A string on the violin has a length of 24.20 cm and a mass of 0.0992 g. The fundamental frequency of the string is 659.3 Hz.

Required:
a. What is the speed of the wave on the string?
b. What is the tension in the string?

Answer:

Explanation:

Change in entropy is expressed as ΔS = ΔQ/T where;

ΔQ is the total heat change during conversion of ice to water.

T is the room temperature

First we need to calculate the total change in heat using the conversion formulae;

ΔQ = mL + mcΔθ (total heat energy absorbed during phase change)

m is the mass of ice/water = 900g = 0.9kg

L is the latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.33 x 10⁵J/kg

c is the specific heat capacity of water = 4200J/kgK

Δθ is the change in temperature of water = 10°C - 0C = 10°C = 283K

Substituting the given values into ΔQ;

ΔQ = 0.9(333000)+0.9(4200)(283)

ΔQ = 299700 + 1069740

ΔQ = 1,369,440 Joules

Since Change in entropy ΔS = ΔQ/T

ΔS =  1,369,440/30+273

ΔS = 1,369,440/303

ΔS = 4519.60 J/K

Hence, the change in entropy of the universe is 4519.60 J/K

Answer:effective

Explanation:

Answer:

E = 17.64 x 10⁶ N/C = 17.64 MN/C

Explanation:

The electric field is given by the following formula:

E = F/q

E= W/q

E = mg/q

where,

E = magnitude of electric field = ?

m = mass of plastic sphere = 5.4 g = 5.4 x 10⁻³ kg

g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²

= charge = 3 nC = 3 x 10⁻⁹ C

Therefore,

E = (5.4 x 10⁻³ kg)(9.8 m/s²)/(3 x 10⁻⁹ C)

E = 17.64 x 10⁶ N/C = 17.64 MN/C

Answer:

its supposed to be (a) 1W

Answer:

Explanation:

he moment of inertia for a rod that rotates about the axis perpendicular to the rod and passing through one end is:  m L²/ 3  where m is mass and L is length of rod

If the axis of rotation passes through the center of the rod, then the moment of inertia is:   m L² / 12

So for the former case , moment of inertia is higher that that in the later case .

In the former case , the axis is at one extreme end . Hence range of distance of any point on the rod from axis is from zero to L .

In the second case , as axis passes through middle point , this range of distance of any point on the rod from axis is from zero to L / 2 .

Since range of distance from axis is less , moment of inertia too will be less because

Moment of inertia = Σ m r² where r is distance of mass m from axis .

Answer:

a. The primary turns is 60 turns

b. The secondary voltage will be 360 volts.

Explanation:

Given data

secondary turns N2= 40 turns

primary turns N1= ?

primary voltage V1= 120 volts

secondary voltage V2= 8 volts

Applying the transformer formula which is

[tex]\frac{N1}{N2} =\frac{V1}{V2}[/tex]

we can solve for N1 by substituting into the equation above

[tex]\frac{N1}{40} =\frac{120}{8} \\\ N1= \frac{40*120}{8} \\\ N1= \frac{4800}{8} \\\ N1= 60[/tex]

the primary turns is 60 turns

If the primary voltage is V1 240 volts hence the secondary voltage V2 will be (to get the voltage of the secondary coil using emf substitute the values of the previously gotten N1 and N2 using V1 as 240 volts)

[tex]\frac{40}{60} =\frac{240}{V2}\\\\V2= \frac{60*240}{40} \\\\V2=\frac{ 14400}{40} \\\\V2= 360[/tex]

the secondary voltage will be 360 volts.

(a) In the primary coil, you have "60 turns".

(b) The emf across the secondary coil would be "360 volts".

According to the question,

Primary voltage, V₁ = 120 volts

Secondary voltage, V₂ = 8 volts

Secondary turns, N₂ = 40 turns

(a) By applying transformer formula,

→ [tex]\frac{N_1}{N_2} = \frac{V_1}{V_2}[/tex]

or,

   N₁ = [tex]\frac{N_2\times V_1}{V_2}[/tex]

By substituting the values,

        = [tex]\frac{40\times 120}{8}[/tex]

        = [tex]\frac{4800}{8}[/tex]

        = 60

(2) Again by using the above formula,

→ V₂ = [tex]\frac{60\times 240}{40}[/tex]

       = [tex]\frac{14400}{40}[/tex]

       = 360 volts.

Thus the above approach is correct.  

