A mutual fund manager has a $20 million portfolio with a beta of 1.7. The risk-free rate is 4.5%, and the market risk premium is 7%. The manager expects to receive an additional $5 million, which she plans to invest in a number of stocks. After investing the additional funds, she wants the fund’s required return to be 15%. What should be the average beta of the new stocks added to the portfolio?

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Answer 1

To calculate the average beta of the new stocks added to the portfolio, we need to use the capital asset pricing model

(CAPM) formula: Required return = Risk-free rate + (Market risk premium x Beta)

We can rearrange this formula to solve for beta:

Beta = (Required return - Risk-free rate) / Market risk premium

First, we need to calculate the required return of the portfolio after investing the additional $5 million. We can do this by using the CAPM formula with the current portfolio information:

Required return = 4.5% + (7% x 1.7) = 16.6%

Next, we can use the same formula to solve for the average beta of the new stocks:

Beta = (15% - 4.5%) / 7% = 1.36

Therefore, the average beta of the new stocks added to the portfolio should be 1.36.

- To calculate the average beta of the new stocks, we need to use the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) formula.

- First, we need to calculate the required return of the portfolio after investing the additional $5 million. We can do this by using the CAPM formula with the current portfolio information.

- The required return of the portfolio after investing the additional $5 million is 16.6%.

- Next, we can use the same formula to solve for the average beta of the new stocks.

- The average beta of the new stocks added to the portfolio should be 1.36.

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Related Questions

which of the following ratios compares the net income to the average total assets? group of answer choices earnings per share

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The ratio that compares net income to average total assets is called return on assets (ROA).

ROA is a measure of a company's profitability and is calculated by taking the net income divided by the average total assets. It is a measure of how efficiently a company is using its assets to generate net income, which is the net profit after all expenses are taken into account.

This ratio is important because it measures the effectiveness of a company in generating profits from its assets.

It is also a key metric used by investors to evaluate the performance of a company, as it can help investors determine if the company is using its assets efficiently and effectively.

Ratios compares the net income to the average total assets is return on assets (ROA).

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The ratio that is used to compare net income to the average total assets is called Return on Assets (ROA). Here option C is the correct answer.

ROA is a financial ratio that measures how efficiently a company uses its assets to generate profits. It is calculated by dividing net income by the average total assets of a company over a specific period.

ROA is an important indicator of a company's profitability and financial health. It tells investors how much profit a company is generating for every dollar of assets it owns. A high ROA indicates that a company is using its assets effectively to generate profits, while a low ROA suggests that the company may not be using its assets efficiently.

Comparing ROA between companies in the same industry can help investors identify which companies are more profitable and efficient in their use of assets. It is important to note that ROA should not be used in isolation but should be considered along with other financial ratios and metrics to get a more comprehensive understanding of a company's financial health.

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Complete question:

Which of the following ratios is used to compare net income to the average total assets?

A) Return on Equity

B) Return on Investment

C) Return on Assets

D) Gross Profit Margin

true or false: because t-bills have low risk relative to common stocks, t-bills cannot outperform common stocks.

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The statement "because t-bills have low risk relative to common stocks, t-bills cannot outperform common stocks" is true.

However, this does not mean that T-bills cannot outperform common stocks in certain situations, especially during economic downturns or periods of market volatility when investors seek safer investments.

While T-bills may have lower risk compared to common stocks, it is important to note that they may not always provide the highest returns. In fact, during periods of low interest rates, the returns on T-bills may not even keep up with inflation, resulting in a negative real return.

On the other hand, common stocks have the potential to provide higher returns over the long-term, but they also come with higher volatility and risk.

Furthermore, the performance of T-bills and common stocks can vary depending on market conditions. During periods of economic downturns or market volatility, investors may seek safer investments such as T-bills, causing their demand and price to increase.

This may result in T-bills outperforming common stocks during those periods.

Therefore, while T-bills may be considered lower risk than common stocks, their performance relative to stocks can depend on a variety of factors, and investors should carefully consider their investment objectives and risk tolerance when making investment decisions.

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fill in the blank. after struggling with the accounting training, aaron is unsure whether he can complete the end-of-year financial reporting with no errors in the time allotted. in this case, aaron is low on the___element of expectancy theory.

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After struggling with the accounting training, Aaron is unsure whether he can complete the end-of-year financial reporting with no errors in the time allotted. In this case, Aaron is low on the "expectancy" element of expectancy theory.

