animals such as reef-building corals and mollusca form a resevoir in the carbon cycle. in what form is the carbon stored as in their bodies?

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Answer 1
Calcium carbonate in their hard body parts

Related Questions

how many total trophic levels are present in a food web in which the top trophic level consists of secondary consumers? (do not consider decomposers or omnivores.)

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A trophic level is a position in a food web that an organism occupies based on its feeding habits. The primary trophic levels include producers, primary consumers, and secondary consumers.

Food webs are an essential aspect of the natural world, as they depict the flow of energy from one organism to another. Within these chains, organisms can be categorized into three tiers: producers, primary consumers, and secondary consumers.

1) Producers: such as plants, algae, and some bacteria, are responsible for producing their energy from the sun through photosynthesis.

2) Primary consumers: such as herbivores, eat producers to obtain their energy.

3) Secondary consumers:  such as carnivores and omnivores, eat primary consumers to acquire their energy.

In the above case, there are two trophic levels: producers and secondary consumers. The primary consumers are not considered in this question.

Therefore, there are a total of two trophic levels in this food web.

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In a food web where the top trophic level consists of secondary consumers, there are a total of three trophic levels. The first level is composed of primary producers, the second level consists of primary consumers, and the third and top level includes secondary consumers.

Trophic levels refer to the position of an organism in a food chain or food web based on their feeding behavior. The first level is always occupied by autotrophs, such as plants, which produce their own food through photosynthesis. The second level consists of herbivores, which feed on the primary producers.

The third level includes secondary consumers, which are carnivores that feed on the herbivores. Therefore, in the given food web, there are only three trophic levels since the top level is made up of secondary consumers. It is important to note that this answer excludes decomposers and omnivores from the analysis.

Lastly, the third trophic level is made up of secondary consumers, which are carnivores that feed on the primary consumers. In this scenario, we do not consider decomposers or omnivores, as they may belong to different trophic levels or have multiple roles within the food web.

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the features of tiktaalik, a fossil that is a transitional form between fishes and tetrapods, might have allowed what actions?

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The features of tiktaalik, a fossil that is a transitional form between fishes and tetrapods, might have allowed is ability to support body on river bottoms.

Tiktaalik had a number of features that suggest it was adapted to shallow, freshwater environments. These include robust ribs that would have provided support for its body, and large, muscular fins that would have allowed it to maneuver in shallow water and support its weight on the bottom.

It also had a flat head with eyes on top, suggesting that it may have spent a lot of time looking up towards the surface of the water. These features suggest that Tiktaalik may have been able to support its body on the river bottom, a behavior that would have been advantageous in the transition from aquatic to terrestrial environments.

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which cell type secretes significant amounts of pro-inflammatory cytokines in response to covid-19 infection?

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Macrophage cell types secrete significant amounts of pro-inflammatory cytokines in response to Covid-19 infection. Here option D is the correct answer.

Macrophages are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the innate immune response to viral infections, including COVID-19. In response to viral infection, macrophages can secrete a wide range of pro-inflammatory cytokines, such as interleukin-1 (IL-1), interleukin-6 (IL-6), and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α).

These cytokines are important for activating and recruiting other immune cells to the site of infection, and for initiating an effective immune response to clear the virus. However, in some cases, the immune response to COVID-19 can become dysregulated, leading to excessive production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, known as a cytokine storm.

This can cause damage to the lungs and other organs and is associated with severe disease and poor outcomes in COVID-19 patients. Macrophages are thought to be a key contributor to the cytokine storm in COVID-19, highlighting the importance of understanding the immune response to the virus in order to develop effective treatments and prevent severe disease.

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Complete question:

Which of the following cell types secretes significant amounts of pro-inflammatory cytokines in response to COVID-19 infection?

A) T lymphocytes

B) B lymphocytes

C) Natural killer cells

D) Macrophages

Why are most food chains limited to three to five trophic levels? a. The higher the trophic level, the larger the organism; the larger the organism, the less likely it will be prey. b. The nutritional quality of existing biomass decreases with increasing trophic level. c. Most ecosystems have insufficient space to support the increased number of organisms that more trophic levels would require. d. There is insufficient energy to support more trophic levels.