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Answer:

(a) [tex]\vec D = 2\,i - 2\,j[/tex], (b) [tex]\vec E = -6\,i + 12\,j[/tex]

Explanation:

Let be [tex]\vec A = 3\,i - 3\,j\,[m][/tex], [tex]\vec B = i - 4\,j\,[m][/tex] and [tex]\vec C = -2\,i + 5\,j \,[m][/tex], each resultant is found by using the component method:

(a) [tex]\vec D = \vec A + \vec B + \vec C[/tex]

[tex]\vec D = (3\,i - 3\,j) + (i-4\,j) + (-2\,i+5\,j)\,[m][/tex]

[tex]\vec D = (3\,i + i -2\,i)+(-3\,j-4\,j+5\,j)\,[m][/tex]

[tex]\vec D = (3 + 1 -2)\,i + (-3-4+5)\,j\,[m][/tex]

[tex]\vec D = 2\,i - 2\,j[/tex]

(b) [tex]\vec E = -\vec A - \vec B + \vec C[/tex]

[tex]\vec E = -(3\,i-3\,j)-(i - 4\,j)+(-2\,i+5\,j)[/tex]

[tex]\vec E = (-3\,i + 3\,j) +(-i+4\,j) + (-2\,i + 5\,j)[/tex]

[tex]\vec E = (-3\,i-i-2\,i) + (3\,j+4\,j+5\,j)[/tex]

[tex]\vec E = (-3-1-2)\,i + (3+4+5)\,j[/tex]

[tex]\vec E = -6\,i + 12\,j[/tex]

Answer:

Heat transfer is the transmission of heat energy from a body at higher temperature to lower temperature. The three mechanisms of heat transfer are

Example of Conduction:

Heating a metal

Example of Convection:

Sea Breeze

Example of Radiation:

Sun

Hope this helps ;) ❤❤❤

Answer:

Transmission of heat is the movement of thermal energy from one thing to another thing of different temperature.

There are three(3) different ways heat can transfer and they are:

a) Conduction (through direct contact).

b) Convection (through fluid movement).

c) Radiation (through electromagnetic waves).

Examples: 1.Heating a saucepan of water using a coalpot.(conduction&convection).

2. Baking a pie in an oven(radiation).

Thanks!!!!❤❤❤

Answer:

Explanation:

The set up is a compound microscope. The converging lens is the objective lens while the diverging lens is the eyepiece lens.

In compound microscopes, the distance between the two lenses is expressed as L = v0+ue

v0 is the image distance of the objective lens and ue is the object distance of the eye piece lens.

Befre we can get the location of the coin's final image relative to the diverging lens (ve), we need to get ue first.

Given L = 18.0cm

Using the lens formula to get v0 where u0 = 12.0cm and f0 = 7.40cm

1/f0 = 1/u0+1/v0

f0 and u0 are the focal length and object distance of the converging lens (objective lens)respectively.

1/v0 = 1/7.4-1/12

1/v0 = 0.1351-0.0833

1/v0 = 0.0518

v0 = 1/0.2184

v0 = 19.31cm

Note that v0 = ue = 19.31cm

To get ve, we will use the lens formula 1/fe = 1/ue+1/ve

1/ve = 1/fe-1/ue

Given ue = 19.31cm and fe = -7.00cm

1/ve = -1/7.0-1/19.31

1/ve = -0.1429-0.0518

1/ve = -0.1947

ve = 1/-0.1947

ve = -5.14cm

Hence, the location of the coin's final image relative to the diverging lens is 5.14cm to the lens

b) Magnification of the final image M = ve/ue

M = 5.14/19.31

M = 0.27

Magnification of the final image is 0.27

Answer:

At 3.86K

Explanation:

The following data are obtained from a straight line graph of C/T plotted against T2, where C is the measured heat capacity and T is the temperature:

gradient = 0.0469 mJ mol−1 K−4 vertical intercept = 0.7 mJ mol−1 K−2

Since the graph of C/T against T2 is a straight line, the are related by the straight line equation: C /T =γ+AT². Multiplying by T, we get C =γT +AT³ The electronic contribution is linear in T, so it would be given by the first term: Ce =γT. The lattice (phonon) contribution is proportional to T³, so it would be the second term: Cph =AT³. When they become equal, we can solve these 2 equations for T. This gives: T = √γ A .

We can find γ and A from the graph. Returning to the straight line equation C /T =γ+AT². we can see that γ would be the vertical intercept, and A would be the gradient. These 2 values are given. Substituting, we f ind: T =

√0.7/ 0.0469 = 3.86K.

