a snowboarder travels 135 meters in 9 seconds how far will the snowboarder travel in 18 seconds

Answer:

The Area of a Segment is the area of a sector minus the triangular piece (shown in light blue here). There is a lengthy reason, but the result is a slight modification of the Sector formula: Area of Segment = θ − sin(θ) 2 × r2 (when θ is in radians) Area of Segment = ( θ × π 360 − sin(θ)2 ) × r2 (when θ is in degrees)

Answer:

D) CDG and GDE

Step-by-step explanation:

These angles add up to 180 degrees, making them supplementary angles

to subtract 7

then

To subtract 6

then

To subtract 5

then

To subtract 4

Evertime you subtract go down 1 number.

Answer:

a) 0.0523 = 5.23% probability that at least two of the four selected will turn to be no-shows.

b) 0 is the most likely value for X.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each traveler who made a reservation, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they show up, or they do not. The probability of a traveler showing up is independent of other travelers. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

No-show rate of 10%.

This means that [tex]p = 0.1[/tex]

Four travelers who have made hotel reservations in this study.

This means that [tex]n = 4[/tex]

a) What is the probability that at least two of the four selected will turn to be no-shows?

This is [tex]P(X \geq 2) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{4,2}.(0.1)^{2}.(0.9)^{2} = 0.0486[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 3) = C_{4,3}.(0.1)^{3}.(0.9)^{1} = 0.0036[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 4) = C_{4,4}.(0.1)^{4}.(0.9)^{0} = 0.0001[/tex]

[tex]P(X \geq 2) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) = 0.0486 + 0.0036 + 0.0001 = 0.0523[/tex]

0.0523 = 5.23% probability that at least two of the four selected will turn to be no-shows.

b) What is the most likely value for X?

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{4,0}.(0.1)^{0}.(0.9)^{4} = 0.6561[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{4,1}.(0.1)^{1}.(0.9)^{3} = 0.2916[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{4,2}.(0.1)^{2}.(0.9)^{2} = 0.0486[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 3) = C_{4,3}.(0.1)^{3}.(0.9)^{1} = 0.0036[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 4) = C_{4,4}.(0.1)^{4}.(0.9)^{0} = 0.0001[/tex]

X = 0 has the highest probability, which means that 0 is the most likely value for X.

Answer:

Part a is c and part b is d

Step-by-step explanation:

becauelss 3/8 wouldn't make 4 1/8. 3 would make 4 1/8

Let's assume the number as x

According to the question,

2/3x-6=22

2x-6=22×3

2x= 66-6

2x=60

x=60/2=30

Therefore, as x=30, The number is 30 itself.

Answer:

[tex](x - 1) {}^{2} + (y - 2) {}^{2} = 9[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The general circle equation is

[tex](x - h) {}^{2} + (y - k) {}^{2} = r {}^{2} [/tex]

where r is the radius.

Since we know all the information just plug it in the equation above.

[tex](x - 1) { }^{2} + (y - 2) {}^{2} = {3}^{2} [/tex]

Simplify 3 squared.

[tex](x - 1) {}^{2} + (y - 2) {}^{2} = 9[/tex]

Answer:

5 T-shirts = $54

10 T-shirts = $108

20 T-shirts = $216

Answer: The primary cause of low pH in precipitation over northeastern North America is sulphuric acid (H2SO4) from industrial and urban emissions of sulphur dioxide (SO2). Nitric acid (HNO3) generated from emissions of nitrogen oxides (NOx) is a significant contributing factor in this region.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

please give more information!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

CDBE

Step-by-step explanation:

If you add angle CD and BE together it would be CDBE

Answer: multiply and estimate

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the answer is : a

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

she spent 4 hours rowing

Step-by-step explanation:

the missing percent is 20, so she spent 20% of 20 hours rowing

this comes out to 4 hours

Answer:

99.

Step-by-step explanation:

A palindrome number is one that can be read in the same way both from the front and from the back. A clear example is the number 242, which starts and ends in the same way from the front or back.

Between 10 and 100, there are 9 palindromes, from 11 to 99. In turn, between 100 and 200, 200 and 300 and so on, each hundred has within it 10 palindromes (101, 111, 121, 131, 141 , 151, 161, 171, 181 and 191, for example).

Therefore, considering the 9 hundreds between 100 and 1000, there will be 90 palindromes, which added to the 9 between 10 and 100 give a total of 99 palindromes.