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Answer:

Most food chains are limited to three or five trophic levels because the energy available is only enough for those number of trophic levels: there is insufficient energy to go round more trophic level.

Explanation:

this structure surrounds the early embryo and the fluid that fills it protects the embryo. allantois chorion amnion

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This structure surrounds the early embryo and the fluid that fills it protects the embryo: amnion. The correct option is c.


The amnion is a thin, protective membrane that forms a fluid-filled sac around the developing embryo. This sac is filled with amniotic fluid, which plays a crucial role in cushioning and protecting the embryo from external pressure and potential harm. Additionally, the amniotic fluid helps maintain a constant temperature within the amniotic sac, allowing for a stable environment for the embryo to grow and develop.

In contrast, the allantois (a) is an extra-embryonic membrane that contributes to the formation of the umbilical cord and the urinary bladder. The chorion (b), on the other hand, is another extra-embryonic membrane that forms the outermost layer of the developing embryo and is involved in the formation of the placenta.

In summary, the amnion is the structure that surrounds the early embryo and protects it through the amniotic fluid it contains.  The correct option is c.

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which body systems will attempt to keep the body in homeostasis if acid-base imbalance continues for an extended period of time?

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The respiratory and renal systems work together to maintain acid-base balance in the body. The respiratory system helps regulate the levels of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the blood, which affects the pH level.

If there is an acid-base imbalance, the respiratory system can adjust the breathing rate to compensate. The renal system, on the other hand, helps regulate the levels of bicarbonate and hydrogen ions in the blood, which also affect the pH level. If the acid-base imbalance persists for an extended period, the renal system may begin to compensate by adjusting the reabsorption and secretion of these ions in the urine.

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PLS HELP SO EASY 40 points 3 short questions.

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The process is the expression of different genes, option A is correct.

Cell differentiation into bone, skin, or muscle cells is regulated by the expression of different genes. Each cell type expresses a unique set of genes that determine its specific characteristics and functions. The expression of these genes is regulated by various factors, including signaling molecules, transcription factors, and epigenetic modifications.

Through these mechanisms, cells can activate or deactivate certain genes, leading to the development of distinct cell types with specialized functions. Replication of different genes may be involved in cell growth and division but is not the primary mechanism driving cell differentiation. Breakdown of different genes and deactivation of chromosomes are also not directly involved in cell differentiation, option A is correct.

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The complete question is:

Which process causes a cell to differentiate into bone, skin, or muscle cells?

A. expression of different genes

B. breakdown of different genes

C. deactivation of chromosomes

D. replication of different genes

Answer: 1. Cell differentiation " it makes bones and everything in your body"

2. I think the answer is A * not 100% sure though*

3. I think its  C

Explanation:

1.   cell differentiation makes bones and everything in your body yes it's fascinating!

3. The cell cannot create proteins, which are necessary for many activities.

I hope this helps

which phrase best describes homeostasis?positive feedbackpoor enzyme functionremaining exactly the same at all timeskeeping important internal parameters relatively constantvariability

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The best phrase that describes homeostasis is (d) keeping important internal parameters relatively constant.

The Homeostasis refers to the ability of an organism to maintain relatively stable internal conditions despite changes in the external environment.

This is achieved through the coordination of various physiological mechanisms that work together to regulate important internal parameters, such as body temperature, blood pressure, pH levels, and glucose concentrations.

Therefore, by maintaining these internal parameters within a narrow range, homeostasis allows an organism to function effectively and adapt to changing conditions in its environment, correct option is (d).

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The given question is incomplete, the complete question is

Which phrase best describes homeostasis?

(a) positive feedback

(b) poor enzyme function

(c) remaining exactly the same at all times

(d) keeping important internal parameters relatively constant

(e) variability

a line of evidence not considered by darwin in his development of the theory of natural selection is

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A line of evidence NOT considered by Darwin in his development of the theory of natural selection  comparative biochemistry. Option (d)

At the time Darwin was developing his ideas, the science of genetics had not yet been established, and the mechanism of inheritance was not understood. Darwin himself was aware of this gap in his knowledge and referred to it as the "mystery of mysteries".

It was not until the early 20th century, with the rediscovery of Gregor Mendel's work on inheritance and the development of the modern synthesis, that genetics and natural selection were combined into a unified theory of evolution.

