A nursing professor is getting ready to teach a class about the various kinds of white blood cells. The granulocytes that the instructor will most likely use are basophils, neutrophils, and eosinophils. The correct answer is option(d).
White blood cells are unspecified in the party's invulnerable method. They help the body fight contamination and added ailments. Types of cells that eat bacteria and fungi are granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils), monocytes, and lymphocytes (T containers and B containers).
With a depressed white blood cell count and, specifically, a reduced level of neutrophils, you're at taller risk of evolving and contamination. Eosinophils: Identify and devastate parasites, and malignancy containers and assists basophils accompanying your hypersensitive answer. Basophils: Produces a hypersensitive answer like coughing, taking by force and without permission, or a diluted nose. Monocytes: Defend against contamination by cleansing up broken containers.
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The complete question is:
A nursing instructor is preparing a class to discuss the different types of white blood cells. what would the instructor most likely include as granulocytes? select all that apply.
a) Basophils,
b) Neutrophils,
c) Eosinophils
d) All the above
vincent recently went to work for a hospital system. he is reading about various regulations that apply to his new industry. what law applies specifically to health records?
Law applies specifically to health records that Vincent is reading about, Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).
While all of the laws listed may impact a hospital, only HIPAA applies specifically to health records.
HIPAA mandates the implementation of administrative, physical, and technical safeguards for the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of electronic protected health information (ePHI) as well as for the protection of physical PHI by covered entities, such as healthcare providers and health plans. In order to comply with the law, covered companies must also develop policies and processes and educate their staff about safety precautions.
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The above question is incomplete. The complete question is given below-
Vincent recently went to work for a hospital system. He is reading about various regulations that apply to his new industry. What law applies specifically to health records?
A. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
B. Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) Act
C. Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)
D. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)
what is sudden cardiac dysfunction and arteriosclerotic cardiovascular disease?
It is brought on by a buildup of plaque in the artery's inner lining. Deposits of fatty materials, cholesterol, cellular waste products, calcium, and fibrin make up plaque. As it accumulates in the arteries, the arterial walls stiffen and thicken.
Arteriosclerosis: What Is It?A form of vascular illness called arteriosclerosis occurs when the arteries, which carry oxygen away from the heart, are harmed by things like excessive cholesterol, high blood pressure, diabetes, and specific genetic effects.
What are atherosclerosis' three main causes?The arterial walls may get damaged over time by high blood pressure, causing plaque to accumulate.
Diabetes: High blood sugar levels can harm the arteries' inner layers and lead to the formation of plaque.
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Which one of the following is highly suspicious for non-accidental trauma in a pediatric patient?
Sternal fractures are highly suspicious for non-accidental trauma in a pediatric patient.
60% to 90% of the time, collisions with moving vehicles are the cause of sternal fractures. The majority of injuries happen in older cars without airbag deployment, and they often result from the chest hitting the steering wheel. Women are somewhat more than men to sustain fractures.
A child who has been intentionally injured suffers from non-accidental trauma (NAT), often known as child abuse. Skin and soft tissue injuries are common, but around one-third of NATs result in fractures. From health maintenance to the evaluation and management of severe and long-term disorders, paediatric care covers a wide range of medical services.
THE QUESTION IS INCOMPLETE AND NOT AVAILABLE ON INTERNET, I AM ANSWERING THE QUESTION IN GENERAL
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assessment of a client who is bedridden due to hip fracture reveals atrophy of the leg muscles due to immobility. the nurse demonstrates understanding of muscle atrophy by identifying what as a characteristic?
By detecting, a reduction in muscle cell size displays comprehension of muscular atrophy.
Which kind of mobility aid is best for a client who struggles with balance?For customers with poor balance, canes with three (tripod) or four (quad) prongs or legs to give a wide base of support are advised.
How can a nurse determine a client's level of mobility and immobility?Mobility can be evaluated through direct observation of the client's motions and mobility as well as through the use of various standardized tests. For example, the Timed Get Up and Go Test measures the client's ability to get up from a chair, walk, and then get back in the chair and sit.
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dr. render is a neuropsychologist who works with postsurgical patients who have had surgery to sever the corpus callosum (to reduce severe seizures). when she presents the word sal-ted to one patient, sal transmits to his left visual field and ted to his right visual field. she then asks him to tell her what he saw. what does this patient say?