Expectancy theory is a motivational theory that suggests that people are motivated by the belief that their effort will lead to high performance, and high performance will lead to desired outcomes or rewards. The theory is based on three key elements: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. Expectancy is the belief that effort will lead to high performance, instrumentality is the belief that high performance will lead to desired outcomes, and valence is the value a person places on the outcomes or rewards.In Aaron's case, he is low on the expectancy element because he is unsure whether his effort will lead to high performance.

He has struggled with the accounting training, and this has reduced his confidence in his ability to complete the end-of-year financial reporting with no errors in the time allotted. As a result, he may not be motivated to put in the necessary effort to complete the task, and he may not believe that his effort will lead to high performance.To increase Aaron's motivation and improve his expectancy, it may be helpful to provide him with additional training or support.

This could include one-on-one coaching, additional resources or tools, or more time to complete the task. By improving his skills and confidence, Aaron will be more likely to believe that his effort will lead to high performance, and he will be more motivated to complete the task with no errors in the time allotted.

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23. valuing perpetuities. live forever life insurance co. is selling a perpetuity contract that pays $1,250 monthly. the contract currently sells for $245,000. what is the monthly return on this investment vehicle? what is the apr? the effective annual return?

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The effective annual return on this investment is 6.27%.

To value perpetuities, we use the formula:

PV = PMT / r

Where PV is the present value, PMT is the payment received every period, and r is the interest rate.

Using this formula, we can solve for the monthly return on this investment vehicle:

245,000 = 1,250 / r

r = 1,250 / 245,000
r = 0.00510204 or 0.51%

Therefore, the monthly return on this investment vehicle is 0.51%.

To find the APR (annual percentage rate), we can use the formula:

APR = r x 12

APR = 0.51% x 12
APR = 6.12%

So the APR on this investment is 6.12%.

To find the effective annual return, we can use the formula:

EAR = (1 + r)^12 - 1

EAR = (1 + 0.00510204)^12 - 1
EAR = 6.27%

Therefore, the effective annual return on this investment is 6.27%.

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Which of the following is NOT one of the three ways that money can be spent that contribute to GDP? O Individual purchases O Government purchases O Government savings O Business investments

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Correct answer: Government savings

To explain this further, GDP, or Gross Domestic Product, is the total value of goods and services produced within a country during a specific time period. It is an important economic indicator that measures the size and health of a country's economy. There are three main ways that money can be spent to contribute to GDP:

1. Individual purchases:
This includes consumer spending on goods and services, such as food, clothing, and entertainment. Individual purchases contribute significantly to a country's GDP because they represent the demand for goods and services in the economy.

2. Government purchases: This includes government spending on public goods and services, such as infrastructure projects, education, and healthcare. Government purchases contribute to GDP by creating demand for goods and services and providing the necessary public services for a thriving economy.

3. Business investments: This includes spending by businesses on capital goods, such as machinery, equipment, and buildings, which help increase productivity and output. Business investments contribute to GDP by providing the resources and infrastructure necessary for economic growth.

However, government savings do not directly contribute to GDP. Government savings refers to the accumulation of funds by the government through various sources, such as taxation or borrowing, which can be used for future spending or debt reduction.

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s12-05 nominal versus real returns [lo2] refer to table 12.2. a. what was the average annual return on large-company stocks from 1926 through 2019 in nominal terms?

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Based on Table 12.2, the average annual return on large-company stocks from 1926 through 2019 in nominal return terms was 10.0%.

Nominal returns refer to the investment returns that are not adjusted for inflation. It is the actual percentage increase or decrease in the value of an investment over a certain period of time, without taking into account the impact of inflation on the purchasing power of the investment. It is important to note that nominal returns are not adjusted for inflation and represent the actual percentage change in the value of an investment. In contrast, real returns are adjusted for inflation and represent the purchasing power of an investment. So, if you want to compare the true value of investments over time, you need to consider real returns, not just nominal values.

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carlson's (a sole proprietor) general business credit for the current year is $84,000. his net income tax is $190,000, tentative minimum tax is $175,000, and net regular tax liability is $185,000. he has no other tax credits. determine the amount of carlson's general business credit for the year. carlson's general business credit allowed for the year is $fill in the blank 1 and his unused general business credit of $fill in the blank 2 may be carried back or forward.

Answers

Carlson's general business credit allowed for the year is $84,000 and his unused general business credit of $0 may be carried back or forward.

The general business credit is a non-refundable tax credit that can be used to reduce a taxpayer's regular tax liability and alternative minimum tax (AMT) liability. In this case, Carlson's net income tax liability of $190,000 is greater than his tentative minimum tax liability of $175,000, so he does not have to pay AMT.

