical assistant Include the following:
Taking medical histories.Explaining treatment procedures to patients.Preparing patients for examinations.Assisting the physician during examinations.Collecting and preparing laboratory specimens.Performing basic laboratory tests.Instructing patients about medication and special diets.The circumference of an infant's head is one of the physical assessments that is be carried out in infants that are suspected to have nutritional deficiencies.
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the client who had a total hip replacement was discharged home and developed acute groin pain in the affected leg, shortening of the leg, and limited movement of the fractured leg. the nurse interprets these findings as indicating which complication?
The nurse interprets these findings as indicating which complication is caused by hip dislocation.
What is the most effective therapy for a hip dislocation?
Your health professional will physically move your dislocated hip back into place to correct it. This is known as a reduction. If there are no supplementary injuries, the correction can be performed externally.
Hip dislocation is a painful condition wherein the ball joint of your hip pops out of its socket. It is usually caused by significant severe trauma. (Artificial hip replacement parts are a little easier to dislocate.) A dislocated hip is a medical emergency. It causes severe pain and disables your leg until it has been corrected.
Therefore, hip dislocation causes acute groin pain in the affected leg, shortening of the leg, and limited movement of the fractured leg.
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a client in an acute manic phase is pacing the halls and talking in a loud voice with pressured speech. the client is overly involved with coclients and frequently threatens and disrupts others on the unit. after administering lithium treatment for the client, the nurse can expect the plan of care to include which additional intervention?
A client in an acute manic phase is pacing the halls and talking in a loud voice with pressured speech. the client is overly involved with clients and frequently threatens and disrupts others in the unit intervention.
Acute mania is the manic phase of bipolar I disease. it's far defined as a very volatile euphoric or irritable temper in conjunction with excess hobby or power level manic segment of bipolar I sickness (see bipolar ailment), characterized by a really risky euphoric or irritable temper with hyperactivity, excessively fast ideas, and speech, uninhibited and reckless behavior, grandiosity, and flight of thoughts.
Excessively fast notions and speech in the manic segment of Acute mania disorder, it's not unusual to revel in feelings of heightened energy, creativity, and euphoria. in case you're experiencing a manic episode, you can talk a mile a minute, sleep little or no, and be hyperactive. you may also experience like you're all-powerful, invincible, or destined for greatness.
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the nurse provides care for a client who is diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. which question should the nurse ask to assess the client for neuropsychiatric complications associated with the diagnosed eating disorder?
Emaciation, refusal to maintain a normal or healthy weight. A distortion of body image and acute anxiety of gaining weight, disordered eating behaviour are all symptoms of anorexia nervosa.
Anorexia nervosa, often known as anorexia, is an eating disorder characterised by underweight, dietary restriction, body image disturbance, anxiety of gaining weight, and an overwhelming desire to be small. Anorexia nervosa's physical indications and symptoms are connected to malnutrition. Anorexia is also characterised by mental and behavioural difficulties such as an inaccurate sense of body weight and an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming obese.
Anorexia nervosa may be difficult to detect signs and symptoms since what constitutes a low body weight varies from person to person, and some people may not seem particularly thin. Furthermore, persons suffering from anorexia frequently conceal their thinness, eating habits, or health difficulties.
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a 41-year-old patient who smokes and has a remote history of seizures is newly diagnosed with type 2 dm. the patient c/o frequent bouts of sadness for 2 months. he also c/o ofanhedonia, sleep disruption, and agitation. what would be the best medication to treat this patient, given his history and symptoms?
Sertraline is the medication that is suitable given the patient's history.
An antidepressant that acts in the brain is sertraline. Major depressive disorder (MDD), posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD), panic disorder, and social anxiety disorder are among the conditions it is licensed to treat. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) in adults, kids, and teenagers aged 6 to 17 is similarly treatable with this medication.
When a person has unplanned, recurrent bouts of extreme dread, panic disorder develops. Physical signs of these episodes include sweating, dizziness, nausea, shortness of breath, heart palpitations, and chest discomfort. Another aspect of panic disorder is the fear of more episodes.
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a nurse is caring for a client who is recovering in the hospital following orthopedic surgery. the nurse is performing frequent assessments for signs and symptoms of infection in the knowledge that the client faces a high risk of what infectious complication?
