As a means of measuring the viscosity, a liquid is forced to flow through two very large parallel plates by applying a pressure gradient, dp/dx you can assume that the velocity between the plates is given by
u(y) = - 1/2μ dp/dx y(h-y)
where u is the fluid viscosity, dp/dx is the pressure gradient and h is the gap between the plates. a) Derive an expression for the shear stress acting on the top plate, Tw. b) Q' is the flow rate per unit width (i.e. has units of m²/s). Express Q' in terms of tw c) When the flow rate per unit width is Q' = 1.2 x 10-6 m²/s, the gap between the plates is 5 mm, the device estimates the shear stress at the top wall to be -0.05 Pa. Estimate the viscosity of the fluid. d) When the tests are repeated for a blood sample, different estimates of viscosity are found for different flowrates. What does this tell you about the viscosity of blood? Use appropriate terminology that was covered in the module. (1 sentence.) e) As the pressure gradient is increased, at a certain point the measurements cease to be reliable. Using your knowledge of fluid mechanics, give a possible reason for this. Use appropriate terminology that was covered in the module.

The horsepower required to compress the air is 156.32 hp.

Given, Volumetric flow rate, Q = 500 ft³/minDensity of air at suction,

ρ1 = 0.079 lb/ft³Density of air at discharge,

ρ2 = 0.304 lb/ft³Pressure at suction,

p1 = 15 psiaPressure at discharge,

p2 = 80 psiaIncrease in specific internal energy,

u2-u1 = 33.8 Btu/lbHeat transferred from air by cooling,

q = 13 Btu/lbWe have to determine the horsepower (hp) required to compress (or do work "on") the air.

Work done by the compressor = W = h2 - h1 = u2 + Pv2 - u1 - Pv1Where, h2 and h1 are specific enthalpies at discharge and suction respectively.

Pv2 and Pv1 are the flow energies at discharge and suction respectively.

At suction state 1, using ideal gas law,

pv = RTp1V1 = mRT1,

V1 = (mRT1)/p1V2 = V1(ρ1/ρ2), Where ρ1V1 = m and

ρ2V2 = mρ1V1 = m = (p1V1)/RT

Put this value in equation 2,

V2 = V1(ρ1/ρ2) = V1(p2/p1) * (ρ1/ρ2) = (V1p2/p1) * (ρ1/ρ2) = (V1p2/p1) * (1/4) 1.

Calculate Pv2 and Pv1Pv1 = p1V1 = (p1mRT1)/p1 = mRT1Pv2 = p2V2 = (p2mRT2)/p2 = mRT2* (p2/p1)

2. Determine h1 and h2.Using the given values in the equation, W = h2 - h1, we get the following:

h2 - h1 = u2 + (Pv2) - u1 - (Pv1)h2 - h1 = (u2 - u1) + mR(T2 - T1)h2 - h1 = 33.8 + mR(T2 - T1)

We have all the values to solve for h1 and h2.

Thus, substituting all the values we get the following:

h2 - h1 = 33.8 + mR(T2 - T1)h2 - h1 = 33.8 + ((p1V1)/R) (T2 - T1)h2 - h1 = 33.8 + (p1V1/28.11) (T2 - T1)h2 - h1 = 33.8 + (15*500)/28.11 (80 - 460)h2 - h1 = 1382.25* Work done by the compressor,

W = h2 - h1 = 1382.25 Btu/lbm * (m) * (1 lbm/60s) = 23.04 hp

*Neglecting kinetic energy, we have Work done by the compressor = m(h2 - h1),

So, 23.04 = m(1382.25 - h1), h1 = 1182.21 Btu/lbm

Power, P = W/t = (23.04 hp * 550 ft.lb/s/hp) / (60 s/min) = 210.19 ft.lb/s

Dividing this by 33,000 ft.lb/min/hp, we get:P = 210.19 / 33,000 hp = 0.00636 hp156.32 hp are required to compress the air.

Answer: 156.32 hp

To learn more about Density

https://brainly.com/question/29775886

#SPJ11

The correct answer is A) increases 2 times. The rate of heat loss from a person by convection can be calculated using the equation:

Q = h * A * ΔT

where:

Q is the rate of heat loss (in watts),

h is the convective heat transfer coefficient (in watts per square meter per degree Celsius),

A is the surface area of the person,

ΔT is the temperature difference between the person's skin and the surrounding air.

The convective heat transfer coefficient can be approximated using empirical correlations for flow around a cylinder. For laminar flow around a cylinder, the convective heat transfer coefficient can be estimated as:

h = 2 * (k / D) * (0.62 * Re^0.5 * Pr^(1/3))

where:

k is the thermal conductivity of air,

D is the characteristic length of the person (diameter),

Re is the Reynolds number,

Pr is the Prandtl number.

Given that the person's diameter is 50 cm (0.5 m) and the length is 160 cm (1.6 m), the characteristic length (D) is 0.5 m.

Now, let's consider the velocity of the person. If the velocity is doubled, it means the Reynolds number (Re) will also double. The Reynolds number is defined as:

Re = (ρ * v * D) / μ

where:

ρ is the density of air,

v is the velocity of the person,

D is the characteristic length,

μ is the dynamic viscosity of air.

Since the density (ρ) and dynamic viscosity (μ) of air remain constant, doubling the velocity will double the Reynolds number (Re).

To determine the rate of heat loss when the person's velocity is doubled, we need to compare the convective heat transfer coefficients for the two cases.

For the initial velocity (v), the convective heat transfer coefficient is h1. For the doubled velocity (2v), the convective heat transfer coefficient is h2.

The ratio of the convective heat transfer coefficients is given by:

h2 / h1 = (2 * (k / D) * (0.62 * (2 * Re)^0.5 * Pr^(1/3))) / (2 * (k / D) * (0.62 * Re^0.5 * Pr^(1/3)))

Notice that the constants cancel out, as well as the thermal conductivity (k) and the characteristic length (D).

Therefore, the ratio simplifies to:

h2 / h1 = (2 * Re^0.5 * Pr^(1/3)) / (Re^0.5 * Pr^(1/3)) = 2

This means that the rate of heat loss from the person by convection will increase 2 times when the velocity is doubled.

So, the correct answer is A) increases 2 times.

Learn more about heat loss  here:

https://brainly.com/question/31857421

#SPJ11

A railway buffer consists of two spring / damper cylinders placed side by side. The stiffness of the spring in each cylinder is 56.25 kN/m. A rigid train of mass 200 tonnes moving at 2 m/s collides with the buffer.

If the displacement for a critically damped system is:x=(A+Bte-Where t is time and on is the natural frequency. Calculation. The damping co-efficient. The damping coefficient for a critically damped system is calculated by using the formula given below.