His net regular tax liability is $185,000, which can be reduced by the general business credit of $84,000. Since the credit is non-refundable, any unused portion cannot be refunded but can be carried back one year or forward for up to 20 years to reduce future tax liabilities.

Since Carlson has no unused general business credit, he cannot carry it forward or backward.

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which of the following sentences most appropriately describe why the pain of losing $3,000 is greater than the joy of winning $3,000 for individuals who are risk averse? check all that apply.
Risk-averse people overestimate the probability of losing money. The utility function of a risk-averse person exhibits the Iaw of diminishing marginal utility. The more wealth that risk-averse peopie have, the more satisfaction they receive from an additional dollar. The more weaith that risk-averse people have, the less satisfaction they receive from an additional dollar.

Answers

for risk-averse individuals, the pain of losing $3,000 is greater than the joy of winning $3,000 because their utility function follows the law of diminishing marginal utility, and they receive less satisfaction from each additional dollar as their wealth increases.


The sentences that most appropriately describe why the pain of losing $3,000 is greater than the joy of winning $3,000 for individuals who are risk averse are:
1. "The utility function of a risk-averse person exhibits the law of diminishing marginal utility."
2. "The more wealth that risk-averse people have, the less satisfaction they receive from an additional dollar."

1. The law of diminishing marginal utility states that as an individual consumes more of a good or service, the marginal utility they gain from each additional unit decreases. For risk-averse individuals, the pain of losing money is more significant than the joy of winning the same amount, as the marginal utility of each dollar gained is less than the marginal utility of each dollar lost.
2. The second sentence highlights that risk-averse individuals value each additional dollar less as their wealth increases. This means that while they may still experience some satisfaction from winning $3,000, it will be less significant than the dissatisfaction they feel from losing $3,000, due to the diminishing marginal utility.

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A weaker U.S. dollar is an economically favorable exchange-rate shift for manufacturing plants based in the United States.
a. This is a true statement.
b. No, the U.S. dollar must be stronger.
c. Yes, because it provides for a weakened foreign demand for U.S.-made goods.
d. Yes, because it makes such plants less cost-competitive with foreign plants.
e. Yes, because it provides incentives for foreign companies to locate manufacturing facilities in the U.S. to make goods for U.S. consumers.

Answers

A weaker U.S. dollar is indeed an economically favorable exchange-rate shift for manufacturing plants based in the United States. The correct answer is (e) Yes, because it provides incentives for foreign companies to locate manufacturing facilities in the U.S. to make goods for U.S. consumers.

When the U.S. dollar is weaker, it means that foreign currencies are stronger in comparison. As a result, it becomes less expensive for foreign companies to purchase goods and services in the U.S.

This lower cost can encourage foreign companies to invest in manufacturing plants in the U.S., as they can take advantage of the favorable exchange rate and lower production costs. These foreign companies can then produce goods for U.S. consumers more cost-effectively, which can benefit the U.S. economy.

In summary, a weaker U.S. dollar is favorable for U.S.-based manufacturing plants because it attracts foreign investment and encourages foreign companies to produce goods for U.S. consumers, ultimately supporting the domestic economy.

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an oligopolistic firm that is deciding the price to charge, the output to produce, or the quality of product to offer, must consider group of answer choices the regulatory price limits that are always present with oligopoly. the potential reactions of rivals in the market. the fact that per-unit costs will usually increase as the scale of production increases. that entry barriers into oligopolistic markets are low.

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An oligopolistic firm that is deciding the price to charge, the output to produce, or the quality of product to offer, must consider B. the potential reactions of rivals in the market.

Oligopoly markets consist of a small number of firms that dominate the industry, and the actions of one firm can significantly impact the market dynamics. Consequently, it's crucial for these firms to anticipate and evaluate the potential responses of their competitors when making strategic decisions.

Option A is not necessarily accurate, as regulatory price limits are not always present in oligopolies. The existence of such regulations depends on the specific industry and jurisdiction. Option C is not a primary concern in this context, as the increase in per-unit costs with scale might not be the primary factor affecting oligopolistic firms' decisions. Finally, option D is incorrect, as entry barriers in oligopolistic markets are typically high, making it difficult for new firms to enter the market.

In summary, when making decisions related to price, output, and product quality, an oligopolistic firm must prioritize considering the potential reactions of rivals in the market, as these competitors' responses can significantly impact the firm's overall success in the industry. Therefore, the correct option is B.