This patient spoke to Dr. Render, a neuropsychologist who treats postoperative patients who have undergone corpus callosum severance surgery.
What role does the corpus callosum play?
The corpus callosum, a substantial bundle of nerve cells that connects your brain's two hemispheres, enables communication and signal transmission between the two halves.
What occurs if the corpus callosum is hurt?
Injuries to the corpus callosum cause "corpus callosum syndrome," which includes left purposeful movement apraxia, agraphia, dyslexia, alien hands syndrome, reduced left recognition, & left auditory deafness. This rare illness affects patients with brain tumours.
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a patient undergoing inhaled ipratropium therapy visits the clinic for a follow-up visit. which report would the nurse anticipate from the patient?
The nurse anticipates Dry mouth from the patient report.
Ipratropium bromide, also known as Atrovent, is an anticholinergic medicine that opens up the medium and large airways in the lungs. It's used to alleviate the symptoms of COPD and asthma. It is administered through inhaler or nebulizer. The activity usually begins within 15 to 30 minutes and lasts three to five hours.
Common adverse effects including dry mouth, coughing, and airway irritation. Urinary retention, increasing airway spasms, and a severe allergic response are all possible adverse effects. It appears to be safe throughout pregnancy and lactation. Ipratropium is a short-acting muscarinic antagonist that relaxes smooth muscles.
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which of the following assessments would be the most useful in determining the possible cause of a patient's altered mental status?
Blood glucose level is the best tool for figuring out what might be causing a patient's changed mental condition. Hence option 'c' is correct.
What is the amount of blood sugar?The primary sugar in your blood is called blood sugar, also referred to as glucose. It comes from the food you eat and is the main source of energy used by your body. Your blood supplies glucose to each of the cells within your body, which then uses it as fuel. Diabetes is a disorder when your blood sugar levels are too high.
How could I quickly reduce my blood glucose levels?Taking fast-acting insulin is the fastest method for lowering your blood sugar levels. Exercise is another quick, efficient method. In some circumstances, you ought to visit a hospital. High blood sugar amounts are referred to as hyperglycemia or high blood glucose.
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The complete question is -
Which of the following assessments would be the MOST useful in determining the possible cause of a patient's altered mental status?
A) Respiratory rate
B) Blood pressure
C) Blood glucose level
D) Capillary refill time
a big difference in the treatment of childhood cancer as opposed to adult cancer is that chemotherapy is the most widely used treatment therapy for childhood cancer. what is the reason for this?
Treatment for kid cancer varies greatly from that for adult cancer. Adult cancers do not differ from cancers in children. the nature of the cancer.
A therapy is what?Medical care refers to the management and attention given to a patient in order to treat a condition. All forms of medical care that aren't specifically mentioned below are included. using prescription drugs or a non-prescription drug that has been diluted to a prescription level. Humane treatment of inmates is required by law. It's a challenging problem that needs careful handling. The way this significant problem is handled in the book is poor.
How do drugs work?Any product, excluding food, that is employed to cure, prevent, or relieve the symptoms of an illness or other abnormal state. Drugs may also alter how the brains and other organs function.
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the physician has ordered a mu opioid analgesic for a patient with pain. what drug does the nurse anticipate administering?
A mu opioid analgesic has been prescribed by the doctor for a pain sufferer. The nurse intends to provide the fentanyl drug.
Opioid analgesics are classified into two types: (1) mu agonist opioids (commonly known as morphine-like medicines) & (2) agonist-antagonist opioids. Morphine, hydromorphone, hydrocodone, fentanyl, oxycodone, & methadone are among the mu agonist opioids, which are the bigger of the two categories. Buprenorphine (Buprenex, Butrans), nalbuphine (Nubain), as well as butorphanol are examples of agonist-antagonist opioids (Stadol).
Mu receptors are a kind of receptor that neuromodulates a variety of physiological activities, including nociception, stress, temperature, breathing, endocrine activity, gastrointestinal activity, memories, mood, & motivation. Since these receptors engage opioids, these are also known as mu-opioid receptors (MORs).
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according to research, effects of psychoactive drugs on a user are influenced by blank .multiple choice question.the antecedent factors in the user's immediate social grouphis or her expectations of the effects they will producethe intelligence quotient of the userhis or her personality traits
According to research, effects of psychoactive drugs on a user are influenced by his or her expectations of the effects they will produce.