[tex]2 * sqrt(K * m[/tex]) where, [tex]K = stiffness of the spring in each cylinder = 56.25 kN/mm = 56,250 N/mm = 56.25 × 10⁶ N/m.m = mass of the rigid train = 200 tonnes = 2 × 10⁵ kg[/tex], The damping coefficient will be:[tex]2 * sqrt(K * m) = 2 * sqrt(56.25 × 10⁶ × 2 × 10⁵)= 6000 Ns/m[/tex]. The displacement as a function of time.

To know more about railway visit:

https://brainly.com/question/9538661

#SPJ11

For a pipe flow of a given flow rate, the pressure drop in a given length of pipe will be less if the flow is laminar compared to turbulent.

This is because turbulent flows cause more friction and resistance against the pipe walls, which causes the pressure to drop faster over a given length of pipe compared to laminar flows. Laminar flows, on the other hand, have less friction and resistance against the pipe walls, which causes the pressure to drop slower over a given length of pipe.

Static pressure is the pressure exerted by a fluid at rest. It is the same in all directions and is measured perpendicular to the surface. Stagnation pressure is the pressure that results from the flow of a fluid being brought to rest, such as when a fluid collides with a solid surface. Dynamic pressure is the pressure of a fluid in motion. It is measured parallel to the flow and increases as the speed of the fluid increases.

A square entrance to a pipe has a significantly greater loss than a rounded entrance because the sharp corners of the square entrance cause a sudden change in the direction of the flow, which creates eddies and turbulence that increase the loss of energy and pressure. A rounded entrance, on the other hand, allows for a smoother transition from the entrance to the pipe and reduces the amount of turbulence that is created. There is a similar difference in exit loss for a square exit and a rounded exit, with the squared exit experiencing a greater loss than the rounded exit.

Fluid flow in pipes is an essential concept in engineering and physics.

To understand how a fluid moves through a pipe, we need to know the pressure drop, which is the difference in pressure between two points in a pipe. The pressure drop is caused by the friction and resistance that the fluid experiences as it flows through the pipe.The type of flow that the fluid exhibits inside the pipe can affect the pressure drop. If the flow is laminar, the pressure drop will be less than if the flow is turbulent. Laminar flows occur at low Reynolds numbers, which are a dimensionless parameter that describes the ratio of the inertial forces to the viscous forces in a fluid. Turbulent flows, on the other hand, occur at high Reynolds numbers.

In turbulent flows, the fluid particles move chaotically, and this causes a greater amount of friction and resistance against the pipe walls, which leads to a greater pressure drop over a given length of pipe.Static pressure is the pressure that is exerted by a fluid at rest. It is the same in all directions and is measured perpendicular to the surface. Stagnation pressure is the pressure that results from the flow of a fluid being brought to rest, such as when a fluid collides with a solid surface. Dynamic pressure is the pressure of a fluid in motion. It is measured parallel to the flow and increases as the speed of the fluid increases. Static pressure is the pressure that we measure in the absence of motion. In contrast, dynamic pressure is the pressure that we measure due to the motion of the fluid.A square entrance to a pipe has a significantly greater loss than a rounded entrance. This is because the sharp corners of the square entrance cause a sudden change in the direction of the flow, which creates eddies and turbulence that increase the loss of energy and pressure. A rounded entrance, on the other hand, allows for a smoother transition from the entrance to the pipe and reduces the amount of turbulence that is created. There is a similar difference in exit loss for a square exit and a rounded exit, with the squared exit experiencing a greater loss than the rounded exit.

The pressure drop in a given length of pipe will be less if the flow is laminar compared to turbulent because of the less friction and resistance against the pipe walls in laminar flows. Static pressure is the pressure exerted by a fluid at rest. Stagnation pressure is the pressure that results from the flow of a fluid being brought to rest, such as when a fluid collides with a solid surface.

Learn more about Dynamic pressure here:

brainly.com/question/13385367

#SPJ11

Casting defects are undesired irregularities that occur in castings during the casting process, affecting the overall quality of the final product. There are different casting defects that occur in sand castings. Here are the most common ones with illustrations:

1. Blowholes/ Porosity Blowholes or porosity occurs when gas becomes trapped in the casting during the pouring process. It's a common defect that occurs when the sand isn't compacted tightly enough, or when there's too much moisture in the sand or molten metal. It can be minimized by using good quality sand and gating techniques.2. Shrinkage The shrinkage defect occurs when the molten metal contracts as it cools, leading to the formation of voids and cracks in the casting. It's a common defect in sand castings that can be minimized by ensuring proper riser size and placement, good gating techniques, and the use of appropriate alloys.

3. Inclusions are foreign particles that become trapped in the molten metal, leading to the formation of hard spots in the casting. This defect is caused by poor melting practices, dirty melting environments, or the presence of impurities in the metal. It can be minimized by using clean melting environments, proper gating techniques, and using the right type of alloy.4. Misruns occur when the molten metal is unable to fill the entire mold cavity, leading to incomplete casting formation. This defect is usually caused by a low pouring temperature, inadequate gating techniques, or poor sand compaction. It can be minimized by using appropriate pouring temperatures, good gating techniques, and proper sand compaction.

To know more about Blowholes visiṭ:

https://brainly.com/question/32420737

#SPJ11

This gives us:  B = r² sinφ aθ + r² sinφ sinθ aφ + r cosφ az the conversion of the two vectors A and B from cylindrical and spherical coordinates respectively to Cartesian coordinates.

In mathematics, vectors play a very important role in physics and engineering. There are many ways to represent vectors in three-dimensional space, but the most common is to use Cartesian coordinates, also known as rectangular coordinates.

Cartesian coordinates use three values, usually represented by x, y, and z, to define a point in space.

In this question, we are asked to express two vectors, A and B, in Cartesian coordinates.  

A = pzsinØ ap + 3pcosØ aØ + pcosøsing az

In order to express vector A in Cartesian coordinates, we need to convert it from cylindrical coordinates (p, Ø, z) to Cartesian coordinates (x, y, z).

To do this, we use the following equations:  

x = pcosØ y = psinØ z = z

This means that we can rewrite vector A as follows:  

A = (pzsinØ) (cosØ a) + (3pcosØ) (sinØ a) + (pcosØ sinØ) (az)  

A = pz sinØ cosØ a + 3p cosØ sinØ a + p cosØ sinØ a z  

A = (p sinØ cosØ + 3p cosØ sinØ) a + (p cosØ sinØ) az

Simplifying this expression, we get:  

A = p (sinØ cosØ a + cosØ sinØ a) + p cosØ sinØ az  

A = p (2 sinØ cosØ a) + p cosØ sinØ az

We can further simplify this expression by using the trigonometric identity sin 2Ø = 2 sinØ cosØ.