The question was incomplete, Find the full content below:

an oligopolistic firm that is deciding the price to charge, the output to produce, or the quality of product to offer, must consider group of answer choices

A. the regulatory price limits that are always present with oligopoly.

B. the potential reactions of rivals in the market.

C. the fact that per-unit costs will usually increase as the scale of production increases.

D. that entry barriers into oligopolistic markets are low.

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At the beginning of the year, ABC's Accounts Receivable balance was $93,300. During the year ABC sold $9,881,000 to its customers on credit. At the end of the year the firm's Accounts Receivable balance was $12,300. How much did ABC receive in payments from its customers over the course of the year? $9.962,000 $9.949.000 $9.970,000 $9.958,000 Unanswered Question 4 0/1 pts In its most recent financial statements, ABC reported 96.000 of net income and 285.000 of retained earnings. The retained earnings at the end of the previous year were 274,000. How much in dividends was pald to shareholders during the year? red Question 5 0/1 pts ABC started the year with 3,208,000 of net fixed assets and ended the year with 2,836,000 of net fixed assets. Depreciation expenses during the year were 445,000. How much gross fixed assets did ABC buy or sell during the year? (If they sold assets, be sure and put a negative sign in front of the answer), At the beginning of the year, ABC's Accounts Payable balance was $97.000. During the year ABC purchased $9,113,000 and at the end of the year the firm's Accounts Payable balance owed was $194,000. How much did ABC pay to its suppliers for its credit purchases over the course of the year? $9,016,000 59.013,000 59.024.000 $9.012,000 Incorrect Question 8 0/1 pts During the year, ABC purchased $9.820,000 of goods from its suppliers on credit. ABC paid its suppliers $9,875,000 and at the end of the year the firm's Accounts Payable balance owed was $24,000. What was the firm's Accounts Payable balance at the beginning of the year? 579.000 $82,000 $87,000 $83.000 The Balance Sheet: 1 x is a value shox + m/courses/12711/quizzes/68549 answered Question 9 * 0/1 pts XYZ Corporation started the year with 77,858 of inventory. During the year, the company purchased 392,135 of additional inventory, and at the end of the year, total inventory stood at 96,914. Given this information, what was XYZ's Cost of Goods Sold during the year? Incorrect Question 11 0/1 pts At the beginning of the year, ABC's Inventory balance was $51,700. During the year ABC reported the cost of Goods Sold was $6,031,000. At the end of the year the firm's reported inventory was $110.100. How much inventory did the firm purchase over the course of the year? 56,099 400 56.092.400 $6.097400 $6.103.400 Incorrect Question 12 0/1 pts DEF Company is expected to have net income of $250,000 this year. The company traditionally pays out 40 percent of its net income as a dividend DEF started the year with retained earnings of $490,500. What is their expected retained earnings at the end of the year? 640,500 880.500 340.500 20.500

Answers

a. ABC received $9,970,000 in payments from its customers over the course of the year.

b. The firm's Accounts Payable balance at the beginning of the year was $87,000.

c. XYZ's Cost of Goods Sold during the year was $426,079.

a. To calculate the payments received from customers, we need to subtract the ending Accounts Receivable balance from the sum of beginning Accounts Receivable balance and credit sales. Therefore, $9,881,000 + $93,300 - $12,300 = $9,970,000.

b. To calculate the beginning Accounts Payable balance, we need to subtract the change in Accounts Payable from the ending balance. Therefore, $194,000 - ($9,113,000 - $97,000) = $87,000.

c. To calculate the Cost of Goods Sold, we need to subtract the ending inventory from the sum of beginning inventory and inventory purchases. Therefore, $51,700 + $392,135 - $96,914 = $426,079.

Note: The other questions do not have enough information to solve them.

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A way to gather consumers' opinions of concepts is _____, where consumers in shopping centers are approached and asked to evaluate rough ads via questionnaires, rating scales, and/or rankings.
A. laboratory testing
B. Delphi groups
C. focus groups
D. mall intercepts
E. consumer juries

Answers

The answer to the question is E.  consumer juries. Consumer juries are a type of research technique that involves gathering consumers' opinions of concepts by presenting them with rough ads or product prototypes and asking them to evaluate them using questionnaires, rating scales, and/or rankings.

The consumers in this case are approached in shopping centers or other public places and are asked to participate in the study. Consumer juries are typically composed of a small group of individuals who are representative of the target market for the product or service being evaluated.

They are given the opportunity to evaluate the concepts and provide feedback on what they like and dislike about them. This feedback is then used to refine the concept or product before it is launched in the market.

Consumer juries are a useful tool for companies to gain insights into the preferences and opinions of their target consumers and to develop products and services that meet their needs and expectations.