The most suitable nursing assessment is Risk of Central Neurovascular Dysfunction, because the hematoma may prevent tissue perfusion.
The most typical kind of dislocation is a head that is positioned posteriorly. nursing members will keep an eye on your breathing, temperature, pulse, and blood pressure while you are in the recovery room. To test the health of your lungs, they can request that you take several deep breaths. They could look for symptoms of bleeding or tissue perfusion at the location of your surgery. They'll keep an eye out for indications of an allergic response. As a tissue perfusion, you should avoid bending forward again than 90° and lifting your knees on the side of the operation higher than the hip. Avoid crossing your legs, turning your foot outward, and twisting or pivoting your hip that has had surgery. nursing members To prevent a hip dislocation, you must maintain safety measures. Not bending the hips past 90 degrees is one of these measures, as is sleeping.
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the nurse is performing a cardiopulmonary assessment on a 6-year-old client. which finding would cause the nurse to anticipate treatment for pertussis?
Understanding the clinical presentation of pertussis according the cardiopulmonary assessment is necessary for managing the disease in an environment with high vaccine uptake.
What exactly is a cardiopulmonary evaluation?Cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPET) evaluates integrative exercise reactions that occur the pulmonary, cardiovascular, hematological, cognitive, and skeletal muscle systems, that are not sufficiently reflected thru the measurement of individual multiple organ function.
How are tests for cardiopulmonary exercise conducted?The patient will need to exercise moderately on an erect bicycle while using a mouthpiece to breathe during the CPET test. Each breathe will be counted in order to gauge the body's functioning. Before and after exercise, the lungs' strength and capacity are assessed.
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a murmur that is heard after the 1st heart sound and before the 2nd heart sound and is most easily auscultated in the 1st inctercostal spae immediately to the right of the sternum would most likely be caused by
It results from turbulence brought on by the atrioventricular valves closing or the tricuspid and mitral valves closing at the beginning of systole.
What is sternum?The sternum, a vertical bone that resembles a T, forms the middle portion of the front section of a chest wall. Anatomically, the sternum was divided into three sections: the manubrium, body, & xiphoid process. The sternum is joined to the ribs by the costal cartilages which make it up the anterior rib cage. This area can become painful due to an infection, inflammation, injury, or cartilage deterioration that impacts the sternum itself. In addition, problems with nearby organs like the heart, lungs, and esophagus may cause this pain.
What is the purpose of the sternum and which organ is under sternum?Your sternum, which further functions in conjunction with your ribs, protects your heart, lungs, and chest blood vessels. Support.
A little organ called the thymus can be found in the front of the chest, directly behind the sternum or breast bone.
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Prepare a companywide email informing employees that they will be required to have a new picture taken for their identification card.
A companywide email for informing employees that they will be required to have a new picture taken for their identification card can be written as below.
Why do you inform team about new process update?Clear communication is very essential for a smooth transition to new processes. As you introduce new processes, it is very important to explain why the change was necessary, what goals you hope to achieve with the changes and how these new processes will benefit the employees
Hello team,
As you all know we have made some changes in the identification card and they have to be renewed.
You all are advised to take a new picture for the identification card and submit it by tomorrow.
Team Manager
ABC
(company Name)
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Describe the electromagnetic spectrum (how it is composed and arranged).
The complete range of the electromagnetic spectrum is classified by frequency or wavelength. Even though all electromagnetic waves have a wide range of frequencies, wavelengths, and photon energies, they all move at the speed of light in a vacuum.
The range of all electromagnetic radiation is represented by the electromagnetic spectrum, which also includes numerous subranges, often known as parts, such as visible light and ultraviolet radiation.
The various parts have different names depending on variations in the emission, transmission, and absorption of the associated waves as well as on the many practical uses for which they are put to use. The ranges frequently overlap since none of these contiguous segments have clearly defined recognized bounds.
All radio waves (such as commercial radio and television, microwaves, and radar), infrared radiation, visible light, ultraviolet radiation, X-rays, and gamma rays are all included in the entire electromagnetic spectrum, which ranges in frequency from the lowest to the highest (longest to shortest wavelength). Spectroscopy can be applied to almost all electromagnetic radiation wavelengths and frequencies.