Answer: hope this helps . Check out the image I also have graph if u want

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

it's 2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

i have da proff

Answer:

Area = 64π

Area \: = \pi {r}^{2}Area=πr

2

64 \: \pi \: = \pi {r}^{2}64π=πr

2

{r}^{2} = \dfrac{64\pi}{\pi}r

2

=

π

64π

{r}^{2} = 64r

2

=64

r \: = \: \sqrt{64} = 8r=

64

=8

Radius = 8 units

Finding the Diameter -

Diameter = Radius x 2 = 8 x 2 = 16 .

\bold{Diameter \: is \: 16 \: units}Diameteris16units

Answer:

if that's a division sign then your answer is m=36

if that's multiplication then your answer is m=4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/6

it will

1/3 * 2/4

= 1/3 * 1/2

= 1/6

hope it will help

Answer:

1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3/5

Step-by-step explanation:

In the numbers 1 thru 10, there are 5 multiples of 2 (2, 4, 6, 8, 10) and 2 multiples of 5  (5, 10).  Since you cannot count 10 twice, there are 6 possibilities (2, 4, 5, 6, 8, 10)

So the probability of spinning a multiple of 2 or 5 is 6/10 = 3/5

Answer:2/10 probabilty for the multiple of 5 and a 5/10 or 50% chance that it will be a multiple of 2

Step-by-step explanation: 10 areas, there are 2 multiples of 5,( 5 and 10 )and there is a 2/10 chance of landing on landing 5 or 10 because there are 2 multiples of 5. There are also 5 multiples of 2, (2, 4, 6, 8, 10) 5/10 chance because there are 5 multiples out of 2

Answer:

x=(-∞,∞)

y=65/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2/3

I have made in above picture

hope it helps

For the solution [tex](3,\frac{1}{3})[/tex] of the given system of equations, the value of x - y is [tex]2\frac{2}{3}[/tex]

To determine the value of x - y, we will solve the two equations simultaneously

We have

7x + 3y = 8 ------ (1)

6x – 3y = 5 ----- (2)

Solving by the elimination method

Add equations (1) and (2) together

We get

[tex]7x + 6x +3y -3y = 8 + 5[/tex]

Then,

[tex]13x = 13[/tex]

Now, divide both sides by 13

[tex]\frac{13x}{13} = \frac{13}{13}[/tex]

∴ [tex]x = 1[/tex]

Now, substitute the value of x into equation (1)

[tex]7x + 3y = 8[/tex]

We get

[tex]7(1) + 3y = 8[/tex]

[tex]7 + 3y = 8[/tex]

[tex]3y = 8-7[/tex]

Then,

[tex]3y = 1[/tex]

Divide both sides by 3

[tex]\frac{3y}{3} =\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

∴ [tex]y = \frac{1}{3}[/tex]

The solution to the system of equations is [tex](3,\frac{1}{3})[/tex]

Now, for the value of x - y, we will input the values of x and y

That is,

[tex]x -y = 3 -\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

[tex]= 2\frac{2}{3}[/tex]

∴ [tex]x-y =2\frac{2}{3}[/tex]

Hence, the value of x - y is [tex]2\frac{2}{3}[/tex]

Learn more here: https://brainly.com/question/12787642

Answer:

[tex]\displaystyle h'(s) = 64s + 20[/tex]

General Formulas and Concepts:

Pre-Algebra

Order of Operations: BPEMDAS

Distributive Property

Algebra I

Calculus

Derivatives

Derivative Notation

Derivative of a constant is 0

Basic Power Rule:

Derivative Rule [Product Rule]:                                                                                  [tex]\displaystyle \frac{d}{dx} [f(x)g(x)]=f'(x)g(x) + g'(x)f(x)[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define

[tex]\displaystyle h(s) = (-8s - 9)(-4s + 2)[/tex]

Step 2: Differentiate

Topic: AP Calculus AB/BC (Calculus I/II)

Unit: Derivatives

Book: College Calculus 10e

Answer:

B) I

Step-by-step explanation:

H = -1

J = 1

-1 + 1 = 0

so I

Hope this helped! Have a nice day, and plz mark as brainliest if correct!!!

-Lil G

Answer: 24 Inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 4/5 17/20 9/10

Step-by-step explanation:

Find a common denominator

4/5-16/20

17/20-17/20

9/10-18/20