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The amount of expenditures eligible for the child and dependent care credit is the least of three amounts. Which of the following is not one of those amounts? The total amount of child and dependent care expenditures for the year $3,000 for one qualifying person or $6,000 for two or more qualifying persons The dependent's earned income for the year The taxpayer's earned income for the year

Answers

The dependent's earned income for the year is not one of the three amounts that determines the amount of expenditures eligible for the child and dependent care credit.

The three amounts are the total amount of child and dependent care expenditures for the year, $3,000 for one qualifying person or $6,000 for two or more qualifying persons, and the taxpayer's earned income for the year.

Among the options provided, the one that is NOT one of the three amounts considered for determining the amount of expenditures eligible for the child and dependent care credit is: The dependent's earned income for the year.

Dependent care credit is a tax credit that provides a benefit to taxpayers who incur expenses for the care of qualifying children or dependent adults while they work or look for work. To qualify for the credit, the care must be provided by someone other than the taxpayer and must be necessary for the taxpayer to work or look for work.

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dell computer has 10% of a $250 billion market. dell is the low-cost leader and realizes a 20% margin on sales, and marketing, sales and administrative expenses equaling 10% of sales. what is dell's net marketing contribution?

Answers

To calculate Dell's net marketing contribution, we need to consider the information given in the question.

1. Dell has 10% of a $250 billion market, which means its market share is 10% of the total market value. So, Dell's market share is $250 billion * 10% = $25 billion.

2. Dell realizes a 20% margin on sales, which means that 20% of the sales revenue is profit. To calculate the sales revenue, we can divide Dell's market share by the profit margin:

Sales Revenue = Market Share / Profit Margin

Sales Revenue = $25 billion / 20% = $125 billion

3. Marketing, sales, and administrative expenses equal 10% of sales. To calculate the total expenses, we can multiply the sales revenue by the expense percentage:

Expenses = Sales Revenue * Expense Percentage

Expenses = $125 billion * 10% = $12.5 billion

4. Finally, the net marketing contribution can be calculated by subtracting the expenses from the sales revenue:

Net Marketing Contribution = Sales Revenue - Expenses

Net Marketing Contribution = $125 billion - $12.5 billion = $112.5 billion

Therefore, Dell's net marketing contribution is $112.5 billion.

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which of the following statements is correct?a. option holders are not entitled to receive dividends unless they choose to exercise their option.b. leaps are very short-term options that have begun trading on the exchanges in recent years.c. options typically sell for less than their exercise value.d. call options give investors the right to sell a stock at a certain exercise price before a specified date.e. put options give investors the right to buy a stock at a certain exercise price before a specified date.

Answers

The correct statement among the mentioned options is  Option holders are not entitled to receive dividends unless they choose to exercise their option.  The correct option is (a).

This is because option holders only have the right, but not the obligation, to buy or sell the underlying stock at a specified exercise price before a specified date. Dividends are only paid to shareholders who actually own the stock. If an option holder chooses to exercise their option and becomes a shareholder, only then are they entitled to receive dividends.LEAPS, as mentioned in option b, are actually Long-term Equity Anticipation Securities, which are long-term options, not short-term.

Options selling for less than their exercise value, as in option c, is incorrect, as the option premium typically includes the exercise value plus a time value component. Option d is incorrect because call options give investors the right to buy, not sell, a stock at a certain exercise price. Lastly, option e is incorrect as well, because put options give investors the right to sell, not buy, a stock at a certain exercise price.

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The index number problem refers to the fact that.a. The measured inflation rate depends on the weights used in the consumption basket.b. The CPI tends to understate inflationc. The CPI tends to overstate inflationd. The CPI is based on a Fisher Ideal price indexe.None of the above.

Answers

a. The measured inflation rate  or price depends on the weights used in the consumption basket.

Inflation is good because it keeps the economy growing as wages increase and demand for goods goes up, but if inflation gets high then the economy can become overheated when prices go up too fast and people can't afford goods. The Federal Reserve Bank, if you're in the USA, will then raise interest rates to make loans more expensive and rewarding people for not spending money, which slows down the economy back to a healthy state.

The index number problem arises because different individuals and households consume different goods and services in different quantities, and the prices of these goods and services change at different rates. The inflation rate measured by a price index such as the CPI depends on the weights assigned to each item in the index, which can lead to different measures of inflation for different groups of people.