A psychoactive drug, also known as a psychopharmaceutical, psychoactive agent, or psychotropic medication, is a chemical compound that alters nervous system functioning, resulting in changes in perception, emotion, consciousness, cognition, or behaviour. Psychoactive chemicals frequently cause changes in consciousness and mood that the user may deem gratifying and pleasurable (euphoria or a sensation of relaxation) or objectively observable or measured (e.g. increased alertness).
These chemicals may be used for medicinal, recreational, or spiritual objectives, such as altering consciousness (as with entheogens for ceremonial, spiritual, or shamanic purposes), or for study. Because of their therapeutic benefits, doctors and other healthcare practitioners may prescribe certain types of psychoactive medications.
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which war helped to expand the role of the nurse practitioner to include advanced emergency procedures??
The Vietnam War helped to expand the role of the nurse practitioner to include advanced emergency procedures.
The war has been given several names. The term "Vietnam War" is the most often used in English. It has also been termed the "Second Indochina War" and the "Vietnam war".
The primary military organizations involved in the war were the United States Armed Forces and the Army of the Republic of Vietnam, which were pitted against the People's Army of Vietnam (PAVN) (commonly known as the North Vietnamese Army, or NVA, in English-language sources) and the National Front for the Liberation of South Vietnam (NLF), a South Vietnamese communist guerrilla force.
Nurses cared for the ill and injured in twelve-hour shifts six days a week. They had to deal with large casualties and tropical diseases. Nurses were also called upon to care for both Vietnamese citizens and enemy soldiers, which caused many people to experience confused sentiments of guilt and terror.
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which of the following is an example of a smart goal? group of answer choices stop drinking alcohol. reduce my weekend alcohol consumption from 4 or more drinks per night to no more than 3 drinks per night. drink less alcohol. none of these.
Depending on how severe the alcohol addiction was, the detoxification procedure could take a while. It will take longer and detox will be advised for more serious addiction problems.
How Long Does Alcohol Detox Las?The length of time that is optimal for you will be established after you have a patient examination, which can take four days to as much as ten days.The symptoms and adverse effects of withdrawal during the detox process might be reduced with the aid of substitute medications. The substance consumed, the frequency of usage, the amount of the substance, as well as other characteristics including genetics, heredity, body chemistry, weight, and metabolic rate, are some of the numerous elements that affect how long medical detox takes.The most secure and efficient method of stopping a drug is through medical detox. To guarantee the effectiveness of detox, patients are watched 24 hours a day to make sure they are receiving the right dosage, are in good mental and physical health, and are receiving the right amount of treatment.Going cold turkey is exceedingly harmful and might even be fatal, hence it is strongly urged that people avoid doing so. Alcohol is especially risky to stop using suddenly because the body will start to suffer unpleasant withdrawal symptoms just a few hours after the last drink.To Learn more About detox Refer To:
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a furiously angry and aggressive client was put in restraints and was told that the restraints would be removed once the client regained control. the nurse appropriately removes the restraints when which action occurs?
The safety of the employees and the clients is of utmost importance. In order to ensure that the customer is safe and injured, they must be closely and frequently monitored, say every 15 minutes.
What do you consider to be injury?An injury results in bodily harm. It is a general term for injuries sustained in accidents, collisions, falls, and other situations.
What other word would you use to describe injury?Sometimes the words "injury" and "grief," "justice," and "wrong" are synonymous. While all of these phrases relate to "a act that results in unjust pain," an injury in the context of law only refers to a mistake for which a person may make a claim to receive compensation.
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which type of therapeutic communication is most important for the nurse to use when caring for a patient with major depression?
Active listening is the type of therapeutic communication is most important for the nurse to use when caring for a patient with major depression.
Nurses might help individuals to speak further by providing both verbal and nonverbal signals such pointing and responding, "I see." Active listening requires being engaged with clients all across the discussion, demonstrating an attention in what they have to say, and letting them know you are paying and comprehending.
There are many types of depression and most common is the major depression. In this condition, one gets tired in all activities, including those that are typically enjoyable. This form of depression has symptoms such as sleep problems, fluctuations in food or weight, fatigue, and a sense of worthlessness.