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Full Question: A line of evidence NOT considered by Darwin in his development of the theory of natural selection is

A. comparative anatomy.

B. biogeography.

C. the fossil record.

D. comparative biochemistry.

A chemical binds to a protein composed of a single polypeptide chain and prevents the formation of an alpha helix that is typically formed in the absence of the chemical. Which of the following best describes the effect the chemical has on the structure of the protein?

Answers

The secondary structure held together by hydrogen bonds is affected best describes the effect the chemical has on the structure of the protein.

Therefore option B is correct.

What are  hydrogen bonds?

A  hydrogen bond is described as a primarily electrostatic force of attraction between a hydrogen atom which is covalently bound to a more electronegative "donor" atom or group, and another electronegative atom bearing a lone pair of electrons—the hydrogen bond acceptor.

The primary structure is known to be held together by covalent bonds that are between amino acids and is not affected by the presence of the chemical.

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Which tube will serve as the control in the "Normal Serum Bactericidins" portion of this lab activity? a. Tube A (Unheated normal serum) b. Tube C (Saline)c. Both Tubes A Unheated normal serum) and B (Normal serum heated 56 degrees C for 30 minutes)d. Tube B (Normal serum heated at 56 degrees C for 30 minutes) e. There is no control in this activity.

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The tube that will serve as the control in the "Normal Serum Bactericidins" portion of this lab activity is b) tube C, which contains saline.  

The purpose of a control in an experiment is to have a standard against which to compare the results of the experimental groups. In this case, tube A contains unheated normal serum, and tube B contains normal serum that has been heated at 56 degrees C for 30 minutes. Tube C, on the other hand, does not contain any serum, but rather only saline solution.  

This allows us to observe the natural state of the bacteria in the absence of any serum or heat treatment.

Having a control is important in order to ensure that any observed effects are due to the variable being tested (in this case, the presence or absence of bactericidins in the serum) rather than any other factors.  

By comparing the results of the experimental groups to the control, we can determine whether any observed changes are statistically significant and therefore likely to be caused by the variable being tested. Without a control, it would be difficult to draw any meaningful conclusions from the experiment.
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climate change has increased the rate of coral bleaching worldwide, due to what changes in the ocean? choose two.

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Coral bleaching has increased worldwide as a result of climate change because the ocean is getting warmer and more acidic.

A warming ocean is caused by climate change: and contributes to coral bleaching and infectious disease by causing thermal stress. Rising sea levels: may result in an increase in sedimentation near land-based sediment sources for reefs. Coral can become covered in sedimentation runoff.

The rate of global coral bleaching has risen as a result of two changes in the ocean brought on by climate change:

Temperatures rising in the ocean: Coral reefs become stressed as ocean temperatures rise, forcing the algae that live in their tissues to be expelled, resulting in the coral turning white or "bleach." If the stress continues for an extended period of time, the coral may die.

Acidification of the seas: The ocean takes in more carbon dioxide as atmospheric concentrations of the gas rise, which makes the water more acidic. The availability of carbonate ions, which are essential for the construction of many marine organisms' shells and skeletons, may also be reduced as a result of this, making it more challenging for corals to construct and maintain their skeletons.

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Which of the following is the epidermal layer containing the oldest cells?A. Stratum basaleB. Sratam corneumC. Stratum granulosumD. Stratum lucidumE. Stratum spinosumF. Papillary layerG. Reticular layerH. Epidermis as a wholeI. Dermis as a whole

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The epidermal layer containing the oldest cells is the stratum corneum.the stratum corneum is the epidermal layer containing the oldest cells, composed of flattened, dead cells called corneocytes that provide a protective barrier and regulate water loss from the body.

The stratum corneum is the outermost layer of the epidermis and is composed of flattened, dead cells called corneocytes. These cells are filled with keratin, a tough protein that provides a protective barrier for the skin. The stratum corneum is constantly shedding these dead cells and replacing them with new ones from the layers beneath it. As a result, the cells at the surface of the stratum corneum are the oldest and most dead.

The stratum corneum plays an important role in protecting the body from external stressors such as chemicals, bacteria, and UV radiation. It also helps to regulate water loss from the body, which is critical for maintaining proper hydration levels in the skin.