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Assume that consumers respond to permanent increase in taxes by reducing their consumption in each period by the full amount of the tax increase. Also assume that investment remains unchanged. Using the classical ​IS-LM model determine the effects of a permanent increase in government purchases which is financed by an increase in​ taxes, on the following​ curves
-The FE line: shifts to the right
-The IS curve: does not shift
-The LM curve: shifts down and to the right

Answers

The effects of a permanent increase in government purchases, which is financed by an increase in taxes, on the classical IS-LM model can be seen in the following way.

The FE line, which indicates the level of aggregate demand, will shift to the right because of the increase in government spending. This increases the level of aggregate demand, leading to an increase in output and income.

However, the IS curve, which indicates the relationship between output and interest rates, will not shift as the increase in taxes reduces consumer spending, which offsets the increase in government spending.

Finally, the LM curve, which indicates the demand for money, will shift down and to the right as the increase in taxes leads to a decrease in consumer spending, and therefore a decrease in the demand for money.

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according to the concept of money neutrality, if the money supply increases by 10% then in the long run: a unemployment drops by 20%. b unemployment drops by 10%. c real gdp increases by 10%. d the interest rate falls by 10%. e the price level increases by 10%.

Answers

According to the concept of money neutrality, if the money supply increases by 10% then in the long run the price level increases by 10%. The correct option is e) the price level increases by 10%.

According to the concept of money neutrality, changes in the money supply only affect nominal variables, such as the price level, in the long run. Money neutrality suggests that an increase in the money supply does not impact real variables, such as unemployment or real GDP.

If the money supply increases by 10%, the correct answer is (e) the price level increases by 10%. The reason for this outcome is that when there is more money in circulation, the purchasing power of money decreases, leading to higher prices for goods and services. This is known as inflation.

In the long run, money neutrality implies that changes in the money supply do not have any impact on real GDP, as the economy will adjust to the new price level. Similarly, unemployment rates will not be affected by the increase in the money supply, as these are determined by factors unrelated to the money supply, such as labor market conditions and productivity. Therefore, options (a), (b), and (c) are incorrect.

As for option (d), the interest rate may initially fall in the short run due to the increase in money supply, but it will eventually adjust to a new equilibrium level in the long run, making this answer incorrect as well. The correct option is e) the price level increases by 10%.

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The seller is to performance obligation as the buyer is to
A) the transfer of control over goods or services.
B) the obligation to pay the transaction price.
C) an enforceable right to receive consideration.
D) the enforcement of the contract.

Answers

The Correct option is A) the transfer of control over goods or services.

In accounting, a performance obligation is an obligation that a company has to transfer goods or services to a customer. When a seller fulfills its performance obligation, it transfers control of the goods or services to the buyer.

Therefore, the answer is A) the transfer of control over goods or services. In contrast, the buyer's obligation is typically to pay the transaction price, which is the amount agreed upon in the contract between the buyer and the seller. This is not the same as a performance obligation. While the buyer may have an enforceable right to receive consideration, this is not necessarily the same as their obligation in the transaction. The enforcement of the contract is also not the same as the buyer's obligation.

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Desmond Carroll's filing status is married filing separately, and he has earned gross pay of $4,120. Each period he makes a 403(b) contribution of 5% of gross pay and contributes $90 to a cafeteria plan. His current year taxable earnings for Social Security tax and Medicare tax, to date, are $97,200.
Social Security tax = $
Medicare tax = $

Answers


Desmond Carroll's Social Security tax would be $6,003.60, and his Medicare tax would be $1,111.20.



To calculate the Social Security tax, we first need to determine Desmond's total taxable earnings for the year. Since he has earned gross pay of $4,120 each period and has contributed 5% to a 403(b) plan, his taxable earnings for Social Security tax would be:

($4,120 x 12) - (($4,120 x 12) x 0.05) = $49,392

Next, we need to calculate the Social Security tax rate, which is currently 6.2%. Therefore, Desmond's Social Security tax would be:

$49,392 x 0.062 = $3,062.30

To calculate the Medicare tax, we use the same taxable earnings amount and multiply it by the current Medicare tax rate of 1.45%. Therefore, Desmond's Medicare tax would be:

$49,392 x 0.0145 = $716.90

Since these calculations only take into account his taxable earnings to date, they may not reflect his total Social Security and Medicare taxes for the year.

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eliminating drug patents would tend to:

A: stimulate innovation in all industries

B: discourage innovation in all industries

C: encourage innovation in products made up of many different technologies but discourage innovation of easy to copy products requiring large R&D costs to create.

D: discourage innovation in products made up of many different technologies but encourage innovation of easy to copy products requiring large R&D costs to create.

Answers

Eliminating drug patents would tend to option C) encourage innovation in products made up of many different technologies but discourage innovation of easy-to-copy products requiring large R&D costs to create.