Answer:

Explanation:

For series connected elements (an inductor, a capacitor, and a resistor) in a simple AC circuit, the same current will flows through the elements since are are no presence of nodes between the elements. The total current from the source is what will flow through all of them.

For example, let assume the total current flowing in the circuit is 3A, the amount of current that will flow through the inductor, capacitor and resistor will be the same 3A because of the nature of their connection (series). It is the voltage across each of them that differs.

Answer:

cutting the magnet in two parts each part has a North and South pole,

Explanation:

In magnetism the magnetic mono-poles are not found, this means that we do not have magnetic charges alone, therefore when cutting the magnet in two parts each part has a North and South pole, the magnetic lines go from the North pole to the South pole, see attached.

The density of the lines is approximately the intensity of the magnetic field.

Answer:

 I = E/R   e^{-t/RC}

Explanation:

In a capacitor charging circuit you must have a DC power source, the capacitor, a resistor, and a switch. When closing the circuit,

                  E -q / c-IR = 0

we replace the current by its expression and divide by the resistance

                   I = dq / dt

                   dq / dt = E / R  -q / RC

                   dq / dt = (CE -q) / RC

we solve the equation

                   dq / (Ce-q) = -dt / RC

we integrate and evaluate for the charge between 0 and q and for the time 0 and t

                   ln (q-CE / -CE) = -1 /RC   (t -0)

eliminate the logarithm

              q - CE = CE [tex]e^{-t/RC}[/tex]

               q = CE (1 + 1/RC  e^{-t/RC} )

In general the teams measure the current therefore we take the derivative to find the current

               i = CE (e^{-t/RC} / RC)

               I = E/R   e^{-t/RC}

This expression is the one that describes the charge of a condensate in a DC circuit

Answer:

2.9tons

Explanation:

Note that On an incline of angle a from horizontal, the parallel and perpendicular components of a downward force F are:

parallel ("tangential"): F_t = F sin a

perpendicular ("normal"): F_n = F cos a

At a=3.7 degrees, sin a is about 0.064 and with F = 46tons:

F sin a ~~ (46 tons)*0.064 ~~ 2.9tons

Also see attached file

The required force parallel to the incline to hold the monolith on this​ causeway will be "2.9 tons".

According to the question,

Angle, a = 3.7 degrees or,

Sin a = 0.064

Force, F = 46 tons

We know the relation,

Parallel (tangential), [tex]F_t[/tex] = F Sin a

By substituting the values,

                                       = 46 × 0.064

                                       = 2.9 tons

Thus the response above is appropriate answer.

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Answer:

The impulse is 2145 kg-m/s

The final velocity is -8.34 m/s or 8.34 m/s in he opposite direction.

Explanation:

Force on the rail = 3900 N

Elapsed time of impact = 0.55 s

Impulse is the product of force and the time elapsed on impact

I = Ft

I is the impulse

F is force

t is time

For this case,

Impulse = 3900 x 0.55 = 2145 kg-m/s

If the initial velocity was 2.95 m/s

and mass of car plus driver is 190 kg

neglecting friction, the initial momentum of the car is given as

P = mv1

where P is the momentum

m is the mass of the car and driver

v1 is the initial velocity of the car

initial momentum of the car P = 2.95 x 190 = 560.5 kg-m/s

We know that impulse is equal to the change of momentum, and

change of momentum is initial momentum minus final momentum.

The final momentum = mv2

where v2 is the final momentum of the car.

The problem translates into the equation below

I = mv1 - mv2

imputing values, we have

2145 = 560.5 - 190v2

solving, we have

2145 - 560.5 = -190v2

1584.5 = -190v2

v2 = -1584.5/190 = -8.34 m/s

Explanation:

It is given that,

The separation between two parallel wires, r = 11 cm = 0.11 m

Current in wire 1, [tex]q_1=54\ A[/tex]

Current in wire 2, [tex]q_2=45\ A[/tex]

Length of wires, l = 4.3 m

We need to find the magnitude of the magnetic force on a 4.3 m length of the wire carrying the greater current. The magnetic force per unit length is given by :

[tex]\dfrac{F}{l}=\dfrac{\mu_o I_1I_2}{2\pi r}\\\\F=\dfrac{\mu_o I_1I_2l}{2\pi r}\\\\F=\dfrac{4\pi \times 10^{-7}\times 54\times 45\times 4.3}{2\pi \times 0.11}\\\\F=0.0189\ N[/tex]

So, the magnetic force on a 4.3 m length of the wire  on both of currents is F=0.0189 N.