This gives us:  

A = p sin 2Ø a + p cosØ sinØ az B = r² ar + sine ap

To express vector B in Cartesian coordinates, we first need to convert it from spherical coordinates (r, θ, φ) to Cartesian coordinates (x, y, z).

To do this, we use the following equations:  

x = r sinφ cosθ

y = r sinφ sinθ

z = r cosφ

This means that we can rewrite vector B as follows:

B = (r²) (ar) + (sinφ) (ap)

B = (r² sinφ cosθ) a + (r² sinφ sinθ) a + (r cosφ) az

Simplifying this expression, we get:  

B = r² sinφ (cosθ a + sinθ a) + r cosφ az  

B = r² sinφ aθ + r² sinφ sinθ aφ + r cosφ az

We can further simplify this expression by using the trigonometric identity cosθ a + sinθ a = aθ.

to know more about vectors visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29740341

#SPJ11

1. True. In a good conductor, the attenuation constant and the phase constant are equal and are not equal to zero.

2. False. In a good conductor, the magnetic field is in phase with the electric field.

3. True. The intrinsic impedance of a lossless dielectric is pure real. It has no imaginary component.

4. True. At the interface of a perfect electric conductor, the normal component of the electric field is equal to zero.

5. True. For a good conductor, the skin depth decreases as the frequency increases.

6. False. The wave velocity is constant in a lossless dielectric and does not vary with frequency.

7. False. The loss tangent is independent of the magnetic permeability.

8. True. The surface charge density on a dielectric/perfect electric conductor interface is proportional to the normal electric field.

9. True. The tangential electric field inside a perfect electric conductor is zero but the normal component is nonzero.

10. True. The power propagates in lossy dielectric decay with a factor of e-Paz nonzero, where Paz is the propagation constant.

To know more about wave velocity visit:

https://brainly.com/question/1292129

#SPJ11

The pressure as a function of x and y in the given velocity field can be calculated using the Navier-Stokes equations.

To calculate the pressure as a function of x and y, we need to use the Navier-Stokes equations, which describe the motion of fluid. The Navier-Stokes equations consist of the continuity equation and the momentum equation.

In this case, we have been given the velocity field V = (u, v) = (1.3 + 2.8x) i + (1.5 - 2.8y) j, where u represents the velocity component in the x-direction and v represents the velocity component in the y-direction.

The continuity equation states that the divergence of the velocity field is zero, i.e., ∇ · V = ∂u/∂x + ∂v/∂y = 0. By integrating this equation, we can determine the pressure as a function of x and y up to a constant term.

Integrating the continuity equation with respect to x gives us u = ∂ψ/∂y, where ψ is the stream function. Similarly, integrating with respect to y gives us v = -∂ψ/∂x. By differentiating these equations with respect to x and y, respectively, we can find the values of u and v.

By substituting the given values of u and v, we can solve these equations to obtain the stream function ψ. Once we have ψ, we can determine the pressure by integrating the momentum equation, which is ∇p = ρ(∂u/∂t + u∂u/∂x + v∂u/∂y) + μ∇²u + ρg.

The boundary conditions and any additional information about the system are not provided in the question, so the exact solution of the pressure as a function of x and y cannot be determined without further constraints or boundary conditions.

Learn more about Navier-Stokes Equations.
brainly.com/question/29181204

#SPJ11.

If the line code is a polar code, the bandwidth of the LPF needed after the amplifier is given as:

Bandwidth of the LPF, Bp = (1 + r) R/2Where R is the line rate (Rs) and r is the roll-off factor (0.5).

Therefore, Bp = (1 + 0.5) (3000 bits/s)/2 = 3375 Hz

Signal Power, Ps = (0.6)2 = 0.36V2 = 0.36/50 = 7.2 mW

Noise Power, Pn = No * Bp = 2.5 x 10-6 * 3375 = 8.44 x 10-3 WSNR(dB) = [tex]10 log (Ps/Pn) = 10 log (7.2 x 10-3 / 8.44 x 10-3) = -0.7385[/tex] dBPart

If the line code is bipolar code, the bandwidth of the LPF needed after the amplifier is given as:

Bandwidth of the LPF, Bb = (1 + r/π) R/2Where R is the line rate (Rs), r is the roll-off factor (0.5), and Tsin is the time of the first null of the PSD of the bipolar code.

PSD of bipolar code, [tex]Sy(f) = l P(f)2 / T sin2Sy(f) = l P(f)2 / T sin2 = (0.6)2 / (2T sin)2 = > Tsin = 0.6/(2sqrt(Sy(f)T))[/tex]

Substituting the given values,[tex]Tsin = 0.6/(2sqrt(0.6 * 3000 * 1)) = 5.4772[/tex]

Therefore, Bb = (1 + r/π) R/2 = (1 + 0.5/π) (3000 bits/s)/2 = 3412.94 HzSignal Power, Ps = (0.6)2 = 0.36V2 = 0.36/50 = 7.2 mW

The bandwidth of the LPF needed after the amplifier in bipolar code is 3412.94 Hz, and the corresponding SNR in dB is -0.8192 dB.

To know more about code visit:

https://brainly.com/question/15301012

#SPJ11

A -  v = 24.08 km/s  To determine the arrival excess velocity when reaching Mars' sphere of influence following a Hohmann transfer trajectory, we can use the vis-viva equation  v^2 = GM*(2/r - 1/a)

where v is the velocity, G is the gravitational constant, M is the mass of Mars, r is the distance from Mars' center, and a is the semi-major axis of the spacecraft's transfer orbit.

For a Hohmann transfer, the semi-major axis of the transfer orbit is the sum of the radii of the departure and arrival orbits. The departure orbit is the Earth's orbit and the arrival orbit is the Mars' orbit.

Let's assume the radius of Earth's orbit is 1 AU (149.6 million km) and the radius of Mars' orbit is 1.52 AU (227.9 million km). We can calculate the semi-major axis of the transfer orbit:

a = (149.6 + 227.9) / 2 = 188.75 million km

Next, we can calculate the velocity at Mars' orbit:

v = sqrt(GM*(2/r - 1/a))

v = sqrt(6.674e-11 * 6.39e23 * (2/(227.9e6 * 1000) - 1/(188.75e6 * 1000)))

v = 24.08 km/s

To calculate the arrival excess velocity, we subtract the velocity of Mars in its orbit around the Sun (24.08 km/s) from the velocity of the spacecraft:

Arrival excess velocity = v - 24.08 km/s

Arrival excess velocity = 0 km/s

Therefore, the arrival excess velocity is 0 km/s.

B - Since the arrival excess velocity is 0 km/s, the spacecraft is on a parabolic trajectory when entering Mars' sphere of influence with a periapsis altitude of 400 km.

