Answer:
Profit for Kansas City = $376,375
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Omaha Kansas City
Expected annual demand (units) 9,800 11,625
Annual fixed costs $1,000,000 $1,100,000
Variable cost per unit $30 $45 $294,000 $523,125
Total cost $1,294,000 $1,623,125
Revenue $1,685,600 $1,999,500
Profit $391,600 $376,375
From the above differential analysis, it appears that locating in Omaha would be better and more profitable than locating in Kansas City for the company. This is based on the fact that more profit ($15,225) will be generated with Omaha location than locating in Kansas City.
ABC uses the conventional retail method to determine its ending inventory at cost. Assume the beginning inventory at cost (retail) were $393,500 ($594,000), purchases during the current year at cost (retail) were $3,408,000 ($5,193,600), freight-in on these purchases totaled $159,500, sales during the current year totaled $4,666,000, and net markups were $414,000. What is the ending inventory value at cost
Answer:Ending Inventory at Cost= $981,248.40
Explanation:
Cost Retail
Beginning inventory $393,500 $594,000
purchases $3,408,000 $5,193,600
freight in $159,500,
net markups $414,000
Total $3,961,000 $6,201,600
Sales $4,666,000
Ending Inventory at Retail:=(Beginning inventory + purchases +net markups - Sales during the current year
594,000 + $5,193,600 + $414,000- $4,666,000, = $1,535,600
Cost to Retail Ratio:( Beginning inventory + purchases+freight in)/ (Beginning inventory + purchases +net markups )
=($393,500 + $3,408,000 +$159,500,) ÷ (594,000 + $5,193,600 + $414,000) =$3,961,000/$6, 201, 600= 0.638= 0.639
Ending Inventory at Cost: Ending Inventory at Retail x Cost to Retail Ratio
$1,535,600 x 0.639 = $981,248.40
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the sale of a long position in a restricted long margin account?
I. 50% of the proceeds of the sale are credited to SMA
II. 100% of the proceeds of the sale are credited to SMA
III. There is a 0% retention requirement of the sale for a restricted account
IV. There is a 50% retention requirement of the sale for a restricted account
a. I and III
b. I and IV
c. II and III
d. II and IV
Answer:
b
Explanation:
50% of the proceeds of the sale are credited to SMA
and
There is a 50% retention requirement of the sale for a restricted account
A company stocks an SKU with a weekly demand of 600 units and a lead time of 4 weeks. There are 52 weeks in a year. Management will tolerate 1 stock out per year. If sigma for the lead time is 100 and the order quantity is 2500 units, what is:
A company stocks an SKU with a weekly demand of 600 units and a lead time of 4 weeks. There are 52 weeks in a year. Management will tolerate 1 stock out per year. If sigma for the lead time is 100 and the order quantity is 2500 units, what is: the safety stock, the average inventory, and the order point?
Answer:
The safety stock = 142 units
The average inventory = 1392 units
The order point = 2542 units
Explanation:
Given that:
the weekly demand = 600 units
lead time = 4 weeks
sigma for the lead time (i.e the standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex] ) = 100 units
Order quantity = 2500 units
The objective is to calculate :
the safety stock, the average inventory, and the order point?
To start with the number of order per year.
The number of order per year = Annual demand/Order quantity
The number of order per year = (Weekly demand × 52)/ Order quantity
The number of order per year = (600 × 52)/2500
The number of order per year = 31200/2500
The number of order per year = 12.48 times /year
Also, the service level for the safety factor = (Number of order per year - 1)/ number of order per year
the service level for the safety factor = ( 12.48 - 1)/12.48
the service level for the safety factor = 11.48/12.48
the service level for the safety factor = 0.9199
the service level for the safety factor = 91.99%
∴ the safety factor at 91.99% service level = (safety factor at (90% +94%))÷2
the safety factor at 91.99% service level = (1.28 +1.56) ÷2
the safety factor at 91.99% service level = 2.84 ÷2
the safety factor at 91.99% service level = 1.42
Now,
the safety stock = 100 × safety factor at 91.99% service level
the safety stock = 100 × 1.42
the safety stock = 142 units
The order point = safety factor + demand during lead time
where;
The demand during lead time = weekly demand × 4
The demand during lead time = 600 × 4
The demand during lead time = 2400 units
The order point = safety factor + demand during lead time
The order point = 142 + 2400
The order point = 2542 units
Finally,
The average inventory = (order quantity ÷ 2) + safety stock
The average inventory = (2500 ÷ 2) + 142
The average inventory =1250 +142
The average inventory = 1392 units
Ink Inc. has a capital structure consisting of 25 percent debt and 75 percent common equity financing. The company has $800 million in net income and plans to pay out 40 percent of their earnings as dividends. What is the maximum amount of new financing that the company can raise without selling new common stock?