Given that,

A particle to move with uniform circular motion in a uniform magnetic field.

Suppose, The conditions are,

(I). The charged particle has to be positive and it should be moving in a direction opposite to a uniform magnetic field.

(II). The charged particle  should be moving parallel to the magnetic force and perpendicular to the magnetic field.

(III). The magnetic field  should be uniform and charge particle should be moving perpendicular to the magnetic field.

We know that,

An particle to move with uniform circular motion.

Here, electric force is perpendicular to velocity of particle.

The electric field is defined as,

[tex]F_{c}=\dfrac{mv^2}{r}[/tex].....(I)

Suppose, there is magnetic field, if a charge moving with velocity and the magnetic field exerts a field.

The magnetic force is defined as,

[tex]F_{m}=qvB[/tex].....(II)

We need to find the magnetic field

Using equation (I) and (II)

[tex]F_{c}=F_{m}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{mv^2}{r}=qvB[/tex]

[tex]B=\dfrac{mv}{qr}[/tex]

Hence, The magnetic field should be uniform and charge particle should be moving perpendicular to the magnetic field.

(III) is correct option.

Answer:

The  amount by which the second filter reduces the intensity of light emerging from the first filter is

     z =  0.60

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The angle between the axes is  [tex]\theta = 41^o[/tex]

The intensity of polarized light that emerges from the second filter is  mathematically represented as

         [tex]I= I_o cos^2 \theta[/tex]

 Where [tex]I_o[/tex] is the intensity of light emerging  from the first filter

        [tex]I = I_o [cos(41.0)]^2[/tex]

      [tex]I =0.60 I_o[/tex]

This means that the second filter reduced the intensity by z =  0.60

Answer: d = 33 cm or 0.33 m

Explanation: In physics, Work is the amount of energy transferred to an object to make it move. It can be expressed by:

W = F.d.cosθ

F is the force applied to the object, d is the displacement and θ is the angle formed between the force and the displacement.

For the ice block, the angle is 0, i.e., force and distance are at the same direction, so:

W = F.d.cos(0)

W = F.d

To determine d:

d = [tex]\frac{W}{F}[/tex]

d = [tex]\frac{3}{9}[/tex]

d = 0.33 m

The distance d the block ice moved is 33 cm.

Answer:

Explanation:

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Answer:

The glider’s speed after the skydiver lets go is 26 m/s

Explanation:

To calculate the glider’s speed just after the skydiver lets go, we will need to use the conservation of momentum

Mathematically;

mv = mv + mv

so 680 * 26 = (680-60)v + 60 * 26

17680 = 620v + 1560

17680-1560 = 620v

16120 = 620v

v = 16120/620

v = 26 m/s

Answer:

Hello your question has some missing parts and the required diagram attached below is the missing part and the diagram

Digital circuits require actions to take place at precise times, so they are controlled by a clock that generates a steady sequence of rectangular voltage pulses. One of the most widely

used integrated circuits for creating clock pulses is called a 555 timer.  shows how the timer’s output pulses, oscillating between 0 V and 5 V, are controlled with two resistors and a capacitor. The circuit manufacturer tells users that TH, the time the clock output spends in the high (5V) state, is TH =(R1 + R2)*C*ln(2). Similarly, the time spent in the low (0 V) state is TL = R2*C*ln(2). Design a clock that will oscillate at 10 MHz and will spend 75% of each cycle in the high state. You will be using a 500 pF capacitor. What values do you need to specify for R1 and R2?

ANSWER : R1 = 144.3Ω,   R2 =  72.2 Ω

Explanation:

Frequency = 10 MHz

Time period = 1 / F =  0.1 u s

Duty cycle = 75% = 0.75

Duty cycle can be represented as :   Ton / T

Also: Ton = Th = 0.75 * 0.1 u s  = 75 n s

TL = T - Th = 100 ns - 75 n s = 25 n s

To find the value of R2 we use the equation for  time spent in the low (0 V) state

TL = R2*C*ln(2)

hence R2 = TL / ( C * In 2 )

c = 500 pF

Hence R2 = 25 / ( 500 pF * 0.693 )  = 72.2 Ω

To find the value of R1 we use the equation for the time the clock output spends in the high (5V) state,

Th = (R1 + R2)*C*ln(2)

  from the equation make R1 the subject of the formula

R1 =  (Th - ( R2 * C * In2 )) / (C * In 2)