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what is the name of a condition in which the brain receives some but not enough oxygen?

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Cerebral hypoxia: is a neurological condition that happens when the brain doesn’t get enough oxygen.

information about lyme disease is provided in the following section. after studying this information, outline the chain of infection by identifying the reservoir(s), vector, mode(s) of transmission, and portal(s) of entry. 11.a. reservoir(s): 11.b. vector: 11.c. mode of transmission: 11.d. portal of entry:

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Reservoir(s): The reservoir for Lyme disease is primarily white-footed mice and other small rodents, but it can also be carried by larger animals like deer.

Vector: The black-legged tick (also known as the deer tick) is the primary vector for transmitting Lyme disease to humans.

Mode of transmission: The mode of transmission for Lyme disease is through the bite of an infected tick. Ticks become infected after feeding on infected rodents, and then pass on the bacteria to humans when they bite and feed on their blood.

Portal of entry: The portal of entry for Lyme disease is through the skin, when the tick bites and begins to feed on the host's blood. The bacteria can then spread throughout the body and cause symptoms if left untreated.

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Full Question: Information about lyme disease is provided in the following section. after studying this information, outline the chain of infection by identifying the reservoir(s), vector, mode(s) of transmission, and portal(s) of entry. 11.a. reservoir(s): 11.b. vector: 11.c. mode of transmission: 11.d. portal of entry:

valuate the statements below, and select those that correctly apply to the progression of plague. Check All That Apply a. Plague is caused by Yersinia pestis, a gram-negative rod that displays a bipolar stalning pattem. b. Bubonic plague can spread via human-to-human transmission through respiratory droplets
c. Veterinarians, the most at-risk group for developing plague, are protected by a routine vaccine. d. Transmission of Yersinia occurs when fleas, the vector carry the organism from one mammal reservoir to anot e. Bubonic plague can progress to septicemic plague, whereby the organism proliferates in the blood. Yersinia has a low ID50 only 3-50 organisms needed to cause disease due to effective virulence factors.
g. Fleas are the endemic reservoirs for Yersinia, they carry It in their gut easily transmitting it when they bite
i. Bubonic and pneumonic plague are both caused by Yersinia pestis but the modes of transmission differ

Answers

Give statement a,b,d,eg,I are true and statement c is false.

a. This statement is true. Plague is caused by Yersinia pestis, a gram-negative rod that displays a bipolar staining pattern.

b. This statement is partially true. Bubonic plague can spread through respiratory droplets, but it is not a primary mode of transmission. The primary mode of transmission for bubonic plague is through flea bites.

c. This statement is false. There is no routine vaccine for veterinarians or any other group for plague.

d. This statement is true. Transmission of Yersinia occurs when fleas, the vector carry the organism from one mammal reservoir to another.

e. This statement is true. Bubonic plague can progress to septicemic plague, whereby the organism proliferates in the blood. Yersinia has a low ID50 only 3-50 organisms needed to cause disease due to effective virulence factors.

g. This statement is true. Fleas are the endemic reservoirs for Yersinia, and they carry it in their gut, easily transmitting it when they bite.

i. This statement is true. Bubonic and pneumonic plague are both caused by Yersinia pestis, but the modes of transmission differ. Bubonic plague is primarily transmitted through flea bites, while pneumonic plague is transmitted through respiratory droplets.

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how do your bile esculin and salt broth test results differentiate enterococcus from other group d streptococci genera

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The bile esculin test is used to determine the ability of an organism to hydrolyze esculin in the presence of bile.

In this test, the organism is grown in a medium containing bile and esculin. If the organism is capable of hydrolyzing esculin, then it produces esculetin, which reacts with ferric ions in the medium to produce a black complex. On the other hand, the salt broth test is used to differentiate enterococci from non-enterococcal group D streptococci. Enterococci can grow in the presence of 6.5% NaCl, while non-enterococcal group D streptococci cannot. Therefore, if an organism is able to hydrolyze esculin in the presence of bile and grow in 6.5% NaCl, it is likely to be Enterococcus.

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Complete Question

How does the bile esculin and salt broth test distinguish Enterococcus from other group D streptococci genera?

The broadest level in a trophic pyramid is primarily composed of:
primary producers.
primary consumers.
secondary consumers.
tertiary consumers.