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Which of the following would be most important for the nurse in the evaluation phase of the nursing process?a. Patient satisfaction with drug therapyb. Evidence of therapeutic drug effectsc. Development of minor adverse drug effectsd. The possibility of noncompliance with drug therapy
Patient satisfaction with drug therapy is the nursing process's most critical factor for the nurse to consider.
What is the treatment satisfaction with medicine questionnaire (Satmed-Q)?
The conventional treatment guidelines were followed to identify DTPs, and Micromedex® was employed as a medication interaction checker. The DTPs were categorised using the Cipolle DTPs categorization, and treatment satisfaction was evaluated using the SATMED-Q Questionnaire. Clinical pharmacy services such counselling, medication therapy monitoring, patient support programmes, and pharmaceutical care are generally well-liked by patients. The simplicity of information, confidence in pharmacist competency, and quality of clinical pharmacy services are the main determining criteria.The Satisfaction with Information about Medicines Scale (SIMS), a tool that has been validated for oncology as well as in other therapeutic disciplines, was used to measure the satisfaction with information.To learn more about Drug therapy refer to:
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Health communication has often relied on which of the following to measure the impact of a health communication intervention?
Upsteam interventions
Leading health indicators
Hierarchy of effects
Downstream interventions
Make an appointment right away to get the caring treatment you need. Our New York health facility offers individualized primary care from attentive medical professionals physical fitness
What does being physically fit mean?
The three pillars of physical fitness: a healthy diet, moderate-intense exercise, and adequate rest. Fitness was once understood to be the ability to complete the day's activities without becoming overly exhausted before the industrial revolution.
What does being fit entail?
Although the term "fitness" is general and can imply different things to different people, it relates to your personal optimum health and general well-being. Physical, emotional, and mental health are all components of being fit. Your health in every respect is defined by it. Fitness starts with healthy nutrition and exercise.
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the nurse is caring for a client with a stage iv leg ulcer. the nurse is closely monitoring the client for sepsis. what would indicate that sepsis has occurred and that the health care provider should be notified immediately?
Restlessness, agitation, and anxiety are the first symptoms of hypoxia, and the nurse is taking care of a patient who has a stage IV leg ulcer. Microcirculation is the cause of pallid and cold skin.
Which of the these laboratory findings would lead the nurse to believe that the participant's cells are utilizing anaerobic metabolism?Which of the following laboratory findings shows that perhaps the patient's cells use anaerobic metabolism? The response is C. Anaerobic metabolism occurs in a patient who is shock because the loss of vascular permeability prevents the cells from using oxygen for energy.
When caring for a patient who is in septic shock, what nursing tasks should be prioritized?It is essential to treat septic shock with a multidisciplinary team that includes Critical doctors. To sustain end-organ perfusion, correct detection and resuscitation are essential. The goal is to maintain appropriate perfusion pressure; the type of fluid used for cpr has little impact on outcomes.
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which action would the nurse take to reduce the risk of infection among patients and staff when administering an enema to an older adult patient with dementia?
The nurse would perform hand hygiene before donning gloves to reduce the risk of infection among patients and staff when administering an enema to an older adult patient with dementia.
Hand hygiene is a method of hand washing that significantly lowers the likelihood of pathogens (dangerous germs) on the hands. One of the most important preventative measures for lowering the risk of infection transmission among patients and healthcare workers is hand cleanliness.
The use of alcohol-based hand sanitizers and hand washing with soap and water are examples of hand hygiene practices. Before putting on sterile surgeon's gloves for a surgical operation, perform a surgical hand scrub.
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which of the following is the leading nutrition-related cause of death in the united states? a. pneumonia b. cancer c. diabetes d. heart disease
Answer:
Heart disease
Explanation:
the nurse is assessing a client's tonsils and note that they touch the uvula. what documentation is correct?
The tonsils that touch the uvula are documented as (3) grade 3 tonsils.
Tonsils are the lymph nodes of the body located at the back of the mouth and at the top of the throat. These appear as fleshy pads that prevent the entry of germs from the mouth or nose. The inflammation of tonsils is termed as tonsillitis. The tonsils are graded on a scale of 0-4 bases on their size.
Uvula is the small fleshy hanging that appears at the back of the palate. It is a cone like projection emerging out from the middle portion of the edge of the palate. Its function is to prevent the entry of food and drinks up into the nose while eating.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
The nurse is assessing a client's tonsils and note that they touch the uvula. What documentation is correct?