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which of the following are environmental factors that are associated with poor health outcomes later in life? (choose all that apply.) group of answer choices physical inactivity affordable preventive care environmental pollution access to supermarkets one's motivation to study
There are approximately 8 environmental factors that are linked to ill health later in life. It is they
Chemical securityAir qualityNatural disasters and climate changemicrobe-induced diseasesinadequate access to healthcareStructure-related problemslow-quality waterinternational environmental problemsIn the realm of public health, environmental variables continue to have a negative impact on both individual and population health, making environmental health advocacy a major issue. Take the impending threat of climate change, for instance. According to experts in environmental health, climate change may alter disease patterns and make communities more vulnerable to certain diseases. A rise in floods, wildfires, and superstorms, all of which have the potential to seriously impact human health, has also been linked to climate change.
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an adolescent client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department for treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis. which assessment findings should the nurse expect to note?
The assessment findings should the nurse expect to note is fruity breath odor and decreasing level of consciousness.
What are assessment findings?Assessment findings are the results produced by the application of an assessment procedure to a security control or control enhancement to achieve an assessment objective.
If an adolescent client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department for treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis, the nurse should expect to note fruity breath odor and decreasing level of consciousness.
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a nurse is teaching a new mother about her neonate and the changes that are occurring as the neonate adapts to life outside the client's uterus. the nurse would incorporate understanding of which change when describing the neonate's current status? select all that apply.
The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide is now carried out by the lungs, and the liver starts to work as the ductus venosus shuts.
What is uterus and its function?If you were assigned female at birth, your uterus is indeed a pear-shaped reproductive organ (AFAB). During childbirth, an egg cell implants there, and your baby grows there until it is born. Your menstrual cycle is also controlled by it. A woman's uterus, commonly referred to as her womb, has an average size of 3 to 4 feet by 2.5 inches. It resembles an upside-down pears in both size and shape. The uterus can enlarge due to a number of medical disorders, such as childbirth or uterine fibroids.
How does the uterus appear?The uterus, sometimes referred to as the "womb," is pear-shaped and has a strong muscular wall. The fundus, which is situated at the apex of the uterus, the main body.
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when reviewing patient electronic medical records on the night shift, which patient would the intensive care unit (icu) charge nurse anticipate transferring to the progressive care unit (pcu) in the morning?
The patient who has a controlled blood pressure and is taking a steady dose of the a vasoactive medication will thus be admitted to the PCU, according to the nurse.
What does ICU means?A hospital's or healthcare facility's intensive care unit (ICU), often referred to as an intense therapy unit (ITU), intensive treatment unit (ITU), or critical care unit (CCU), would be a unique division that offers intensive care medicine. The illnesses and injuries that intensive care unit patients are dealing with are severe or life-threatening, need round-the-clock care, careful observation by life support equipment, and medication to maintain a constant bodily function. Highly skilled medical professionals, nurses, or respiratory therapists who specialise in care for critically ill patients work in these facilities.
What Quality of care is given to ICU patient?The information at hand points to a link between ICU volume as well as the standard of care provided to patients who require mechanical ventilation. Higher ICU staff was substantially associated with reduced ICU and hospital death rates after controlling for illness severity, demographic factors, and ICU characteristics (such as the presence of intensivists on staff). International standards advise using a proven clinical tool to check every patient of delirium every day (typically twice or as often as necessary). An Intensive Care Delirium Screening Checklist and the Confusion Assessment Method for ICU (CAM-ICU) are the two that are most frequently used (ICDSC). These tools have been translated into more than 20 languages, and many ICUs throughout the world use them.
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the nurse notes that a client is receiving an oxytocin (pitocin) infusion via a pump that is programmed to deliver 30 ml/hour. the available solution is ringer's lactated 1,000 ml with pitocin 20 units. how many milliunits/minute is the client receiving? (enter numeric value only, whole number.)
The client is receiving 10milliunits/minute of an oxytocin (pitocin) infusion via a pump that is programmed to deliver 30ml/hour.
Units to milliunits conversion:
20 x 1000 = 20,000 units.