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The broadest level in a trophic pyramid is primarily composed of primary producers.

Primary producers are the base of the trophic pyramid and include organisms such as plants, algae, and some bacteria that convert energy from the sun through photosynthesis.

These primary producers create their own food, making them essential for supporting other levels in the trophic pyramid.

Primary consumers, such as herbivores, feed on primary producers, while secondary consumers, like carnivores, feed on primary consumers. Tertiary consumers, often top predators, consume both primary and secondary consumers. The broadest level, primary producers, provides energy and nutrients to the entire ecosystem.

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Numerous dinosaur discoveries in recent years, many in China, have revealed that feathers were common on number of species, particularly therapod dinosaurs (think of Velociraptor or Tyrannosaurus rex), none of which had ability to fly. What are some of the other functions of feathers on a flightless animal? (Need the answer quickly. Thank you.)

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Feathers on a flightless animal such as a therapod dinosaur, serve a number of functions beyond just aiding in flight. One of the main functions of feathers is insulation. Feathers provide an insulating layer that helps to regulate body temperature, keeping the animal warm in cold weather and cool in hot weather.

Feathers also serve as a form of display and communication. Some species of therapod dinosaurs likely used their feathers to attract mates or establish dominance within their social groups. The bright colors and patterns on some feathers may have helped to signal a dinosaur's health or genetic fitness to potential mates.

Additionally, feathers can provide protection against predators. Some therapod dinosaurs likely used their feathers to create a "false size" effect, making themselves appear larger and more intimidating to potential predators. Feathers can also serve as a form of camouflage, allowing dinosaurs to blend in with their surroundings and avoid detection.

Finally, feathers may have had a role in balance and maneuverability. The structure of feathers, with their lightweight yet sturdy design, may have allowed dinosaurs to maintain their balance while running or jumping, and to make quick turns and changes in direction.

Overall, while feathers may be most commonly associated with flight, they served a variety of important functions for flightless therapod dinosaurs.

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A county has recently evolved from underdeveloped to developed and the birth and death rate have stabilized. This is known as ​A.) the age- structure model B. death stabilization C. zero population growth D. birth stabilization

Answers

Answer:

d is the answer

Explanation:

Which amino acid residue disrupts the alpha helix because its side chain contains a unique ring structure that restricts bond rotations?

Answers

The amino acid residue that disrupts the alpha helix because of its unique ring structure is Proline. Proline is an imino acid that contains a unique ring structure in its side chain, which restricts bond rotations and makes it different from other amino acids.

The amino acid residue that disrupts the alpha helix because of its unique ring structure is Proline. Proline is an imino acid that contains a unique ring structure in its side chain, which restricts bond rotations and makes it different from other amino acids. This unique structure is the reason why proline is often referred to as the "helix breaker" because it can cause a kink in the alpha helix structure. When proline is present in a sequence of amino acids that would otherwise form an alpha helix, it disrupts the hydrogen bonding pattern that stabilizes the helix, resulting in a break in the helix structure. This structural disruption occurs because proline's unique ring structure forces the backbone of the amino acid residue to bend, which in turn causes a change in the orientation of the peptide bond. In conclusion, the unique ring structure of proline's side chain restricts bond rotations, making it a helix breaker amino acid residue.

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Terrestrial animals are _____. See Concept 44.1 (Page 976)
a)osmoregulators that must obtain water from the environment
b)likely to have the same problems with osmoregulation as do freshwater fish
c)obligated to protect their eggs from drying with water-resistant shells
d)usually nocturnal
either arthropods or vertebrates

Answers

a)osmoregulators that must obtain water from the environment

which feature of model 1 best illustrates how biological information is coded in a dna molecule? responses

Answers

The correct option is C, The linear sequence of the base pairs best illustrates how biological information is coded in a DNA molecule.

DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is a molecule that contains genetic instructions for the development and function of all living organisms. It is found in the nucleus of every cell in the body and carries the genetic information that determines an organism's traits and characteristics. The structure of DNA is a double helix, consisting of two long strands of nucleotides that are held together by hydrogen bonds.