They are grade 1 tonsils.They are grade 2 tonsils.They are grade 3 tonsils.They are grade 0 tonsils.To know more about tonsils, here
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A medical term formed from the first letters of a word in a set phrase that can be spoken as a wholeword and usually contains a vowel isa) an acronym.b) from modern language.c) an eponym.d) composed of word parts.
A medical term formed from the first letters of a word in a set phrase that can be spoken as a wholeword and usually contains a vowel is a acronym.
When the first letters of words are taken together, an acronym is created. And these new words created from the letters take on a new name and enter common usage.
It differs from an abbreviation in that an acronym does not pronounce each individual letter, but an abbreviation does. An acronym is a group of letters that together spell out a new term.
The acronym make the use of complicated and vary long words use easier. Moreover, they are easy to remember and can be easily incorporated into daily speech.
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the nurse develops a goal that makes a client feel as if the client is engaging in a competition. which type of motivation is the nurse using in this situation?
The nurse will do the power motivation to make the clients engage in the competition.
A unit manager is a first-level manager in nursing. Motivation is the level of willingness of a leader to strive to achieve and maintain organizational goals. Motivation is an important part of leadership because people need to understand each other to be effective leaders. Client/Patient-provider communication, use of motivational interviewing to open questioning, Affirmations, or feedback at different stages of your wellness journey. Instead of dictating motivational needs, listen reflectively and help the patient find answers.
A nurse's performance based on individual motivation determines the quality of care. Therefore, it is important that caregivers are motivated to provide quality care.
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which approach would the nursing staff take to fulfill the nutritional needs of a client experiencing periods of extreme mania and hyperactivity?
In case of overactivity, use a firm, consistent and caring approach. It is necessary to be assertive and consistent with the client to control the behavior.
which approach would the nursing staff take to fulfill the nutritional needs?
The nursing interventions for anxiety disorders are: Stay calm and be nonthreatening. Maintain a calm, nonthreatening manner while working with client; anxiety is contagious and may be transferred from staff to client or vice versa. Assure client of safety.The priority action for a client who is experiencing an acute manic episode is to meet the client's physiological need for food and water. Therefore, the priority intervention is to offer the client high-calorie fluids frequently to prevent calorie deprivation and dehydration.A mental health nurse plays a key role in evaluating the mental health needs of the patients. A mental health nurse also encourages the patient to express feelings and help them in handling their anger and frustration. The nurse also helps in developing the nursing care plan for mental health patients.To learn more about nursing refers to:
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a nurse performs an initial examination of a client brought to the emergency department after sustaining a head injury in an automobile accident. which characteristic of discharge from the ears should alert the nurse that the client has a cerebrospinal fluid leak?
A nurse performs an initial examination of a client who was taken to the emergency room after suffering a head injury in a car accident. Watery or bloody discharge from the ear indicates the patient is leaking CSF Caregivers should be warned that
What is cerebrospinal fluid and its functions?Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is made from the tissue that lines the ventricles (cavities) of the brain. Flows in and around the brain and spinal cord to protect against damage and provide nourishment. CSF supports the brain by providing protection, nutrition, and waste disposal. CSF provides hydrodynamic protection of the neural axis through two mechanisms. First, CSF acts as a shock absorber, cushioning the brain against the skull.
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which statement by a parent indicates the need for further teaching about nutrition in preschoolers?
A parent's comment that "new meals are presented along with ones she enjoys" highlights the need for pre-schoolers to get additional nutrition education.
What stage of physical development should a child between the ages of 8 and 20 months be at?Walks with one or both hands being held by an adult as they cruise around furniture by lifting one foot and stepping sideways. first few steps are independently taken. passes toys back and forth between hands.
What is the most effective method for instructing preschoolers about nourishing foods?Setting a good example by eating healthily yourself is the best method for you to teach youngsters about excellent nutrition and encourage healthy eating. Children will take after the adults they regularly interact with.
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a 13-year-old patient who recently begin menstruating tells the nurse that she has had irregular bleeding since her cycle began. what does the nurse tell the patient
The irregular bleeding experienced by the patient is due to anovulatory cycle or ovulatory dysfunction. It is a common phenomenon with a patient whose periods have just started. So he/she need not worry.