By reducing X/2 = 1/2 and 2X = 20,
we arrive at X = 10 milliunits/minute
OR
20/1,000 = 0.02 1000: 0.02
30: X = 0.6
1,000X X = 600
and 600/60 = 10 milliunits/minute
using the formula D/H x Q = 30 ml/hour
X/20,000 units x 1,000 ml
= 30 ml/hour (60 minutes) X/20 =30/60.
The general structure of the formula depends on the units chosen and is as follows:
IV drip rate (mL/hour) = (60 minutes per hour * desired dose (mcg/kg/min) * weight (kg) * bag volume (mL) / (1000 mcg/mg) * desired dose (Drug in Bag in mg)
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a client is ordered continuous bladder irrigation at a rate of 60 gtt/minute. the nurse hangs a 2 l bag of sterile solution with tubing on a three-legged i.v. pole. the nurse then attaches the tubing to the client's three-way urinary catheter, adjusts the flow rate, and leaves the room. which important procedural step did the nurse fail to follow?
A customer is ordered non-stop bladder irrigation at a rate of 60 gtt/minute. the nurse hangs a 2 l bag of sterile solution with tubing on three-legged evaluating patency of the drainage lumen.
Issues that can be encountered in the course of the control of drain tubes consist of and are not restrained to migration of drain tube, loss of suction, occlusion of the drain tube, improved drainage output or abnormal or sudden drainage fluid kind, and inadvertent elimination.
Nurses will also be answerable for emptying the drain, observing the site, and documenting findings. The drain ought to be emptied no later than when it becomes half full because it will lose suction and end up ineffective study the insertion website online for drainage and symptoms of contamination. be sure to keep the pores and skin clean.
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the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of self-care deficit, bathing related to motor impairment and decreased cognitive function for a client with cerebral metastasis. which outcome would the nurse most likely identify on this client's plan of care?
The client is lacking in bathing-related self-care. An suitable result would therefore address the patient's participation in everyday hygiene practices.
Why is good hygiene so crucial?Through proper personal hygiene and routine body and hair washing with soap and water, many diseases and disorders can be avoided or managed. The spread of diseases connected to cleanliness can be stopped by using good body washing techniques. To be healthy, find out how often you should wash your hands.
Why does hygiene exist?Neglecting one's personal requirements due to incapacity or unwillingness might manifest as poor hygiene. Certain emotional or mental illnesses, such as severe depression and psychotic disorders, are frequently accompanied by poor hygiene. Another major factor in poor hygiene is dementia.
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Medicare and other payers may consider a procedure to be non covered service when performed in an ASC for several reasons. List two
Medicare and other payers may consider a procedure to be non covered service when performed in an ASC for several reasons such as:
Excessive therapy or diagnostic procedure Services that are reimbursable by other organizationsWhat are Ambulatory Surgical Centers for?Ambulatory Surgical Centers (ASC) are modern health care facilities whose purpose is for providing surgical care on the same day as an incident which covers diagnostic and preventive procedures. Hospital owned outpatient facilities are an example of ASC.
For a procedure to be a non covered service, it would mean that the therapy or diagnostic procedure is excessive or that other organizations will reimburse the services.
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nitroprusside sodium (nipride) 50 mg is mixed in d5w 250 ml. the nurse plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/minute to a client weighing 182 pounds. using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the nurse regulate the infusion?
124 gtt/min drops per minute should the nurse regulate the infusion . Because Sodium nitroprusside (nipride) 50 mg is mixed in d5w 250 ml.
182/2.2 Equals 82.73 kg when converting from lbs to kg. For this client, determine the dosage: 413.65 mcg/min = 5 mcg x 82.73. Calculate how much mcg Sodium nitroprusside are present in 1 ml: 200 mcg per ml is 250/50,000 mcg.
The customer is to receive 2.07ml per minute (413.65 mcg/min x 200 mcg/ml), or 413.65 mcg/min x 200 mcg/ml. When the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the equation is 60 2.07 = 124.28 gtt/min OR, when utilising dimensional analysis, the equation is 60 gtt/ml X 250 ml/50 mg X 1 mg/1,000 mcg X 5 mcg/kg/min X 1 kg/2.2 pounds X 182 lbs.