C - To circularize the orbit, we need to change the velocity of the spacecraft at periapsis to match the orbital velocity required for a circular orbit at the given altitude. The delta-v required to circularize the orbit can be calculated using the vis-viva equation:

v_circular = sqrt(GM/r)

where v_circular is the circular orbital velocity, G is the gravitational constant, M is the mass of Mars, and r is the periapsis altitude.

Let's assume the periapsis altitude is 400 km (400,000 meters). We can calculate the delta-v required to circularize the orbit:

Delta-v = v_circular - v_periapsis

Delta-v = sqrt(GM/r) - v_periapsis

Using the known values:

Delta-v = sqrt(6.674e-11 * 6.39e23 / (3389e3 + 400e3)) - v_periapsis

Delta-v = 2.65 km/s - v_periapsis

The magnitude of the delta-v is given in absolute value, so the answer is:

Delta-v = |2.65 km/s - v_periapsis|

D - The delta-v required to circularize the orbit should be oriented tangentially to the spacecraft's orbit at periapsis. This means the delta-v vector should be perpendicular to the radius vector at periapsis.

E - If the spacecraft circularized the orbit before entering Mars' sphere of influence, it would be on a circular orbit around Mars with a radius equal to the periapsis altitude (400 km).

To learn more about   mars click here:

/brainly.com/question/33224676?r

#SPJ11

(i). Sketch the free workspace and trapezoidate it (using the sweeping trapezoidation algorithm):The sketch of the free workspace and the trapezoidal partition using the sweeping trapezoidal algorithm are as follows: Fig. 2: Problem 3(ii). Sketch the dual graph for the trapezoidal partition and the roadmap:

The dual graph for the trapezoidal partition and the roadmap can be shown as follows: Fig. 2: Problem 3(iii). Sketch a path from start point to goal point in the dual graph and an associated path in the workspace that a robot can follow.A path from the start point to the goal point in the dual graph is shown below. The solid lines indicate the chosen path from the start to the goal node in the dual graph. The associated path in the workspace is indicated by the dashed line. Fig. 2: Problem 3

To summarize, the given problem is related to Partitions and roadmaps, and the solution of the problem is given in three parts. In the first part, we sketched the free workspace and trapezoidated it using the sweeping trapezoidal algorithm. In the second part, we sketched the dual graph for the trapezoidal partition and the roadmap. Finally, we sketched a path from the start point to the goal point in the dual graph and an associated path in the workspace that a robot can follow.

To know more about trapezoidate visit:

brainly.com/question/31380175

#SPJ11

The modern rocket design is based on the staging of rocket operations. The rocket staging is based on the concept of shedding stages as they are expended, rather than carrying them along throughout the entire journey, and the result is that modern rockets can achieve impressive speeds and altitudes.

In rocket staging, the concept of velocity is crucial. In both the series and parallel rocket engine types, the rocket velocity AV performances for 5-stage and 6-stage rockets, as in general forms without numerics, can be analysed as follows:Series Rocket Engine Type: A series rocket engine type is used when each engine is fired separately, one after the other. The exhaust velocity Ve is constant throughout all stages. The general velocity AV expression is expressed as AV = Ve ln (W1 / W2).

Parallel Rocket Engine Type: A parallel rocket engine type has multiple engines that are fired simultaneously during all stages of flight. The general velocity AV expression is expressed as AV = Ve ln (W1 / W2) + (P2 - P1)A / m. Where A is the cross-sectional area of the nozzle throat, and P1 and P2 are the chamber pressure at the throat and nozzle exit, respectively.Both rocket engines can be compared based on their 4 rocket velocity AV options.

To know more about design visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30518341

#SPJ11

a) For horizontal flow of a liquid in a rectangular duct between parallel plates, the pressure varies linearly both in the direction of flow and in the direction normal to the plates. This is a true statement.

b) For flows occurring between r= 0 and r= a in cylindrical coordinates, the term In r may appear in the final expression for one of the velocity components. This statement is also true.

c) For flows in ducts and pipes, the volumetric flow rate can be obtained by differentiating the velocity profile. This is a true statement

d) If, in three dimensions, the pressure obeys the equation Op/ dy = -pg, and both Op/ Ox and op/ öz are nonzero, then integration of this equation gives the pressure as p = -ogy+c, where c is a constant. This statement is true.

a) For horizontal flow of a liquid in a rectangular duct between parallel plates, the pressure varies linearly both in the direction of flow and in the direction normal to the plates. This is a true statement. For horizontal flow of a liquid in a rectangular duct between parallel plates, the pressure varies linearly both in the direction of flow and in the direction normal to the plates.

b) For flows occurring between r= 0 and r= a in cylindrical coordinates, the term In r may appear in the final expression for one of the velocity components. This statement is also true. In r may appear in the final expression for one of the velocity components in flows occurring between r= 0 and r= a in cylindrical coordinates.

c) For flows in ducts and pipes, the volumetric flow rate can be obtained by differentiating the velocity profile. This is a true statement as well. For flows in ducts and pipes, the volumetric flow rate can be obtained by differentiating the velocity profile.

d) If, in three dimensions, the pressure obeys the equation

Op/ dy = -pg,

and both Op/ Ox and op/ öz are nonzero, then integration of this equation gives the pressure as

p = -ogy+c,

where c is a constant. This statement is true. If, in three dimensions, the pressure obeys the equation

Op/ dy = -pg,

and both Op/ Ox and op/ öz are nonzero, then integration of this equation gives the pressure as

p = -ogy+c,

where c is a constant.

To know more about cylindrical coordinates visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31434197

#SPJ11

Given equation is e^x = 10(x^2 - 1).

By arranging the given equation, we get x = g(x).

Let us consider x1 as the negative root of the given equation.

First case, using x = ln(10(x² - 1)),

the iteration formula is given as

Xn + 1 = ln (10 (Xn^2 - 1))

The initial approximation is

x0 = -0.5

The iteration procedure is shown below in the table.

For n = 4, the value of Xn+1 = -1.48 is closer to the real root -1.49.

Case 2, x = (ln⁡(10x² - 1))/x iteration formula is given as Xn + 1 = (ln⁡(10Xn^2 - 1))/Xn

The initial approximation is x0 = 1.5

The iteration procedure is shown below in the table. For n = 4, the value of Xn+1 = 1.28 is closer to the real root 1.28.Case 3, x = √(ln⁡10(x² - 1)) / √10

iteration formula is given as Xn + 1 = √(ln⁡10(Xn^2 - 1))/√10

The initial approximation is x0 = 0.5

The iteration procedure is shown below in the table. For n = 4, the value of Xn+1 = 0.88 is closer to the real root 0.89.

