A swimming pool is 8 meters long, 8 meters wide and 8 meters deep. The water resistant paint needed for the pool costs $6 per square meter. What is the surface area of the pool that needs to be painted? ( there is not a top of the pool)

Answer:

1 is yes, 2 is no because 1 and 3 repeat, which means that 2 Y-Values would get the x-value of 1 and 3, and x cannot have 2 different values.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x = 8

Step-by-step explanation:

The measure of an arc is equal to the angle at the centre subtended by the arc.

The sum of the 3 arcs = 180° , then

5x + 6 + 83 + 51 = 180

5x + 140 = 180 ( subtract 140 from both sides )

5x = 40 ( divide both sides by 5 )

x = 8

Answer:

56 i hope this helps!

Step-by-step explanation:

Well its the answer because its the problems answer! hope this helps

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{\tt x=58^{\circ}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

From the given diagram, we see that ∠YOZ and ∠XOY are complementary angles.

Complementary angles: two angles with measures that add up to 90°.

[tex]\tt m\angle XOY+m\angle YOZ=90^{\circ}[/tex]

[tex]\tt \angle XOY+\angle YOZ=90^{\circ}[/tex]

[tex]\tt 32^{\circ}+x=90[/tex]

Subtract 32 from both sides:

[tex]\tt 32^{\circ}+x-32^{\circ}=90^{\circ}-32^{\circ}[/tex]

[tex]\tt x=58^{\circ}[/tex]

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Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

(5, 0) is both the vertex and x-intercept.

Answer:

TOP LEFT

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

domain -3<x<6

range -2<y<7

it is a function

Answer:

Domain:{3,-3,0,-1,6}

Range:{7,5,4,5,-2}

Since there is one value of  y  for every value of  x , this relation is a function.

The relation is a function.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:I would say that the answer is 700 is the answer is incorrect my apologies.

Step-by-step explanation: Ms.Li spent $840 on vacation, She spent 2/3 of the amount on a train ticket and 1/2 of the remaining amount on food. How much did she spend on ticket and food altogether= 840  2/3 = 560

840-560 = 280

half of 280 = 140

560+140 = 700

Answer:

9:45am.

Step-by-step explanation:

In 6 Hours and 20 minutes, there's 380 minutes.

Because 60 x 6 + 20 =380

So you go back 380 minutes from 4:05.

4:05pm minus 380minutes= 9:45am.

The time did I set off from Boston is 9:45 am.

Given that,

Based on the above information, the calculation is as follows:

In 6 Hours and 20 minutes, there should be380 minutes.

As [tex]60 \times 6 + 20 =380[/tex]

So it should be like

= 4:05 Pm - 380 minutes

= 9:45 am

Learn more: brainly.com/question/16911495

Answer:

3(x+3),

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:b

Answer:

= 7700

Step-by-step explanation:

income : savings = 15 : 4

income = 15x

savings = 4x

but it is given that savings = 2800

therefore

4x = 2800

x = 700

income = 15x

          = 15*700

          = 10500

expenditure = income - savings

               = 10500-2800

               = 7700

If helpful, please mark as brainliest! =)

Answer:

1.7 m/s^2

Step-by-step explanation

acceleration is change in velocity / time

so we do 13.6 - 0 = 13.6 gives us change in velocity

13.6/8 = 1.7 m/s^2 gives acceleration

hope this helps

Answer:what are all the answers.sorry i cant see all the answers all i see is 80,and 160 degrees if there is a 360 degrees i would go with that one and my apologies if that answer was wrong.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Quadrant I is written in the format: (x,y)

Quadrant II is written in the format: (-x,y)

Quadrant III is written in the format: (-x,-y)

Quadrant IV is written in the format: (x,-y)

Points on the x axis are written in the format: (x,0) or (-x,0)

Points on the y axis are written in the format: (0,y) or (0,-y)

Hope it helps!

Answer:

b.)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

To find f(q+1),

substitute x with q+1 in the given equation:

Answer:

f(x) = 6x + 7

Let's put c as q + 1 and f as 6

6(q + 1) + 7

(6 × q) + (6 × 1) + 7

6q + 6 + 7

6q + 13

[tex] \\ [/tex]

Answer:

90 Degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a very cool theorem. When the longest side of a triangle is the diameter of the circle, which in the picture you can see it is, the angle opposite to it is ALWAYS 90 degrees. Remember that the points have to be on the circle for this theoroem to work. I forget what the theoroems is called, but it is very helpful.

Thanks and have a great day!

Answer:

g(x) = -2 • 5^x

Step-by-step explanation:

the reflection across the x-axis makes the equation negative. the 2 is the verticals stretch.

(also got the answer correct on a test)

The function f(x) after a vertical stretch by a factor of 2 and a reflection across the x-axis becomes [tex]\rm g(x) =-2\times (5)^x[/tex] and this can be determined by using the rules of transformation.

Given :

[tex]\rm f(x) = 5^x[/tex]

The following steps can be used in order to determine the function after the given transformation:

Step 1 - The rules of transformation can be used in order to determine the function after the given transformation.

Step 2 - Write the given function.

[tex]\rm f(x) = 5^x[/tex]

Step 3 - Now, stretch the graph of the above function vertically by a factor of 2. So, the function of the graph obtained is:

[tex]\rm h(x) =2\times (5)^x[/tex]

Step 4 - Now, take the reflection of the graph obtained in the above step about the x-axis. So, the function of the graph obtained is:

[tex]\rm g(x) =-2\times (5)^x[/tex]

Therefore, the correct option is D).

For more information, refer to the link given below:

https://brainly.com/question/14375099

Answer:

2. The Radius is 2 cm 3. The diamoter is 53.2 yards 4. The radius is 15.88

Step-by-step explanation:

This decimal value is the approximation of the fraction 11/4165

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Explanation:

There are 13 diamonds out of 52 total.

The probability of getting a diamond card is 13/52.

After selecting that diamond card and not putting it back, we have 13-1 = 12 diamonds left out of 52-1 = 51 left. The probability of getting another diamond is 12/51.

Then the probability of getting a third diamond is 11/50, and finally 10/49 represents the probability of getting a fourth diamond. Each time we need a new probability, we just subtract 1 from the numerator and denominator.

The numerators are: 13, 12, 11, 10

The denominators are: 52, 51, 50, 49

We'll multiply the four fractions to get our final answer

(13/52)*(12/51)*(11/50)*(10/49) = 0.00264105642257

This rounds to 0.0026 which is roughly a 0.26% chance

The answer as an exact fraction is 11/4165

Answer:

1274Dac

Step-by-step explanation:

i used photomath but i think thats right hope this helps:)

Answer:

1=(5,-2) 2=(1,4)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2=70 ,4=42, 6=75

Step-by-step explanation:

Subtract each number by 90 to find the missing complementary angle.

Answer:

x=3

Step-by-step explanation:

You should add 75$ to 160$ and get $235, then divide 760 by 235. you an only go 3 days,  because if you go another that's over the budget

Answer: it means simple interest

Step-by-step explanation it means simple interest because I means interest

Answer:

h ≈ 5.67

Step-by-step explanation:

I used an online calculator. Hope that this is correct and helps! Have a good night and good luck!

Answer:I do believe so because denver is like 5,000 something above sea level

Step-by-step explanation:and negative numbers would be below sea level

Answer:

( 10, 30)

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply (8, 24) by 5/4

5/4 = 1.25

8 × 1.25 = 10

24 × 1.25 = 30

( 10, 30)

good luck, i hope this helps :)

Answer:

less than

Step-by-step explanation:

mark brainliest

if you need me to explain just ask