assessment of a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle collision reveals tenderness over ribs 9-12 on the lateral right side. based on this injury, the emt should be alert for which additional concern?

Answers

Answer 1

The EMT should be on the lookout for liver damage in light of this incident.

How do you define EMT?

The most prevalent EMS service providers are Emergency Medical Technicians (EMTs), also known as EMTs.

The fundamental abilities needed to assist in life-threatening situations are taught to EMTs, and many of them go on to obtain an Advanced EMT credential or become Paramedics.

What is an EMT's function?

Basic Emergency Medical Technicians (EMT-B) respond to emergency calls to treat the injured and critically ill quickly and effectively while transporting the patient to a hospital.

Are EMTs and paramedics the same thing?

EMTs and paramedics generally differ in their level of education and the kind of operations they are permitted to do.

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Related Questions

when an individual aspirates food particles, where would the nurse expect to hear decreased or absent breath sounds?

Answers

If an individual aspirates food particles, the place where the nurse expect to hear decreased or absent breath sounds is option b: Right lung.

What occurs if individual aspirates food particles?

The right lung is known to be an organ that is said to be made up of three lobes which are;

The right upper lobe (RUL)The right middle lobe (RML)The right lower lobe (RLL)

In regards to Aspiration, it is known to be one that is said to be most likely to take place in the right mainstem bronchus due to the fact that it widens vertically from the trachea.

Therefore, If an individual aspirates food particles, the place where the nurse expect to hear decreased or absent breath sounds is option b: Right lung.

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When an individual aspirates food particles, where would the nurse expect to hear decreased or absent breath sounds?

a.

Left lung

c.

Trachea

b.

Right lung

d.

Carina

when you are taking medicine prescribed for you by a doctor you should: drive short distances only never drive drive only if you feel ok ask your doctor if it is safe for you to drive submit answer

Answers

You should never drive while taking medication that a doctor has prescribed for you.

What Is Medications?Medication can be outlined as the act of ingesting specific pharmaceuticals or medicines that are used to treat or prevent ailments.You should never drive while taking a prescription medication from a doctor since it could seriously threaten your life by impairing your driving.A drug used to treat or lessen the symptoms of an illness or medical condition is known as a medication or medicine.What Do Drugs Do?Chemicals or other substances are called "medicines" when they are used to treat, halt, or prevent disease, lessen symptoms, or aid in the diagnosis of illnesses. A number of ailments can now be cured and lives can be saved thanks to medical advancements. A wide range of sources produce medicines nowadays.

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What is that which keeps the MRI functioning​

Answers

Answer:

The helium liquid which keeps the strong magnet in super cooling mode. This makes it superconducting

Answer: GoodMorning)✨The helium liquid which keeps the strong magnet in super cooling mode. This makes it superconductingMRIs employ powerful magnets which produce a strong magnetic field that forces protons in the body to align with that field. When a radiofrequency current is then pulsed through the patient, the protons are stimulated, and spin out of equilibrium, straining against the pull of the magnetic field.Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a type of scan that uses strong magnetic fields and radio waves to produce detailed images of the inside of the body.

 Have A Nice Day  : )

As views of substance dependence have changed based on scientific research, the real driving force behind repeated excessive drug use is now believed to be?

Answers

As views of substance dependence have changed based on scientific research, psychological dependence is believed to be the real driving force behind repeated excessive drug use.

Of course, drug use, whether illicit or prescribed, does not always lead to misuse. Some people can use recreational or prescription drugs without suffering negative consequences, but others discover that substance abuse has a detrimental impact on their health and well-being. Similarly, there is no exact moment at which drug usage transitions from harmless to dangerous.

The repercussions of drug usage are more important than the type or amount of substance ingested or the frequency with which you use drugs. You most certainly have a drug misuse or addiction problem if your drug use is producing problems in your life—at your job, school, home, or in your relationships.

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One drug used to treat alzheimer's disease was originally derived from ________.

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One drug used to treat alzheimer's disease was originally derived from daffodil bulbs.

Galantamine, also known as galanthamine, is sold by Janssen under the brand name Reminyl. It was initially isolated from a variety of plants, including daffodil bulbs, but it is now produced synthetically. Galantamine inhibits acetylcholinesterase in a particular, competitive, and reversible manner. It also acts as an allosteric modulator at the locations of nicotinic cholinergic receptors, potentiating cholinergic nicotinic neurotransmission.