Therefore, the three roots of the equation are x = -1.49, 1.28, and 0.89, respectively.

The sequences of approximation for each case are shown above.

To know more about consider visit :

https://brainly.com/question/30746025

#SPJ11

There are 16 quantization levels available for the ADC and the quantization interval for this ADC is 2V.

To find the number of quantization levels and the quantization interval for a 4-bit analog-to-digital converter (ADC) with a maximum detection voltage of 32V, we need to consider the resolution of the ADC.

i) The number of quantization levels (N) can be determined using the formula:

N = 2^B

where B is the number of bits. In this case, B = 4, so the number of quantization levels is:

N = 2^4 = 16

ii) The quantization interval (Q) represents the difference between two adjacent quantization levels and can be calculated by dividing the maximum detection voltage by the number of quantization levels. In this case, the maximum detection voltage is 32V, and the number of quantization levels is 16:

Q = Maximum detection voltage / Number of quantization levels

= 32V / 16

= 2V

To know more about quantisation level;

https://brainly.com/question/33216934

#PJ11

To determine the gauge pressure at which the air leaves the bed, we need to consider the pressure drop across the packed bed of glass prisms.

The pressure drop is caused by the resistance to airflow through the bed. First, let's calculate the pressure drop due to the weight of the glass prisms in the bed:

1. Determine the volume of the glass prisms:

  - Volume = (area of prism base) x (height of prism) x (number of prisms)

  - Area of prism base = (length of prism) x (width of prism)

  - Number of prisms = mass of prisms / (density of prisms x volume of one prism)

2. Calculate the weight of the glass prisms:

  - Weight = mass of prisms x g

3. Calculate the pressure drop due to the weight of the prisms:

  - Pressure drop = (Weight / area of column cross-section) / (height of fluidized bed)

Next, we need to consider the pressure drop due to the resistance to airflow through the bed. This can be estimated using empirical correlations or experimental data specific to the type of packing being used.

Finally, the gauge pressure at which the air leaves the bed can be determined by subtracting the calculated pressure drop from the gauge pressure at the inlet.

Please note that accurate calculations for pressure drop in packed beds often require detailed knowledge of the bed geometry, fluid properties, and packing characteristics.

To learn more about gauge pressure, click here:

https://brainly.com/question/30698101

#SPJ11

The three combinations of permanent load, wind load and floor variable load are:
Case I: Dead load + wind load
Case II: Dead load + wind load + floor variable load
Case III: Dead load + wind load + 0.5 * floor variable load
The most unfavorable internal force of the general frame structure is the maximum moment of each floor beam under the most unfavorable load combination.

General frame structures carry a combination of permanent load, wind load, and floor variable load. The three combinations of permanent load, wind load and floor variable load are case I (dead load + wind load), case II (dead load + wind load + floor variable load), and case III (dead load + wind load + 0.5 * floor variable load). Of these, the most unfavorable internal force of the general frame structure is the maximum moment of each floor beam under the most unfavorable load combination. The maximum moment of each floor beam is calculated to determine the most unfavorable internal force.  

The maximum moment of each floor beam is considered the most unfavorable internal force of the general frame structure. The three combinations of permanent load, wind load, and floor variable load include dead load + wind load, dead load + wind load + floor variable load, and dead load + wind load + 0.5 * floor variable load.

To know more about moment visit:
https://brainly.com/question/33325510
#SPJ11

A 0.5 m long vertical plate is at a temperature of 70°C. The air around it is at 30°C and 1 atm. At 10 m/s, the air comes into the plate from the blower.

The answers to the given queries are as follows:

1) Grashof Number of Flow Grashof Number is calculated using the following formula:

Gr = (gβΔTl³) / (ν²) Here, g is acceleration due to gravity, β is coefficient of thermal expansion, ΔT is temperature difference between the two surfaces, l is the length of the plate, and ν is the kinematic viscosity of the fluid.The values of the constants can be found in the following way:g = 9.81 m/s²β = 1/T where T is the average temperature between the two surfacesν = μ / ρ, where μ is dynamic viscosity, and ρ is density.

Now, we can use these formulas to find the values of the constants, and then use the Grashof Number equation to solve for Gr.Gr = 4.15 x 10^9

The Reynolds number is used to determine whether the flow is laminar or turbulent. It is defined as:

Re = (ρvl) / μ Here, ρ is the density of the fluid, v is the velocity of the fluid, l is the length of the plate, and μ is the dynamic viscosity of the fluid.

The value of the constants can be found in the following way:

ρ = 1.18 kg/m³

μ = 1.85 x 10^-5 Ns/m²

Re = 31,783

Since the value of Re is greater than 2300, the flow is turbulent.

3) The type of flow is mixed convection flow because it is influenced by both natural and forced convection.

4) The most accurate estimate for the average heat transfer coefficient can be found using the following equation:

Nu = (0.60 + 0.387(Gr Pr)^(1/6)) / (1 + (0.559 / Pr)^(9/16))

Here, Nu is the Nusselt number, Gr is the Grashof number, and Pr is the Prandtl number.

We already know the value of Gr, and we can find the value of Pr using the following formula:

Pr = ν / αwhere α is the thermal diffusivity of the fluid. α = k / (ρ cp), where k is the thermal conductivity of the fluid, and cp is the specific heat at constant pressure.

Now we can use these equations to find the value of Nu, which will help us solve for h, using the following formula:

Nu = h l / k

The value of h is found to be 88.8 W/m²K.5)

The rate of convection heat transfer from the plate is given by the following formula:

q = h A ΔTwhere A is the area of the plate, and ΔT is the temperature difference between the two surfaces.

Now, the width of the plate is 1m, so the area of the plate is 0.5 m x 1 m = 0.5 m².

Now, we can use the equation to find the value of q:

q = 88.8 x 0.5 x (70-30)q = 2220 W6)

The thickness of the thermal boundary at the top of the plate can be found using the following equation:

δ = 5 x ((x / l) + 0.015(Re x / l)^(4/5))^(1/6)

Here, δ is the thermal boundary layer thickness, l is the length of the plate, and x is the distance from the leading edge of the plate.

The value of Re x / l can be found using the following formula:

Re x / l = (ρ v x) / μ

Now, we can use these equations to find the value of δ, when x = 0.5 m.

In conclusion, the Grashof number is 4.15 x 10^9, and the flow is turbulent because the Reynolds number is 31,783. The type of flow is mixed convection flow because it is influenced by both natural and forced convection. The most accurate estimate for the average heat transfer coefficient is 88.8 W/m²K. The rate of convection heat transfer from the plate is 2220 W. Finally, the thickness of the thermal boundary at the top of the plate is 0.0063 m.