In early adolescence, irregular menstrual bleeding may be common due to anovulatory cycles. Abnormal uterine bleeding associated with ovulatory dysfunction (AUB-O) or anovulatory bleeding, is non-cyclic uterine bleeding characterized by irregular, prolonged, and often heavy menstruation. That happens because the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis is not yet mature at the beginning of the reproductive life. After an average of 20 cycles, ovulation occurs regularly. Hence, in the first 2 years of menarche, there can be irregular bleeding.
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according to sectioin iv diagnositic coding and reporting guideline for outpatient service how does the first listed diagnosis in the outpatient setting differ from the selection of the principal diagnosis
1. The phrase "first-listed diagnosis" is used in place of "primary diagnosis" in the outpatient context.
2. The ICD-10-CM coding standards, as well as the general and disease-specific rules, take precedence over the outpatient guidelines when selecting the first-listed diagnosis.
3. At the time of the initial encounter or visit, diagnoses are frequently not established. Before the diagnosis is verified, it can take two or more visits.
What is the diagnosis?The diagnosis is finding a disease, ailment, or injury based on its signs and symptoms To aid in the diagnosis, a physical examination, medical history, and testing such as blood tests, imaging tests, and biopsies may be employed. The ailment that was determined through research to be the main factor in the patient's admission to the hospital for treatment is known as the principal or primary diagnosis for example a patient might, for instance, show up in the emergency room dehydrated and be admitted for gastroenteritis. In this case, the main diagnosis is gastroenteritis. It is frequently described as the diagnostic that "purchased the bed" or the diagnosis that motivated the doctor to admit the patient. Which diagnostic-related group (DRG) code to give a patient depends heavily on the principal diagnosis. DRGs and other diagnostic codes, such as ICD-10, are essential for healthcare billing in addition to being used to electronically record a patient's medical history.
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A nurse is teaching a class about error-prone abbreviations in medication prescriptions. The nurse should include that which of the following prescriptions has acceptable abbreviations.
The nurse should include that Metoclopramide 10 mg IM Q6H PRN nausea prescriptions has acceptable abbreviations.
A prescription drug (also known as a prescription medication, prescription medicine, or prescription-only medication) is a pharmaceutical that may only be obtained with a medical prescription. Over-the-counter drugs, on the other hand, remain sold without a prescription. The reason for this disparity in substance management is the possible extent of misuse, which ranges from drug addiction to practicing medicine without a licence or enough education.
Different governments define what constitutes a prescribed medicine differently. A prescription drug is one that can only be given to a patient just on written order of a licenced health practitioner. Prescription medications include blood pressure drugs, cancer medications, and severe pain relievers.
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an automatic external defibrillator (aed) is available to treat a client who goes into cardiac arrest. the nurse uses this equipment to determine cardiac rhythm by doing which?
If a customer has cardiac arrest, an automated external defibrillator (AED) is available to treat them. By placing the adhesive patch electrodes on the client's skin and moving away, the nurse utilises this equipment to assess the client's heart rhythm, therefore option (A) is the right response.
A computerized medical equipment, an AED is an automated external defibrillator. It is battery-operated and has adhesive defibrillator pads that are placed on the chest to stimulate the heart's normal electrical current with an electrical current. The muscle must contract and pump blood through the heart in a regular, structured, and typical electrical rhythm. In cardiac arrest, there is either no electrical current, a fast rhythm that prevents the heart's pumping chambers from filling up completely (ventricular tachycardia), or an unorganized electrical rhythm or current that prevents the heart muscle from contracting and delivering blood to the body.
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The complete question is:
An automatic external defibrillator (AED) is available to treat a client who goes into cardiac arrest. The nurse uses this equipment to determine cardiac rhythm by doing which?
(A) Applying the adhesive patch electrodes to the skin and moving away from the client.
(B) Orders personnel away from the client, charges the machine, and depresses the discharge buttons
(C) Ask the client, "Are you choking?"
(D) Perform chest compressions.
(E) Open the client's airway.
Which type of stroke is associated with blockage?
The type of stroke which is associated with blockage is referred to as ischemic stroke.
What is Stroke?This is referred to as the damage to the brain from interruption of its blood supply and it is characterized by symptoms such as e trouble walking, speaking etc.
Ischemic stroke on the other hand occurs when blood clots or other particles block the blood vessels to the brain through the fatty deposits called plaque which are also known to cause blockages by building up in the blood vessels which acts as a barrier to blood flow and supply to other vital parts of the body thereby making it the correct choice.
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