Answer:
$640 million
Explanation:
The computation of maximum amount of new financing is shown below:-
New financing from equity = $800 million × (1 - 40%)
= $480 million
New financing from debt = $480 million ÷ 75% × 25%
= $160 million
Now the maximum amount of new financing is
= $480 million + $160 million
= $640 million
Hence, the maximum amount of new financing is $640 million
Use your own language to explain that short run supply curve by a price-taking firm is the positively-sloped portion of the short-run marginal cost curve.
Answer:
See the answer and explanation below
Explanation:
A price-taking firm is a firm in a perfectly competitive market where all firms are price takers. That is, no firm in a perfectly competitive can influence the price as only the market determines the price.
The short run supply curve for a price-taking firm refers to the short marginal cost (SMC) curve at and above the shutdown point.
Note: See the attached graph for the shut run supply curve. Also note that point E in the attached graph is the shutdown point.
The shutdown point is the point where the short run marginal cost (SMC) is equal to the average variable cost (AVC) (i.e. where MC = AVC = Shutdown point).
This indicates that the short-run supply curve for a price-taking firm is the part of the SMC curve that lies above AVC curve.
The part of the SMC curve that lies below the AVC or the shutdown point is not part of the short run supply curve of a price-taking firm, because the firm is not engaging in any production at that point.
Therefore, the short run supply curve of a price-taking firm is the increasing portion of the short run MC curve above the shutdown point.
This follows the law of supply which states that more quantity of the product of a firm will be supplied when there is a rise in the market price.
In summary, the short run supply curve of a price-taking firm is the positively-sloped portion of the short-run marginal cost curve
What's the future value of an investment of $1 a year for each of 4 years, at the end of the last year? Suppose the interest rate is 8%.
Answer:
4.51
Explanation:
We have to calculate fva. The future value of annuity
Here is the formula
Fva = A [( + I)^n-1/I]
Where a = annuity
I = interest rate
N = number of years
Inserting into formula
1[(1+0.08)^4 - 1/0.08]
= 1[(1.36049 - 1)/0.08]
= 4.51
Therefore the future investment is $4.51
During the year, Next Tec Corp. had the following cash flows: receipt from customers, $15,000; receipt from the bank for long-term borrowing, $6,500; payment to suppliers, $5,900; payment of dividends; $1,700, payment to workers, $2,900; and payment for machinery, $12,500. What amount would be reported for net financing cash flows in the statement of cash flows?
Answer:
$4,800
Explanation:
Next Tech corporation had the following cash flows
Receipt from customers= $15,000
Receipt from bank for long term borrowing= $6,500
Payment to suppliers= $5,900
Payment of dividend= $1,700
Payment to workers= $2,900
Payment for machinery= $12,500
Therefore, the amount that should be reported for the net financing cash flows in the statement of cash flow can be calculated as follows
= Receipt for bank long term borrowing-payment of dividend
= $6,500-$1,700
= $4,800
Hence the amount reported for net financing cash flows in the statement of cash flow is $4,800
At the beginning of the meeting Kira does not properly lead the team during the ______ stage of team development. Therefore; the team was stuck in the ______ stage.
Answer:
forming; storming
Explanation:
The forming is the first stage in group development. At this stage, the members of the group reveal their expectations with respect to the work and share their that skils in which they are perfect so that the work could be allocated easily.
After this finishing this step, the next step is storming in which the members give their suggestions to accomplish a task that has assigned to each member of the group
Therefore as per the given situation, the forming and storming are the correct options.