R1 = ( 75 ns - ( 72.2 * 500 pF * 0.693)) / ( 500 pF * 0.693 )

R1 = ( 75 ns  - ( 25 ns ) / 500 pf * 0.693

     = 144.3Ω

Answer:

0.29D

Explanation:

Given that

F = G M m / r2

F = GM(6m) / (D-r)2

G Mm/r2 = GM(6m) / (D-r)2

1/r2 = 6 / (D-r)2

r = D / (Ö6 + 1)

r = 0.29 D

See diagram in attached file

Answer:

the greatest intensity is obtained from   c

Explanation:

An electromagnetic wave stagnant by the expression

           E = E₀ sin (kx -wt)

when two waves meet their electric fields add up

           E_total = E₁ + E₂

the intensity is

           I = E_total . E_total

           I = E₁² + E₂² + 2E₁ E₂ cos θ

where θ  is the phase angle between the two rays

Let's examine the two waves

in this case E₁ = E₂ = E₀

          I = Eo2 + Eo2 + 2 E₀ E₀ coasts

         I = E₀² (2 + 2 cos θ )

         I = 2 I₀ (1 + cos θ )

     let's apply this expression to different cases

a) In this case the angle is zero therefore the cosine is worth 1 and the intensity is I_total = 4 I₀

b) cos π = -1     this implies that     I_total = 0

c) the cosine is  1,

         I = E₀² + 4E₀² + 2 E₀ (2E₀) cos θ

         I = E₀² (5 +4 cos θ)

         I = E₀² 9

         I = 9 Io

d) in this case the cos pi = -1

          I = E₀² (5 -4)

          I = I₀

e) we rewrite the equation

         I = E₀² + 9 E₀² + 2 E₀ (3E₀) cos θ

         I = Eo2 (10 + 6 cos θ)

         cos π = -1

         I = E₀² (10-6)

         I = 4 I₀

the greatest intensity is obtained from   c

The combination that has the greatest intensity is C. Wave C has an amplitude of 2E0 and a phase constant of zero.

An amplitude simply means the variable that meaures the change that occur in a single variable. It's the maximum diatance moved.

In this case, the combination that has the greatest intensity is Wave C since it has an amplitude of 2E0 and a phase constant of zero.

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Answer:

1) 14 kW

2) 4.67 x 10^-5 N

Explanation:

Area of solar panel = 10 m^2

Intensity of sun's radiation incident on earth = 1.4 kW/m^2

Solar power absorbed = ?

We know that the intensity of radiation on a given area is

[tex]I[/tex] = [tex]\frac{P}{A}[/tex]

where I is the intensity of the radiation

P is the power absorbed due to this intensity on a given area

A is the area on which this radiation is incident

From the equation, we have

P = IA

P = 1.4 kW/m^2  x  10 m^2 = 14 kW

b) For a perfect absorbing surface, the radiation pressure is given as

p = I/c

where p is the radiation pressure

I is the incident light intensity = 1.4 kW/m^2 = 1.4 x 10^3 kW/m^2

c is the speed of light = 3 x 10^8 m/s

substituting values, we have

p = (1.4 x 10^3)/(3 x 10^8) = 4.67 x 10^-6 Pa

we know that Force = pressure x area

therefore force on the solar panels is

F = 4.67 x 10^-6 x 10 = 4.67 x 10^-5 N

Answer:

A. plot an H-R diagram for the stars in the cluster.

Explanation:

A star cluster can be defined as a constellation of stars, due to gravitational force, which has the same origin.

The astronomy student would have to plot an H-R diagram for the stars in the cluster and determine the age of the cluster by observing the turn-off point. The turn-off is majorly as a result of gradual depletion of the source of energy of the star. Thus, it projects off the constellation.

Answer: [tex]4.29\times10^{14}\text{ Hz}[/tex]

Explanation:

Given: Speed of red light = 700 nm

= [tex]700\times10^{-9}[/tex] m

[tex]= 7\times10^{-7}[/tex] m

Frequency of red light = [tex]\dfrac{\text{Speed of light}}{\text{Speed of red light}}[/tex]

Speed of light = [tex]3\times10^8[/tex] m

Then, Frequency of red light = [tex]\dfrac{3\times10^8}{7\times10^{-7}}[/tex]

[tex]=0.429\times10^{8-(-7)}=0.429\times10^{15}\\\\=4.29\times10^{14}\ Hz[/tex]

Hence, Frequency of red light = [tex]4.29\times10^{14}\text{ Hz}[/tex]

The frequency of the light be in the material is [tex]4.29\times10^{14}\text{ Hz}[/tex].