The nucleotides in DNA are composed of a sugar molecule, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base (adenine, thymine, cytosine, or guanine). The specific sequence of these nitrogenous bases determines the genetic code that is responsible for the unique characteristics of each individual. DNA replication is the process by which a cell makes a copy of its DNA before cell division, ensuring that each new cell receives an identical set of genetic information. Mutations in DNA can result in genetic disorders or variations that can lead to evolution over time.

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Complete Question:

Which feature of model 1 excellent illustrates how organic information is coded in a DNA molecule?

The 5′ and three′ labels at the ends of each strand

A). The labeling of the hydrogen bonds among base pairs.

B). The traces connecting sugars and phosphate organizations that constitute covalent bonds.

C). The linear sequence of the bottom pairs

for example if someone who has freckles, mates with other people who have freckles - what is this an example of? is this natural selection? is it mutation? it is genetic drift? is it nonrandom mating?

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If someone who has freckles mates with other people who have freckles, this is an example of nonrandom mating.

Nonrandom mating refers to the phenomenon where individuals preferentially choose mates with certain traits or characteristics. In the case of freckles, individuals with freckles may be more likely to choose partners with freckles due to a shared preference or cultural norms.

Nonrandom mating can have important implications for population genetics and evolution. It can lead to changes in the frequency of certain alleles or traits within a population, as certain traits become more or less common based on selective mating patterns.

However, it is important to note that nonrandom mating is not the same as natural selection or mutation, which involve changes in the genetic makeup of a population over time .In summary, the example of individuals with freckles mating with other individuals with freckles is an example of nonrandom mating, which can have important implications for population genetics and evolution.

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Which of the following techniques would provide the most accurate data on population density?

a. Calculate the difference between all of the immigrants and emigrants to see if the population is growing or shrinking.
b. Count the number of pine trees in several randomly selected 10-meter-square plots within a population, and extrapolate this number to the fraction of the study area these plots represent.
c. Count the number of nests of a particular species of songbird and multiply this by a factor that extrapolates these data to actual animals.
d. Use the mark-recapture method to estimate the number of individuals in the population.

Answers

Out of the given techniques, the most accurate data on population density can be obtained using the mark-recapture method. (option.d)

This method involves capturing a sample of individuals, marking them, releasing them back into the population, and then recapturing a second sample at a later time.

By analyzing the ratio of marked individuals in the second sample, population size can be estimated. This method is more accurate than the other techniques as it takes into account the movement and behavior of individuals within the population.

The other techniques may provide some information on population dynamics, but they are not as reliable for estimating population density. Therefore, the mark-recapture method is the most appropriate technique for obtaining accurate data on population density.

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four million years ago, the lake dried out, creating two new lakes, lk1 and lk2. there is now a total of six species in the two lakes: d, e, and f in lk1, and g, h, and i in lk2. which is the most likely phylogeny?

Answers

The most likely phylogeny for the six species in lakes LK1 and LK2 is LK1: d -> e -> f LK2: g -> h -> i, although the lakes were formed four million years ago when the former lake dried up. Here option A is the correct answer.

Determining the most likely phylogeny for the six species in lakes LK1 and LK2 would require an understanding of the evolutionary relationships between the species. While it is not possible to definitively determine the phylogeny without further information or analysis, some general assumptions can be made.

Based on the fact that the two lakes were created four million years ago when a previous lake dried out, it can be inferred that the six species likely diverged from a common ancestor within this timeframe. This suggests that the species may be more closely related to each other than to species outside of the two lakes.

In terms of the possible phylogenies presented in the multiple-choice options, it is difficult to definitively determine which is the most likely without further information. However, one possible approach would be to consider the order in which the species are listed in each lake. For example, if the order of the species in one lake is the same as the order in the other lake but in reverse, this could suggest a possible evolutionary relationship between the species.

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Complete question:

What is the most likely phylogeny for the six species in lakes LK1 and LK2, given that the lakes were created four million years ago when a previous lake dried out?

A) LK1: d -> e -> f LK2: g -> h -> i

B) LK1: f -> e -> d LK2: i -> h -> g

C) LK1: d -> f -> e LK2: i -> g -> h

D) LK1: e -> f -> d LK2: g -> i -> h

alkaptonuria is a very rare condition that causes a buildup of homogenic acid in the body. it is caused by

Answers

Alkaptonuria is a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to break down certain amino acids, specifically phenylalanine and tyrosine.  