Team development is the ultimate word for the teamwork or the entire growth of the firm with the team as well. The team works as a group in the firm and accomplishes the tasks within the set target in order to accomplish the organization target as well as the individual targets.
The answer to the blanks are forming; storming
The forming is the first stage in group development. At this stage, the members of the group reveal their expectations with respect to the work and share their skills in which they are perfect so that the work could be allocated easily.
After this step, the next step is storming in which the members give their suggestions to accomplish a task that has been assigned to each member of the group
To know more about the options of the stage of team development, refer to the link below:
https://brainly.com/question/14449327
Andrews Corp. ended the year carrying $153,576,000 worth of inventory. Had they sold their entire inventory at their current prices, how much more revenue would it have brought to Andrews Corp.?
Answer:
$153,576,000
Explanation:
The reason is that the company has sold maximum number of units that it can in the year. If it desires to sell all of its stock then it will have to decrease the cost of the product to increase the demand of the product. The least level of cost that the company can charge will be its finished goods recorded value which is the price at which the company breakevens.
Hence the additional sales would be $153,576,000 which is the carrying worth of inventory.
The Absolute Zero Co. just issued a dividend of $2.70 per share on its common stock. The company is expected to maintain a constant 5.6 percent growth rate in its dividends indefinitely. If the stock sells for $54 a share, what is the company's cost of equity?
Answer:
10.88%
Explanation:
According to the given situation, the computation of the company's cost of equity is shown below:-
Stock price = (Current dividend × (1 + Growth rate)) ÷ (Cost of equity - Growth rate)
$54 = ($2.70 × (1 + 0.056)) ÷ (Cost of equity - 0.056)
Cost of equity = $2.8512 ÷ $54 + 0.056
= 10.88%
Therefore for computing the cost of equity we simply applied the above formula.
Supply Chain Integration Supply chain integration is a major contributing factor to organizational success. The goal of supply chain integration is alignment within the supply chain. As a business leader, how can you achieve greater supply chain integration with suppliers and customers
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
The integration of the supply chain comes from the use of the total quality management tool that will make the supply chain effective as a whole, generating significant improvements at each stage of the chain, with the help of technologies that streamline operations. Integrating the supply chain means organizing the steps so that there is a reduction in costs, time, waste and continuous optimization of the processes as a whole, making the product reach the final consumer correctly meeting their expectations and needs.
on its advertisement, a company claims that it has funds in its possession that are in fact not available for payment of losses or claims. the company is guilty of
Answer:
Misrepresentation.
Explanation:
In this scenario, on its advertisement, a company claims that it has funds in its possession that are in fact not available for payment of losses or claims. The company is guilty of misrepresentation.
Misrepresentation can be defined as an untrue or misleading statement of fact made by a party to an individual or group of people to deceitfully lure or induce them to go into a contract. A company stating in its advert that it has funds in its possession but in the true sense or actual fact do not have the funds for payment of losses or claims; such a company is engaging in a fraudulent act and is liable to prosecution in any court of competent jurisdiction.