To know more about dynamic viscosity visit:

brainly.com/question/30761521

#SPJ11

To determine the volume of the tank, temperature at the final state, and the heat transfer, we need to consider the principles of thermodynamics and the properties of water.

First, let's calculate the mass of water in the tank. Given that there are 0.8 lb of saturated vapor and 6.0 lb of saturated liquid, the total mass of water in the tank is:

Mass of water = Mass of vapor + Mass of liquid

= 0.8 lb + 6.0 lb

= 6.8 lb

Next, we need to determine the specific volume of water at the initial state. The specific volume of saturated liquid water at 212°F is approximately 0.01605 ft³/lb. Assuming the water in the tank is incompressible, we can approximate the specific volume of the water in the tank as:

Specific volume of water = Volume of tank / Mass of water

Rearranging the equation, we have:

Volume of tank = Specific volume of water x Mass of water

Plugging in the values, we get:

Volume of tank = 0.01605 ft³/lb x 6.8 lb

= 0.10926 ft³

So, the volume of the tank is approximately 0.10926 ft³.

Since the tank is closed and rigid, the specific volume remains constant during the heating process. Therefore, the specific volume of the water at the final state is still 0.01605 ft³/lb.

To find the temperature at the final state, we can use the steam tables or properties of water. The saturation temperature corresponding to saturated vapor at atmospheric pressure (since the tank is closed) is approximately 212°F. Thus, the temperature at the final state is 212°F.

Lastly, to determine the heat transfer, we can use the principle of conservation of energy:

Heat transfer = Change in internal energy of water

Since the system is closed and there are no changes in kinetic or potential energy, the heat transfer will be equal to the change in enthalpy:

Heat transfer = Mass of water x Specific heat capacity x Change in temperature

The specific heat capacity of water is approximately 1 Btu/lb·°F. The change in temperature is the final temperature (212°F) minus the initial temperature (212°F).

Plugging in the values, we get:

Heat transfer = 6.8 lb x 1 Btu/lb·°F x (212°F - 212°F)

= 0 Btu

Therefore, the heat transfer in this process is 0 Btu.

In summary, the volume of the tank is approximately 0.10926 ft³, the temperature at the final state is 212°F, and the heat transfer is 0 Btu.

To know more about volume of the tank visit:

https://brainly.com/question/14266386

#SPJ11

The weld metal, HAZ (Heat Affected Zone), and base metal zones are distinguished based on the microstructure formed. The phase diagram and heat input assist in explaining how the three zones above are formed. It is known that welding causes the formation of a Heat Affected Zone, which is a region of a metal where the structure and properties have been altered by heat.

During welding, the weld metal, HAZ, and base metal zones are created. Let's take a closer look at each of these zones: Weld metal zone: This zone is made up of the material that melts during the welding process and then re-solidifies. The microstructure of the weld metal zone is influenced by the chemical composition and the thermal cycles experienced during welding. In this zone, the heat input is high, resulting in fast cooling rates. This rapid cooling rate causes a structure called Martensite to form, which is a hard, brittle microstructure. The microstructure of this zone can be seen on the left side of the phase diagram.

Heat Affected Zone (HAZ): This zone is adjacent to the weld metal zone and is where the base metal has been heated but has not melted. The HAZ is formed when the base metal is exposed to elevated temperatures, causing the microstructure to be altered. The HAZ's microstructure is determined by the cooling rate and peak temperature experienced by the metal. The cooling rate and peak temperature are influenced by the amount of heat input into the metal. The microstructure of this zone can be seen in the middle section of the phase diagram. Base metal zone: This is the region of the metal that did not experience elevated temperatures and remained at ambient temperature during welding. Its microstructure remains unaffected by the welding process. The microstructure of this zone can be seen on the right side of the phase diagram.

To know more about metal visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29404080

#SPJ11

The estimated endurance strength for a cold-rolled 1040 steel 100 mm square bar is the stress level below which the metal can sustain indefinitely without experiencing fatigue failure. The operating temperature is 100 C and a reliability of 99% will be required, and the bar will be loaded axially. The estimated endurance strength for a cold-rolled 1040 steel 100 mm square bar is 279.3 MPa.

An endurance limit is given by a graph of stress amplitude against the number of cycles. If a specimen is subjected to cyclic loading below its endurance limit, it will withstand an infinite number of cycles without experiencing fatigue failure. The fatigue limit, sometimes known as the endurance limit, is the stress level below which the metal can endure an infinite number of stress cycles without failure.

According to the given terms, the estimated endurance strength for a cold-rolled 1040 steel 100 mm square bar can be calculated as follows:The endurance strength can be estimated using the equation:

Endurance strength= K × (ultimate tensile strength)^a

Where:K = Fatigue strength reduction factor (related to reliability)

α = Exponent in the S-N diagram

N = Number of cycles to failure

Therefore,

Endurance strength= K × (ultimate tensile strength)^a

Here, for the cold-rolled 1040 steel, the value of K and α will be determined based on the type of loading, surface condition, and other factors. For a rough estimate, we can assume that the value of K is 0.8 for reliability of 99%.Thus,

Endurance strength= K × (ultimate tensile strength)^a

= 0.8 × (590 MPa)^0.1

= 279.3 MPa

The estimated endurance strength for a cold-rolled 1040 steel 100 mm square bar is 279.3 MPa.

To know more about endurance strength visit:

https://brainly.com/question/3213711

#SPJ11

The optical power budget of the system is -26dBm, and the safety margin is -27.1dBm.

Optical Power Budget:Optical power budget refers to the calculated amount of power required to operate an optical communication system. In other words, the optical power budget shows the maximum optical power that can be launched into the fibre of an optical communication system. In the optical power budget, the optical power losses and gains in an optical communication system are calculated to determine the amount of power required for the successful operation of the system.
Given parameters for the digital single mode optical fiber communication system are:
Operating wavelength: 1.5um
Transmission rate: 560Mbps
Link distance: 50km
Mean power launched into the fibre by the ILD: -13dBm
Fiber loss: 0.35dB/km
Splice loss: 0.1dB at 1km intervals
Connector loss at the receiver: 0.5dB
Receiver sensitivity: -39dBm
Predicted Extinction Ratio penalty: 1.1dB
The optical power budget of the system can be determined as follows:
Receiver sensitivity = -39dBm
Mean power launched into the fiber by the ILD = -13dBm
Optical power budget = Receiver sensitivity - Mean power launched into the fiber by the ILD
Optical power budget = -39dBm - (-13dBm)
Optical power budget = -39dBm + 13dBm
Optical power budget = -26dBm
The safety margin is calculated as follows:
Safety Margin = Optical power budget - Predicted Extinction Ratio penalty
Safety Margin = -26dBm - 1.1dB
Safety Margin = -27.1dBm

To know more about optical power budget, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30552443

#SPJ11

The shear force Q at x = L/2 is 10.88 kN in the downward direction.