As a result, there is a buildup of a substance called homogentisic acid in the body. This buildup can lead to a range of symptoms, including darkening of the urine, joint pain and stiffness, and a condition called ochronosis, which causes darkening and thickening of the connective tissues in the body.

Alkaptonuria is caused by mutations in the HGD gene, which provides instructions for making an enzyme called homogentisate 1,2-dioxygenase. Without this enzyme, the body cannot break down homogentisic acid, leading to its accumulation. Alkaptonuria is a very rare condition, affecting only about 1 in 250,000 to 1 million people worldwide.

Treatment for alkaptonuria is mainly focused on managing symptoms, as there is no cure for the condition. This may include pain management, physical therapy, and joint replacement surgery in severe cases. Early diagnosis and monitoring can help prevent or delay the onset of complications associated with alkaptonuria.

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a respiratory bronchiole can be distinguished from a terminal bronchiole by ________.

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A respiratory bronchiole can be distinguished from a terminal bronchiole by the presence of  alveoli  within its walls.

Both respiratory bronchioles and terminal bronchioles are part of the branching network of airways within the respiratory system. They are located in the lungs and play a role in conducting air to the respiratory exchange surfaces.

Terminal bronchioles are the smallest branches of the conducting airways. They do not participate in gas exchange and primarily serve as passageways for air. They are lined with simple cuboidal epithelium and lack the presence of alveoli.

Respiratory bronchioles, on the other hand, are transitional airways that represent the junction between the conducting airways and the respiratory portion of the lungs. They have a more complex structure and are characterized by the presence of alveoli in their walls.

The alveoli are tiny, air-filled sacs that are responsible for gas exchange in the lungs. They are surrounded by a network of capillaries and provide a large surface area for the diffusion of oxygen into the bloodstream and the removal of carbon dioxide.

The presence of alveoli in the walls of respiratory bronchioles distinguishes them from terminal bronchioles. This structural difference reflects the functional role of respiratory bronchioles in participating in gas exchange, while terminal bronchioles solely function as conduits for air movement.

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the abbreviation for the term that means pertaining to through the skin is

Answers

The abbreviation for the term that means pertaining to through the skin is percutaneous.

It is derived from the Latin words "per" (through) and "cutaneus" (skin).

Percutaneous procedures are performed through the skin, without making an incision. This type of procedure is often used to deliver medication, remove a foreign object, or perform a biopsy.

Percutaneous procedures are generally less invasive than traditional surgical procedures, and they often have a shorter recovery time.

Some examples of percutaneous procedures include:

Injections

Biopsies

Catheterizations

Drain placements

Implantations

Punctures

Percutaneous procedures are often used in place of traditional surgical procedures because they are less invasive and have a shorter recovery time.

However, percutaneous procedures are not always appropriate for every patient. Patients who have bleeding disorders or who are at high risk for infection may not be good candidates for percutaneous procedures.

If you are considering a percutaneous procedure, it is important to talk to your doctor about the risks and benefits of the procedure. You should also ask your doctor about the risks and benefits of traditional surgical procedures.

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Which of the following is an example of passive transport, unaided by proteins, across the cell membrane?
a. the stimulation of a muscle cell
b. the uptake of glucose by the microvilli of cells lining the stomach
c. the movement of insulin across the cell membrane
d. the movement of carbon dioxide across the cell membrane
e. the selective uptake of hormones across the cell membrane

Answers

The correct answer is (d) the movement of carbon dioxide across the cell membrane.

Passive transport is the movement of molecules across the cell membrane without the input of energy. This can occur through simple diffusion, where molecules move from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration until equilibrium is reached.

Carbon dioxide is a small, nonpolar molecule that can easily diffuse across the cell membrane without the need for proteins or energy.

In contrast, the stimulation of a muscle cell, the uptake of glucose by the microvilli of cells lining the stomach, and the selective uptake of hormones across the cell membrane all involve active transport, facilitated transport, or receptor-mediated endocytosis, which require energy and/or specific proteins.

The movement of insulin across the cell membrane involves receptor-mediated endocytosis, where the hormone binds to a receptor on the cell surface and is engulfed by the cell.

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