Eccles Inc. Eccles Inc., a zero growth firm, has an expected EBIT of $100,000 and a corporate tax rate of 30%. Eccles uses $500,000 of 12.0% debt, and the cost of equity to an unlevered firm in the same risk class is 16.0%. Refer to the data for Eccles Inc. What is the firm's cost of equity according to MM with corporate taxes? a. 25.9% b. 32.0% c. 28.8% d. 21.0% e. 23.3%
Answer:
b) 32%
Explanation:
Formula for calculating cost of equity is given as ;
r levered = r levered + ( debt / equity × ( r unlevered - cost of debt) × ( 1 - tax)
r unlevered is the cost of an unlevered equity = 16.0%
Debt = $500,000
Cost of debt = 12%
Equity = unknown
Firstly, we need to calculate the value of the firm and the formula is denoted by;
EBIT ( 1 - tax ) / Unlevered cost of equity + ( debt × tax )
= $100,000 ( 1 - 30% ) / 16% + ( $500,000 × 30% )
= $100,000 ( 0.7 ) /0.16 + $30,000
= $437,500 + $150,000
= $587,500
r levered = 16% + ( $500,000 / ( $587,500 - $500,000 ) × ( 16% - 12% ) × ( 1 - 30%)
= 0.16 + ( $500,000 / 87,500 ) × 0.04 × ( 0.7 )
= 0.16 + 5.71 × 0.04 × 0.7
= 32%
A manager is attempting to assess the probability of a recession ending in the next six months and its impact on expected profitability. The manager believes there is a 75 percent chance the recession will end in six months and profits will return to $400 million. However, there is a 25 percent chance the recession will not end in six months, resulting in a $5 million loss. The expected profits over the next six months are:
Answer:
Expected profit = $298.75 million
Explanation:
To calculate the expected return or expected profits, we will simply multiply the probability of each event by the return expected in that event and take a sum the answers. Thus, the expected profit can be calculated as follows,
Expected profit = Probability of recession ending * Profit if recession ends + Probability of recession not ending * profit or loss if recession does not end
Expected profit = 0.75 * 400 + 0.25 * -5
Expected profit = $298.75 million
A job has an observed cycle time of four minutes, a performance rating of 80 percent, and an allowance that is 20 percent of job time. Normal time for the job in minutes is
Answer:
1600 time minutes
Explanation:
80×20=1600
You own a portfolio that has a total value of $145,000 and a beta of 1.31. You have another $58,000 to invest and you would like the beta of your portfolio to decrease to 1.19. What does the beta of the new investment have to be in order to accomplish this
Answer: 0.89
Explanation:
The total portfolio beta is a weighted average of the constituent security betas.
145,000 + 58,000 = $203,000
The total portfolio beta of 203,000 should have a beta of 1.19.
Proportion of New investment = 58,000/203,000
= 28.57%
Proportion of old portfolio = 145,000/203,000
= 71.43%
(0.7143 * 1.31) + (0.2857 * x) = 1.19
0.9357 + 0.2857x = 1.19
0.2857x = 0.2543
x= 0.89
To determine if a person is "in the business" of giving investment advice under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, which of the following are considered?
I That the individual regularly gives advice on securities.
II That more than 50% of the individual's earnings are derived from making investment recommendations.
III That the individual receives compensation for giving advice on securities.
A. I only.
B. I and III only.
C. II and III only.
D. I, II, III.
Answer:
Correct Answer:
B. I and III only.
Explanation:
Someone in business of giving business advise is known as an investment adviser.
An investment adviser is a person or firm that is engaged in the business of providing investment advice to others or issuing reports or analyses regarding securities, for compensation. Based on the definition above, the best option for the question is Option B.
On July 1, Year 1, Yellow Rose Corp. paid $25,000 cash for a machine and paid an additional 8% sales tax. On the same date, an electrician was paid $1,000 to install custom switches to enhance the functionality of the machine. Yellow Rose estimates a five-year useful life, uses straight-line depreciation, and expects a $2,000 salvage value. The machine was placed in service on October 1, Year 1. Yellow Rose has a calendar year-end.On December 31, Year 2, the machine was sold for $14,000 cash. Depreciation expense for Year 2 was properly recorded.Use the data above to prepare each of the journal entries for Yellow Rose specified below.1. Prepare the journal entry to record the cost of the machine.2. Prepare the journal entry to record the Year 1 depreciation for the machine.3. Prepare the journal entry to record the sale of the machine.