Shear force and Bending Moment in an Elastic Beam are given by below formula

Shear force: V(x) = t (L-x)

Moment: M(x) = t(Lx - x2/2) - P(x - 2L)

Bending equation: EI (d2y/dx2) = M(x)

Deflection equation: EI (d4y/dx4) = 0

Explanation: Given that,

Length of beam = 2L

Tapered load = tUDL at

x = 0 to

L = tP load at

x = 2

L = P

For the equation of the deflection curve, we need to find the equation for

EI * d4y/dx4 = 0.

When integrating, we find that the equation of the elastic curve can be expressed as follows:

y(x) = (t/24EI) (x- L)² (2L³-3Lx² + x³) - (P/6EI) (x-L)³ + (tL²/2EI) (x-L) + Cy + Dy² + Ey³

where, C, D, and E are constants to be determined by the boundary conditions.

Slope and Deflection are given by below formulas

Slope: dy/dx = (t/6EI) (L-x)² - (P/2EI) (x - L)² + (tL²/2EI)

Deflection: y = (t/24EI) (x-L)³ - (P/6EI) (x-L)³ - (t/24EI) (x-L)² + Cx + Dx² + Ex³ + F

Conclusion: Shear force: V(x) = t (L-x)

Moment: M(x) = t(Lx - x2/2) - P(x - 2L)

Slope: dy/dx = (t/6EI) (L-x)² - (P/2EI) (x - L)² + (tL²/2EI)

Deflection: y = (t/24EI) (x-L)³ - (P/6EI) (x-L)³ - (t/24EI) (x-L)² + Cx + Dx² + Ex³ + F

QUESTION 6 Answer: 9.36 KN

Explanation: Given,

L = 1.5 m

t = 48 kN/m

P = 12.6 kN

From the above formulas, Q(2L) = -tL + P

= -48*1.5 + 12.6

= -63.6 kN

= 63.6/(-1)

= 63.6 KN

Negative sign indicates the downward direction of force, which is opposite to the positive direction assumed for the force.

Hence, shear force Q = -63.6 KN will act in the upward direction at the point

x = 2L.

QUESTION 7 Answer: 38.297 KNm

Explanation: Given,

L = 1.7 m

t = 14.5 kN/m

P = 29.9 kN

From the above formulas, M(x = L) = -Pt + tL²/2

= -29.9(1.7) + 14.5(1.7)²/2

= -38.297 KNm

Negative sign indicates the clockwise moment, which is opposite to the anticlockwise moment assumed. Hence, the moment M at x = L is 38.297 kNm in the clockwise direction.

QUESTION 8 Answer: 18.49 KN

Explanation: Given,

L = 1.6 m

t = 13.6 kN/m

P = 20.6 kN

From the above formulas, The Shear force Q is given by,

Q(L/2) = -t(L/2)

= -13.6(1.6/2)

= -10.88 KN

= 10.88/(-1)

= 10.88 KN (negative sign indicates the downward direction of force, which is opposite to the positive direction assumed for the force).

Hence, the shear force Q at x = L/2 is 10.88 kN in the downward direction.

To know more about shear visit

https://brainly.com/question/11503323

#SPJ11

a) i) Fatigue loading Fatigue loading refers to the type of loading that develops due to cyclic stress conditions. Fatigue loading, unlike static loading, can occur when the same loading is repeatedly applied on a material that is already under stress.

This fatigue loading effect can result in a material experiencing different amounts of stress at different times during its lifespan, ultimately leading to failure if the stress levels exceed the endurance limit of the material. ii) Endurance limit. The endurance limit is defined as the maximum amount of stress that a material can endure before it starts to experience fatigue failure.

This means that if the material is subjected to stresses below its endurance limit, it can withstand an infinite number of stress cycles without undergoing fatigue failure. The fatigue strength of a material is typically determined by subjecting the material to a series of cyclic loading conditions at different stress levels.

To know more about develops visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29659448

#SPJ11

a) Solid output shaft diameter for a safety factor of three: approximately 53.69 mm.  b) Hollow shaft internal diameter: around 32.63 mm, with 52.72% weight savings.

a) To determine the suitable diameter for a solid output shaft with a safety factor of three, we can use the formula for shear stress:

τ = 16T / (πd³)

Rearranging the formula to solve for the diameter (d), we have:

d = (16T / (πτ))^(1/3)

Given function that the engine develops 150 kW (150,000 W) at 1500 rpm, we need to convert the power to torque:

Torque (T) = Power (P) / (2πN/60)

Substituting the Linear program values, we have:

T = 150,000 / (2π(1500/60))
 = 150,000 / (2π(25))
 = 150,000 / (50π)
 = 3000 / π

Now, we can calculate the suitable diameter:

d = (16(3000/π) / (π(160/3)))^(1/3)
 ≈ 53.69 mm

Therefore, a suitable diameter for the solid output shaft to achieve a safety factor of three is approximately 53.69 mm.

b) If the shaft is hollow with an external diameter of 50 mm, the internal diameter (di) can be determined using the same shear stress formula and considering the new external diameter (de) and the safety factor:

di = ((16T) / (πτ))^(1/3) - de

Given an external diameter (de) of 50 mm, we can calculate the suitable internal diameter:

di = ((16(3000/π)) / (π(160/3)))^(1/3) - 50
  ≈ 32.63 mm

Thus, a suitable internal diameter for the hollow shaft to achieve a safety factor of three is approximately 32.63 mm.

To calculate the percentage saving in weight, we compare the cross-sectional areas of the solid and hollow shafts:

Weight saving percentage = ((A_solid - A_hollow) / A_solid) * 100

Where A_solid = π(d_solid)^2 / 4 and A_hollow = π(de^2 - di^2) / 4.

By substituting the values, we can determine the weight saving percentage.

To calculate the weight saving percentage, we first need to calculate the cross-sectional areas of the solid and hollow shafts.

For the solid shaft:
A_solid = π(d_solid^2) / 4
       = π(53.69^2) / 4
       ≈ 2256.54 mm^2

For the hollow shaft:
A_hollow = π(de^2 - di^2) / 4
        = π(50^2 - 32.63^2) / 4
        ≈ 1066.81 mm^2

Next, we can calculate the weight saving percentage:
Weight saving percentage = ((A_solid - A_hollow) / A_solid) * 100
                       = ((2256.54 - 1066.81) / 2256.54) * 100
                       ≈ 52.72%

Therefore, by using a hollow shaft with an internal diameter of approximately 32.63 mm and an external diameter of 50 mm, we achieve a weight saving of about 52.72% compared to a solid shaft with a diameter of 53.69 mm.