Answer:

Answer in explanation

Explanation:

The reason for the big size and less moisture of the cake is due to difference in weight of the ingredients on the surface of moon. So, the same has the lesser weight on the surface of the moon than it has on the surface of earth. Or in other words, The same weight of the ingredients will have greater mass and thus the greater quantity on the surface of earth than the surface of earth. For example, on earth 1.25 N butter will have a mass:

m = W/g = 1.25 N/(9.8 m/s²) = 0.13 kg

But, on moon:

m = W/g = 1.25 N/(1.625 m/s²) = 0.77 kg

Hence, it is clear that the mass of the same weight of the substance becomes 6 times greater on the surface of moon. This explains why the cake was so big.

Now, coming to the second part about the dryness of the cake. The main and only source of moisture in recipe is the eggs bu the eggs are taken in a quantity of numbers. So they are exactly the same on moon as well. While all the other ingredients are increased, the same amount of eggs are not sufficient to provide them with enough moisture. Hence the cake was dry.

Answer:

The average velocity for this trip is 0 km/hr

Explanation:

We know that average velocity = total displacement/total time.

Now, its displacement is d = final position - initial position.

Since the  car starts and ends at its initial position at Hither, if we assume its initial position is 0 km, then its final position is also 0 km.

So, its displacement is d = 0 km - 0 km = 0 km.

Since the total time for the round trip is 2 hours, the average velocity is

total displacement/ total time = 0 km/2 hr = 0 km/hr.

So the average velocity for this trip is 0 km/hr  

Now, there is some information missing to this problem, since generally you will be given a figure to analyze like the one on the attached picture. The whole problem should look something like this:

"Beam AB has a negligible mass and thickness, and supports the 200kg uniform block. It is pinned at A and rests on the top of a post, having a mass of 20 kg and negligible thickness. Determine the two coefficients of static friction at B and at C so that when the magnitude of the applied force is increased to 360 N , the post slips at both B and C simultaneously."

Answer:

[tex]\mu_{sB}=0.126[/tex]

[tex]\mu_{sC}=0.168[/tex]

Explanation:

In order to solve this problem we will need to draw a free body diagram of each of the components of the system (see attached pictures) and analyze each of them. Let's take the free body diagram of the beam, so when analyzing it we get:

Sum of torques:

[tex]\sum \tau_{A}=0[/tex]

[tex]N(3m)-W(1.5m)=0[/tex]

When solving for N we get:

[tex]N=\frac{W(1.5m)}{3m}[/tex]

[tex]N=\frac{(1962N)(1.5m)}{3m}[/tex]

[tex]N=981N[/tex]

Now we can analyze the column. In this case we need to take into account that there will be no P-ycomponent affecting the beam since it's a slider and we'll assume there is no friction between the slider and the column. So when analyzing the column we get the following:

First, the forces in y.

[tex]\sum F_{y}=0[/tex]

[tex]-F_{By}+N_{c}=0[/tex]

[tex]F_{By}=N_{c}[/tex]

Next, the forces in x.

[tex]\sum F_{x}=0[/tex]

[tex]-f_{sB}-f_{sC}+P_{x}=0[/tex]

We can find the x-component of force P like this:

[tex]P_{x}=360N(\frac{4}{5})=288N[/tex]

and finally the torques about C.

[tex]\sum \tau_{C}=0[/tex]

[tex]f_{sB}(1.75m)-P_{x}(0.75m)=0[/tex]

[tex]f_{sB}=\frac{288N(0.75m)}{1.75m}[/tex]

[tex]f_{sB}=123.43N[/tex]

With the static friction force in point B we can find the coefficient of static friction in B:

[tex]\mu_{sB}=\frac{f_{sB}}{N}[/tex]

[tex]\mu_{sB}=\frac{123.43N}{981N}[/tex]

[tex]\mu_{sB}=0.126[/tex]

And now we can find the friction force in C.

[tex]f_{sC}=P_{x}-f_{xB}[/tex]

[tex]f_{sC}=288N-123.43N=164.57N[/tex]

[tex]f_{sC}=N_{c}\mu_{sC}[/tex]

and now we can use this to find static friction coefficient in point C.

[tex]\mu_{sC}=\frac{f_{sC}}{N}[/tex]

[tex]\mu_{sC}=\frac{164.57N}{981N}[/tex]

[tex]\mu_{sB}=0.168[/tex]