Answer:
Journal entries are given below
Explanation:
July 1, Year 1 (Yellow Rose Corp. purchased a machine)
DEBIT CREDIT
Machine $28,000
Cash $28,000
Working
Cost of machine = Purchase price + Sales tax + Installation
Cost of machine = $25,000 + $2,000 + $1,000
Cost of machine = $28,000
Depreciation for year 1 (October to December)
DEBIT CREDIT
Depreciation Expenses $1,300
Accumulated Depreciation $1,300
Working
Annual Depreciation expense = (Cost - salvage value) / useful life
Annual Depreciation expense = (28000 - 2000) / 5 = $5,200
Depreciation for 3 months
Depreciation = $5,200 x 3/12
Depreciation = $1300
Sale of the machine
DEBIT CREDIT
Cash $14,000
Loss on Sale $7,500
Accumulated Depreciation $6,500
Machinery $28,000
Workng
Gain/Loss on sale = Sale proceed - carrying value
Gain/Loss on sale = 14,000 - 21,500
Loss on sale = $7,500
Carrying value = Cost - Accumulated depreciation
Carrying value = 28,000 - 6500 = 21500
Accumulated depreciation = $1,300 + $5,200 = $6,500
Angie Pereira and Ferro Schwartz are employees of Free Star, Inc. In February 2019. Angie's gross pay was $6000, and Ferro's gross pay was $7400. All earnings are subject to FICA-OASDI Tax of 6.296 and FICA--Medicare Tax of 1.4596. Which of the following would be included in the entry to record the salaries expense for February?
A. a credit to Salaries Expense for 5830.80
B. a credit to FICA-OASDI Taxes Payable for $830.80
C. a debit to FICA-Medicare Taxes Payable for $830.80
D. a debit to Salaries Payable to employees for $830.80
Answer:
B. a credit to FICA-OASDI Taxes Payable for $830.80
Explanation:
Free Star, Inc. In February 2019.
Angie's gross pay was $6000,
Ferro's gross pay was $7400
Total gross pay $ 13400
FICA-OASDI Tax 6.296 %
$ 13400 * 6.2% = $ 830.80
The recording of the journal entry would require a debit to FICA tax and credit to FICA tax payable .
The FICa tax is 6.2 % which equals to $ 830.80 of the two gross pays.
All the other three options are incorrect.
A firm has a debt-to-equity of 0.69 and a market-to-book ratio of 3.0. What is the ratio of the book value of debt to the market value of equity?
Answer:
0.23
Explanation:
Debt to Equity Ratio = Total debt/ Total common equity
Market to book Ratio = Market price per share / Book value per share
Book debt to Market equity Ratio = Debt to Equity Ratio / Market to book Ratio
Book debt to Market equity Ratio = 0.69 / 3
Book debt to Market equity Ratio = 0.23
Therefore, the ratio is 0.23
2. The world has now become a “global village” in many respects. a) Explain any 5 factors working to make the world “a global village” for businesses. b) Discuss 4 major reasons why businesses go global.
Answer:
the watch has been totally fed tractors working to make a words a Glover villa for measures reserve between two globin respect as a global wind I have been by practice and a business discuss and white business as a work of the word for
What transportation mode has very high initial investment costs but gives a very low cost per mile for products that are highly specialized and require no packaging?
Complete Question:
What transportation mode has very high initial investment costs but gives a very low cost per mile for products that are highly specialized and require no packaging?
Group of answer choices.
A. Highway
B. Rail
C. Water
D. Pipeline
E. Air
Answer:
D. Pipeline.
Explanation:
Pipeline transportation can be defined as the long-distance transportation of consumer fluid products such as liquefied natural gases or crude oil, through a system of interconnected pipes.
As a result of the long distance being covered, pipeline transportation mode has very high initial investment costs because it requires excavation of the soil to enable the laying of pipes running into several miles.
However, the advantage of the pipeline transportation mode is that it gives a very low cost per mile for products that are highly specialized and require no packaging.
Terrance needs to comminicate with managers in several different locations regarding a sensitive complex topic. Therefore he should choose the communication medium highest in information richness which would be a:______
a. Voice mail message.
b. Group email.
c. Videoconference.
d. Recorded presentation.
According to the CAPM, what is the market risk premium given an expected return on a security of 15.8%, a stock beta of 1.1, and a risk-free interest rate of 7%? Multiple Choice 7.70% 6.05% 7.00% 8.00%
Answer:
The risk premium on market is 8%
Explanation:
The CAPM or Capital Asset Pricing Model is used to calculate the required rate of return on a stock which is the minimum return that is expected or required by the investors to invest in a stock based on its systematic risk as measured by the beta of the stock.
The formula to calculate r under the CAPM is,
r = rRF + Beta * rpM
Where,
rRF is the risk free raterpM is the risk premium on marketTo calculate the risk premium on market, we will input the available values for r, rRF and beta in the equation above.