Learn more about Linear program click here :brainly.com/question/30763902

#SPJ11

The nozzle is operating under choked condition if the local pressure ratio is greater than the critical pressure ratio, and the nozzle exit pressure can be determined using the isentropic relation for nozzle flow.

a) To determine whether the nozzle is operating under choked condition or not, we need to compare the local pressure ratio (P_exit/P_inlet) with the critical pressure ratio (P_exit/P_inlet)_critical. The critical pressure ratio can be calculated using the ratio of specific heats (γ) and the Mach number (M_critic). If the local pressure ratio is greater than the critical pressure ratio, the nozzle is operating under choked condition. Otherwise, it is not.

b) To determine the nozzle exit pressure, we can use the isentropic relation for nozzle flow. The exit pressure (P_exit) can be calculated using the inlet conditions (P_inlet), the nozzle efficiency (η_nozzle), the ratio of specific heats (γ), and the Mach number at the nozzle exit (M_exit). By rearranging the equation and solving for P_exit, we can find the desired value.

Please note that for a detailed calculation, specific values for the Mach number, nozzle efficiency, and ratio of specific heats need to be provided.

Learn more about nozzle

brainly.com/question/32333301

#SPJ11

A synchronous motor driving a synchronous generator is used to produce 60 Hz power at a location in Europe, where 200 kW of 60 Hz power is needed, but only 50 Hz power sources are available

The question is asking for the number of poles of the synchronous generator that should be connected with a 10-pole synchronous motor to convert the power from 50 Hz to 60 Hz.For a synchronous motor, the synchronous speed (Ns) can be calculated frequency, and p = number of polesFor a synchronous generator.

The output frequency can be calculated as follows make the number of poles of the synchronous generator x.Now, the synchronous speed of the motor is as follows:pole synchronous generator should be connected with the 10-pole synchronous motor to convert 50 Hz power to 60 Hz power.

To know more about synchronous visit:

https://brainly.com/question/27189278

#SPJ11

We can calculate the dimensions of the flywheel using the given information and the above formulas. m = Volume * ρ

To determine the dimensions of the flywheel, we need to calculate the energy stored and use it to find the required mass and dimensions.

Calculate the energy stored in the flywheel:

The maximum energy stored per unit area (U) is given as 2850 m². Since the total energy stored (E) is directly proportional to the volume of the flywheel, we can calculate it as follows:

E = U * Volume

Calculate the total energy stored in the flywheel:

The total energy stored is given by:

E = (1/2) * I * ω²

Where I is the moment of inertia and ω is the angular velocity.

Calculate the moment of inertia (I) of the flywheel:

The moment of inertia can be calculated using the formula:

I = m * r²

Where m is the mass of the flywheel and r is the radius of gyration.

Calculate the radius of gyration (r):

The radius of gyration can be calculated using the formula:

r = √(I / m)

Calculate the inner diameter (D_inner) and outer diameter (D_outer) of the flywheel:

Given that the inner diameter is 0.9 times the outer diameter, we can express the relationship as:

D_inner = 0.9 * D_outer

Calculate the thickness (t) of the flywheel:

The thickness can be calculated as:

t = (D_outer - D_inner) / 2

Given the density (ρ) of the flywheel material, we can calculate the mass (m) as:

m = Volume * ρ

Know more about angular velocity here:

https://brainly.com/question/30237820

#SPJ11

Using an allowable shearing stress of 8,000 psi, design a solid steel shaft to transmit 14 hp at a speed of 1800 rpm. The minimum diameter is 1.25 inches.

Given:

Power, P = 14 hp speed,

N = 1800 rpm

Shear stress, τ = 8000 psi

The formula used: Power transmitted = 2 * π * N * T/60,

where T = torque

T = (P * 6600)/N

= (14 * 6600)/1800

= 51.333 in-lb

The minimum diameter, d, of the shaft is given by the relation, τ = 16T/πd²The above relation is derived from the following formula, Shearing stress, τ = F / A, where F is the force applied, A is the area of the object, and τ is the shearing stress. The formula is then rearranged to solve for the minimum diameter, d. Substituting the values,

8000 = (16 * 51.333)/πd²d

= 1.213 in

≈ 1.25 in

The minimum diameter is 1.25 inches.

for further information on power visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29575208

#SPJ11

A. NTU_co-current = (10,000 W/m²/K * A) / min(5.7596 kW/°C, 12.54 kW/°C)

B. NTU_counter-current = (10,000 W/m²/K * A) / (5.7596 kW/°C + 12.54 kW/°C)

C. A_co-current = NTU_co-current * min(5.7596 kW/°C, 12.54 kW/°C) / 10,000 W/m²/K

Cp1 = specific heat capacity of ethylene glycol = 2.42 kJ/kg°C

Cp2 = specific heat capacity of water = 4.18 kJ/kg°C

C1 = m1 * Cp1

C2 = m2 * Cp2

B. Calculating the heat transfer area:

The heat transfer area is calculated using the formula:

A = NTU * min(C1, C2) / U

C. Difference in size between co-current and counter-current designs:

The difference in size between co-current and counter-current heat exchangers lies in their effectiveness (ε) values. Co-current heat exchangers typically have lower effectiveness compared to counter-current heat exchangers.

Counter-current design allows for better heat transfer between the two fluids, resulting in higher effectiveness and smaller heat transfer area requirements.

Now, let's calculate the values:

A. Calculating the NTU:

C1 = 2.38 kg/s * 2.42 kJ/kg°C = 5.7596 kW/°C

C2 = 3 kg/s * 4.18 kJ/kg°C = 12.54 kW/°C

NTU_co-current = (10,000 W/m²/K * A) / min(5.7596 kW/°C, 12.54 kW/°C)

NTU_counter-current = (10,000 W/m²/K * A) / (5.7596 kW/°C + 12.54 kW/°C)

B. Calculating the heat transfer area:

A_co-current

= NTU_co-current * min(5.7596 kW/°C, 12.54 kW/°C) / 10,000 W/m²/K

A_counter-current

= NTU_counter-current * (5.7596 kW/°C + 12.54 kW/°C) / 10,000 W/m²/K

C. The physical background of the difference in size:

The difference in size between co-current and counter-current designs can be explained by the different flow patterns of the two designs.

In a counter-current heat exchanger, the hot and cold fluids flow in opposite directions, which allows for a larger temperature difference between the fluids along the heat transfer surface

D. A_counter-current = NTU_counter-current * (5.7596 kW/°C + 12.54 kW/°C) / 10,000 W/m²/K

E. Counter-current design has higher effectiveness, resulting in smaller heat transfer area requirements.

Read more on heat exchange here https://brainly.com/question/16055406

#SPJ4