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many medications can be administered transdermally by applying patches that contain the medication to the surface of the skin. can these patches be attached anywhere on the skin and be just as effective?
Because there are more eccrine sweat glands on the palms and soles, the patch won't adhere well to them and absorption will be more challenging.
How does the eccrine sweat gland work?The sympathetic nerve system governs the sweat gland gland, which controls body temperature. When body temperature rises, eccrine glands produce water to the skin's surface, where it evaporate to remove heat. In order to create sweat, acetylcholine operates on the eccrine glands, and adrenalin acts on both eccrine or pineal glands.
What is eccrine sweat gland made of?Eccrine sweat glands have two layers of cells. an innermost layer of secretions and an outside flat surface of contractile epithelium, both of which are separated by a distinctive, occasionally thick membrane. Bacteria just on skin that degrade eccrine sweat can also produce an unpleasant odor.
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which of the following is considered an effective treatment for someone with hearing loss based on nerve damage?
A cochlear implant is considered an effective treatment for someone with hearing loss based on nerve damage.
A cochlear implant is a tiny, sophisticated electronic device that can enable someone who is profoundly deaf or very hard of hearing to hear sound. An exterior piece of the implant rests behind the ear, while a second portion is surgically inserted beneath the skin (see figure). The following are the components of an implant:
a microphone that gathers sound from the surroundings.
a speech processor that chooses and organizes microphone-captured sounds.
a speech processor that receives signals from a transmitter and a receiver/stimulator that transforms those signals into electrical impulses.
An electrode array, which is a collection of electrodes, receives the stimulator impulses and transmits them to various areas of the auditory nerve.
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a client with major depressive disorder is prescribed new drug therapy. to best test the client's adherence to this therapy, which information would the nurse include in the teaching plan for the client? select all that apply.
Answer:
The length of time treatment is anticipated
The possibility that two or more drugs will be prescribed
A detailed description of possible side effects
The importance of staying in touch with a mental health care provider.
a client comes to the emergency due to symptoms of a potential heart attack. further assessment determines that the client is not having a heart attack but is having a panic attack. when beginning to interview the client, which question would be most appropriate for the nurse to ask?
"How do you feel about everything going on in your life right now?" is a suitable question to ask. An anxiety disorder called panic disorder causes the symptoms like frequent, unexpected episodes of panic or fear.
When there is no real danger present or obvious reason, a panic attack is a rapid bout of acute dread that results in significant physical symptoms. It's frightening to experience a panic attack. When you have a panic attack, you might believe that you are losing control, experiencing a heart attack, or perhaps going to pass away. Numerous people just experience one or two panic attacks in their lives, and the issue usually disappears when a stressful circumstance is over. However, if you've experienced frequent, unplanned panic attacks and have spent a significant amount of time living in constant terror of an attack, you may be suffering from a disease known as panic disorder.
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which advantages would the nurse associate with starting enteral feedings instead of parenteral feedings through a nasogastric tube for a patient on the intensive care unit (icu)? select all that apply. the enteral feeding have fewer complications
The advantages that the nurse associate with starting enteral feedings are safety, effectiveness, decreased risk of infection, decreased cost, prevents gut atrophy, and preserving the barrier function of the gut.
Parenteral Feeding refers to intravenous nutrition (through a vein). "Outside of the digestive tract" is what "peripheral" means. Parenteral feeding bypasses your whole digestive system, from the mouth to the anus, in contrast to enteral feeding, which is administered through a tube to your stomach or small intestine.
Since enteral feeding is more physiological, simpler, less expensive, and less complex, parenteral feeding is rarely preferred. Even nasogastric feeding needs care because it is one of the trickier enteral nutrition methods, along with gastrostomy and jejunostomy.
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an older adult reports chronic abdominal pain and dark, tarry stools. the client has a history of chronic arthritis being treated with naproxen daily. what is the most likely cause of the presenting symptomology?
Stomach ulcers is the most likely cause of the presenting symptomology. Stomach ulcers (gastric ulcers) are open ulcers that form on the stomach lining.
Ulcers can also develop in the gut right above the stomach. These are known as duodenal ulcers. Peptic ulcers refer to stomach and duodenal ulcers. This information is applicable to both.