0.158 = 0.07 + 1.1 * rpM
0.158 - 0.07 = 1.1 * rpM
0.088 / 1.1 = rpM
rpM = 0.08 or 8%
So, the risk premium on market is 8%
A customer buys a variable annuity and elects a payout option of Life Income with a 20 year period certain. This means that payments will continue for:
Answer:
the annuitant's life, but if he dies before 20 years elapse, payments continue to his heir(s)
Explanation:
An annuity life payment is a financial option that continues until the annuitant dies. a lump sum payment is made by this annuitant which he uses in securing a payout option of Life Income with a 20 year period certain . This annuity would continues for as long as the customer or annuitant is alive, but if he dies before that certain period, Someone else, that is a beneficiary or heir would be entitled to the payment until that period of 20 years elapses.
Assume that the government is currently balancing the national budget so that outlays equal tax revenue. Then the economy slips into recession, and the government decides to increase government spending by $50 billion. The government must pay for this by borrowing; it must sell $50 billion worth of Treasury bonds. As a result: Group of answer choices
Answer: b. be in deficit by at least $50 billion.
Explanation:
The Government budget had been balanced but it will now have to spend $50 billion more than it is making. This will mean that Government expenditure will rise by $50 billion over the tax revenue which will lead to a deficit of the same amount.
These are bonds however meaning that the Government would have to pay interest on the $50 billion. This will push the deficit owed to over $50 billion meaning that the Government would be in deficit of at least $50 billion.
A cash equivalent is: Multiple Choice Another name for cash. Close to its maturity date but its market value may still be affected by interest rate changes.
Complete Question:
A cash equivalent is:
Group of answer choices
a) Generally is within 12 months of its maturity date.
b) Another name for cash.
c) An investment readily convertible to a known amount of cash.
d) Is not considered highly liquid.
e) Close to its maturity date but its market value may still be affected by interest rate
changes
Answer:
c) An investment readily convertible to a known amount of cash.
Explanation:
In Financial accounting, cash equivalents can be defined as any short term and highly liquid investments which can be easily converted or transformed to a known and standard amounts of cash and as such are subjective to little or no risk of changes in value.
This ultimately implies that, a cash equivalent is an investment readily convertible to a known amount of cash.
Under the statements of cash flow, cash equivalents can be classified broadly into three (3) categories and these are;
1. Operating activities.
2. Financing activities.
3. Investing activities.
Answer:
money
Explanation:
A coworker of Connor's recommends that she maximize the shelf space devoted to those drinks with the highest contribution margin per case. Do you agree with this recommendation? Explain briefly.
Answer:
Yes
Explanation:
Ultimately I agree with the recommendation that has been given by Connor's coworker. By maximizing the shelf space specifically devoted to these drinks it will cause two things to happen. First, customers will mostly notice those drinks which will entice them to buy those drinks instead of the ones they cannot see. The second is that since customers are buying more of these drinks, the increase in sales will also increase profits, but since these items contribution margins are significantly higher than the others, it will cause profits to drastically increase.
Company X's current assets increased by $40 million from 2007 to 2008, while the company's current liabilities increased by $25 million over the same period. The cash impact of the change in working capital was:
a. A decrease of $15 million
b. An increase of $15 million
c. An increase of $40 million
d. An increase of $25 million
Answer:
b. An increase of $15 million
Explanation:
The computation of the cash impact of the change in working capital is shown below:
As we know that
Working capital = Current assets - current liabilities
So, the change in working capital is
= Increase in current assets - increased in current liabilities
= $40 million - $25 million
= $15 million
Hence, the b option is correct
Your investment has a 20% chance of earning a 30% rate of return, a 50% chance of earning a 10% rate of return, and a 30% chance of losing 6%. What is your expected return on this investment
Answer:
9.2%
Explanation:
expected return of the investment = potential return x chance of each return happening
Expected return of the investment:
20% chance of occurring x 30% potential return = 0.2 x 30% = 6%50% chance of occurring x 10% potential return = 0.5 x 10% = 5%30% chance of occurring x -6% potential return = 0.3 x -6% = -1.8%total expected return = 9.2%