Eliminating drug patents would remove the exclusive rights of drug companies to manufacture and sell their products, which would encourage competition and potentially lower prices. However, this could also discourage innovation in the pharmaceutical industry as companies would no longer have the financial incentive of exclusive rights to recoup the costs of expensive research and development.

On the other hand, eliminating drug patents could encourage innovation in other industries where products are made up of many different technologies, as there would be less risk of patent infringement lawsuits. But it could discourage the innovation of easy-to-copy products that require large R&D costs to create, as companies may not be able to recoup those costs without patent protection.

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Stagflation is a:
A) situation of low inflation and low unemployment
B) combination of inflation and recession
C) combination of deflation and recession

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Stagflation is a combination of inflation and recession. The correct option is B.

Stagflation is a term used to describe an economy that is experiencing both high inflation rates and stagnant economic growth or recession. It is a challenging economic situation because policymakers often have to choose between combating inflation or stimulating economic growth, as the two goals can be at odds with each other.The correct option is B.

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What is weighted average contribution margin ratio?

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The weighted average contribution margin ratio is a calculation used to determine the overall profitability of a company's products or services.

It is calculated by taking the total contribution margin for all products or services and dividing it by the total sales revenue. The contribution margin is the amount of revenue that is left over after deducting variable costs. The weighted average takes into account the varying levels of contribution margin for different products or services and weights them based on their percentage of total sales. This provides a more accurate measure of overall profitability than simply looking at individual product or service contribution margins.

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assume tht a stock is expected to pay dividends at the end of year 1 and year 2 of $1.25 and $1.56, respectively. dvidends are expected to grow at 5% rate thereafter

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The main information provided is that the stock is expected to pay dividends of $1.25 and $1.56 at the end of year 1 and year 2, respectively, with a 5% growth rate thereafter.


To determine the stock's value, we'll use the Dividend Discount Model (DDM) which takes into account the expected dividends and the growth rate.
Step 1: Calculate the present value of the dividends for year 1 and year 2.
Dividend in year 1 (D1) = $1.25
Dividend in year 2 (D2) = $1.56
Step 2: Determine the dividends for year 3 and onwards.
Starting from year 3, dividends are expected to grow at a constant rate (g) of 5%.
Dividend in year 3 (D3) = Dividend in year 2 * (1 + g) = $1.56 * (1 + 0.05) = $1.638
Step 3: Calculate the present value of the dividends for year 3 and onwards.
To calculate this, we need the required rate of return (r). Assume that the required rate of return is given as 'r'.
Present value of dividends from year 3 onwards (PV_D3) = D3 / (r - g)
Step 4: Calculate the total present value of all expected dividends.
Total Present Value (PV_total) = Present value of D1 + Present value of D2 + PV_D3
Step 5: Determine the stock's value.
The stock's value is equal to the total present value of all expected dividends, PV_total. Once you have the required rate of return (r), you can plug it into the equation to determine the stock's value.

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a(n) contract is one in which one or more of the parties have the legal right to cancel their obligations under the contract.

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A contract that allows one or more parties to cancel their obligations under the agreement is known as a voidable contract.

This means that the contract is legally binding, but certain circumstances allow for cancellation without incurring legal consequences. For example, if one party has been misled or coerced into entering the contract, they may have the right to void the agreement.

Additionally, contracts involving minors or individuals lacking mental capacity may also be voidable. It's important to note that voidable contracts are different from void contracts, which are considered null and void from the beginning and have no legal effect.

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A set of strategies (one for each player) in which each player's strategy is the best option for that player, given the chosen strategy of the player's opponent. Economics uses game theory, the study of how people behave in strategic situations, to solve for such an equilibrium is called:_______

Answers

The equilibrium that results from a set of strategies (one for each player) in which each player's strategy is the best option for that player, given the chosen strategy of the player's opponent, is called the Nash equilibrium.

Nash equilibrium is a concept in game theory named after mathematician John Nash. It is a solution concept that predicts the outcome of a game when each player chooses the best strategy given the strategies chosen by the other players.

In other words, it is a set of strategies where no player can improve their outcome by changing their strategy alone. Nash equilibrium is widely used in economics to study various situations such as pricing, market competition, and international trade.

Thus, Economics uses game theory, the study of how people behave in strategic situations, to solve the Nash equilibrium.

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a(n) resume emphasizes a candidate's skills and capabilities, but many employment professionals are suspicious of this type.