Antibiotics are used to eradicate H. pylori.Medications that inhibit acid formation while while promoting healing.Medications that lower acid production.Antacids that reduce stomach acid.Medications that safeguard the stomach and small intestine lining.Stomach ulcers are typically caused by Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) bacterium infection or by using nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen and aspirin. Gastric ulcers are most typically seen on the minor curvature of the stomach between both the antrum and fundus. The predominance of duodenal ulcers are found in the duodenum's first section.
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an 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses? group of answer choices all of the above parkinson's disease benign prostatic hyperplasia (bph) prostate cancer
Option A is the correct answer. The patient who is facing issues of dribbling urine and difficulty in starting his stream should have a checkup. Parkinson's Disease, Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia, and Prostate Cancer should be included in the list of differential diagnoses.
The 82-year-old man who is visiting the primary care office and mentions the complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream should have a checkup according to the tests prescribed by the healthcare workers. The Diagnoses should include Parkinson's Disease, Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia, and Prostate Cancer.
People with Parkinson's disease, Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia, and Prostate Cancer, may face difficulties and experience bladder problems. These diseases should be included in the diagnoses to make a complete assessment of the client's health.
Hence, All of the above tests should be included in the diagnoses.
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the nurse is performing an admission assessment on a newborn infant with the diagnosis of subdural hematoma after a difficult vaginal delivery. which assessment technique assists to support the newborn's diagnosis?
Answer:Diagnosis of Subdural Hemorrhages/Hematomas A CT (computed tomography) of the head is the best way to diagnose a subdural hemorrhage. Some babies have no symptoms, which is why it is crucial for the medical team to closely monitor all babies who had a traumatic birth and who are suspected of having this type of brain bleed.
Explanation:
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Which of the following is defined as all chemical reactions and physical processes of the body?
A. balance
B. homeostasis
C. metabolism
D. anabolism
Answer: c
Explanation: Metabolism refers to the whole sum of reactions that occur throughout the body within each cell and that provide the body with energy. This energy gets used for vital processes and the synthesis of new organic material
a gerontologic nurse is assessing a client who has numerous comorbid health problems. what assessment findings would prompt the nurse to suspect a uti?
Gerontologic nurse is assessing client who has numerous comorbid health problems then the assessment that would prompt the nurse to suspect UTI is uncharacteristic fatigue and new onset of confusion.
What is the assessment for UTI who has comorbid health problem?The most common symptom of UTI in older adults is generalized fatigue. and the most common objective finding is change in cognitive functioning. Food cravings, increased thirst and upper abdominal pain makes it necessary for further assessment and intervention but none is directly suggestive of an UTI.
Older adults are more vulnerable to UTIs, because with age, muscles in bladder and pelvic floor that can cause urine retention become weaker.
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What supplies would you need to empty the urinary collection bag and measure the urine output appropriately
The supplies which would be needed to empty the urinary collection bag and measure the urine output appropriately include the following:
GlovesGarbage bagsCatheterWhat is Urine?This is referred to as a liquid by product of metabolism and is usually whitish or yellowish and stored in the bladder before it is expelled put from the body. Urine is harmful to the body as it contains urea which is why it must be expelled as soon as we feel the urge to.
Some medical conditions such as prostate cancer etc require emptying the urinary collection bag and measure the urine output appropriately and materials such as catheter, garbage bags etc ensure that they are properly done.
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a preanesthesia assessment was performed and signed at 10:21 am. anesthesia start time is reported as 12:26 pm, and the surgery began at 12:37 pm. the surgery finished at 15:12 pm and the patient was turned over to pacu at 15:26 pm, which was reported as the ending anesthesia time. what is the anesthesia time reported?
The reported time of the anesthesia is around 12.26 pm to 3. 26 pm (around 3 hours).
Anesthesia time begins when the anesthesiologist begins to prepare the patient for anesthesia in the operating room (or area) equivalent and ends when the anesthesiologist is no longer in personal contact. presence, i.e. when the patient can be placed safely under the postoperative supervision in the hospital. Thus, in this case, the pre-anesthesia assessment was performed and had been signed at 10.21 am and the anesthesia start time (12: 26 pm) and anesthetic end time (3:26 pm) correspond to a total anesthetic time of 3 hours or 180 minutes.
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