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A functional resume emphasizes a candidate's skills and capabilities rather than their work experience. While it can be helpful in highlighting relevant skills, many employment professionals are suspicious of this type of resume.

This is because it often lacks a clear chronological work history, making it difficult for employers to assess a candidate's career progression and experience. Additionally, some employers may see it as an attempt to hide gaps or inconsistencies in a candidate's employment history.

Ultimately, it's important for job seekers to carefully consider the pros and cons of using a functional resume and to tailor their approach based on the specific job and industry they are targeting.

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Two Hearts Corporation is a calendar year taxpayer. Polly owns all of its stock. Her basis for the stock is $6,000. On April 1 of the current (non-leap) year Two Hearts distributes $54,000 to Polly Read the requirement . a. b. c. Distribution $ 54,000 $54,000 $ 54,000 Dividend income $ (42,000) $ (33,000) $ (33,233) -
Remaining distribution $ 12,000 $ 21,000 $ 20,767 Return of Capital $ (6,000) $ $ (6,000) $ (6,000) Capital gain (loss) $ 6.000 $ 15.000 $ 14.767
Carryforward Accumulated E&P $ 0 $ (22,000) Requirement Determine the tax consequences of the cash distribution in each of the following independent situations: a. Current E&P of $24,000; accumulated E&P of $18,000 b. Current E&P of $33,000; accumulated E&P deficit of $(22,000). c. Current E&P deficit of $(68,000), accumulated E&P of $50,000. d. Current E&P deficit of $(30,000); accumulated E&P deficit of $(15,000).
(Do not round intermediary calculations. Only round the amount you input in the cell to the nearest dollar. Complete all input fields. For zero amounts, make sure to enter "0" in the appropriate cell. Use parentheses or a minus sign for losses and E&P deficits.)

Answers

The remaining $12,000 is a return of capital, which will reduce her basis in the stock to $0. She will also have a capital loss of $6,000, which she can use to offset capital gains or deduct up to $3,000 against ordinary income.  

Since current E&P is greater than the accumulated E&P deficit, the first $22,000 of the distribution is a dividend and the remaining $32,000 is a return of capital. Polly will report $33,000 as dividend income on her tax return. The $22,000 dividend will also reduce the accumulated E&P deficit to $0. The $32,000 return of capital will reduce Polly's basis in the stock to -$26,000. She will also have a capital loss of $15,000, which she can use to offset capital gains or deduct up to $3,000 against ordinary income.  Since current E&P deficit is greater than the distribution, the entire $54,000 is a return of capital. Polly's basis in the stock will be reduced to -$48,000.

She will also have a capital loss of $20,767, which she can use to offset capital gains or deduct up to $3,000 against ordinary income.  Since both current E&P and accumulated E&P are in deficit, the entire $54,000 is a return of capital. Polly's basis in the stock will be reduced to -$42,000. She will not have any capital gain or loss.

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You have the following data for the Fosberg Winery. What is Fosberg's return on assets (ROA)? Return on equity = 15%; Earnings before taxes = $20,000; Total asset = 500,000; Profit margin = 4.5%; Tax rate = 40%.
a. 1.8%
b. 2.4%
c. 3.0%
d. 3.6%

Answers

To calculate Fosberg Winery's return on assets (ROA), we first need to determine the net income. We can use the earnings before taxes (EBT) and tax rate to find this value.

Net Income = Earnings before taxes * (1 - Tax rate)
Net Income = $20,000 * (1 - 0.40)
Net Income = $20,000 * 0.60
Net Income = $12,000

Now, we can calculate the return on assets (ROA) using the net income and total assets:

ROA = Net Income / Total Assets
ROA = $12,000 / $500,000
ROA = 0.024
ROA = 2.4%

Thus, Fosberg Winery's return on assets (ROA) is 2.4% (option b).

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A building sold for $157,000. The broker charged a 6% commission and divided it as fallows: 10% to the salesperson who took the listing, one-half of the balance to the salesperson who made the sale, and the rest to the broker. What was the listing salesperson's commission?

Answers

The listing salesperson's commission was $942.

How to calculate the listing salesperson's commission

To find the listing salesperson's commission, we'll use the given information in a step-by-step manner.

1. Calculate the total commission: 6% of $157,000 is (0.06 * 157,000) = $9,420.

2. Calculate the commission for the listing salesperson: 10% of the total commission is (0.10 * 9,420) = $942.

3. The remaining commission is (9,420 - 942) = $8,478.

4. The salesperson who made the sale receives half of the balance, which is (0.5 * 8,478) = $4,239.

5. The rest goes to the broker, which is (8,478 - 4,239) = $4,239

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