For people with Alzheimer's disease (AD), a small number of early studies demonstrated minor cognitive and general improvements, and subsequently, numerous multicentre clinical trials were published with encouraging results.

In 29 nations, including Argentina, Australia, Canada, Czechia, the European Union (apart from the Netherlands), Iceland, Korea, Mexico, Norway, Poland, Singapore, South Africa, Switzerland, Thailand, and the United States, galantamine has acquired regulatory approval.

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Revisions to fda policies in 1993 required drug studies to include women of childbearing age?

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When the FDA produced "Guideline for the Study and Evaluation of Gender Differences in the Clinical Evaluation of Drugs" in 1993, it expressly overturned the 1977 suggestion that women who could become pregnant be excluded from early clinical studies.

Additionally, the new guidelines mandated that data be examined to determine the gender effect.

It is advisable to see the new recommendation as a component of ongoing efforts to improve customized pharmacological therapy.

This is based on the developing understanding that various population groups may require different dosing regimens for medications depending on factors including gender, ethnicity, age, body size, hepatic or renal function, illness condition, or enzyme activity.

The New Drug Application (NDA) revision from 1985 particularly included elderly patients, kids, and patients with renal failure when noting the necessity to take relevant demographic subgroups into consideration when determining dosage.

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Which intracellular change likely contributes the most to increases in fiber size, cross-sectional area, and strength?

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The amount of actin and myosin filaments have a major role in changes in fiber size, cross-sectional area, and strength.

Muscle contraction is caused by the activation of tension-producing areas within muscle cells.

Muscular contraction does not always imply muscle shortening in physiology since muscle tension can be produced without changes in muscle length, such as while holding something heavy in the same position.

After a muscle contraction is complete, the muscle relaxes, or the muscle fibers revert to their low tension-generating state.

Muscle contractions can be described in terms of length and tension. The muscle contraction is referred to as isometric if the muscle tension varies but the muscle length does not.

A muscle contraction is isotonic, however, if the tension in the muscle remains constant during the contraction.

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a client in the acute stage of inflammation will experience vasodilation of the arterioles and congestion in the capillary beds. the nurse would assess the client’s skin for

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The nurse would assess for the chemicals like histamine and would check for redness, increased heat, swelling etc. After a particular injury, soluble mediators like cytokines, acute phase proteins, and chemokines are released, which encourage neutrophil and macrophage migration to the site of inflammation. This is the beginning of acute inflammation.

Histamine is one of the most well-known chemical mediators that cells release during inflammation; it causes vasodilation and raises vascular permeability.

Acute inflammation is clinically identified by the presence of the five cardinal indicators of rubor (redness), calor (increased heat), tumor (swelling), and dolor (pain) (loss of function)

Discuss the characteristics of inflammation and how they relate to the clinical signs of inflammation that have been documented (i.e., redness, heat, swelling, pain, and loss of function).

The second line of protection and the initial reaction to harm is the inflammatory response.

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a 45-year-old woman was brought to the emergency room because of right face and arm weakness and inability to speak. the patient had a past history of alcohol use, cigarette smoking, and uncontrolled hypertension. on the morning of admission, she staggered into her kitchen where her husband was eating breakfast; she was grunting incoherently and grimacing in pain. her foot caught on the leg of a chair; she tripped and fell to the floor. her husband called for emergency medical services (ambulance) and she was transported to the emergency department of the closest hospital. upon examination, the following was noted

Answers

Mental Condition: She was alert, but her only sounds were grunts. She could replicate moves to raise her arms or legs, but she only obeyed directions to close her eyes and open her mouth.

Cranial nerves: When the pupillary reflex was tested, her pupils contracted bilaterally from 3 mm to 2 mm.

She had retained her ability to blink in response to a threat on both sides, so when startled by a rapid, close-range visual approach, she did so normally.

Her eye movements outward were unharmed. She did have a diminished right nasolabial fold (weakness in the right lower face) at rest, and she also displayed a diminished right lower face movement, but her upper face was unaffected.

Motor:She did not move her right arm in a spontaneous or voluntarily manner, with the exception of flexion-withdrawal in response to a painful stimulation.

She was able to lift her right leg off the bed, but she was unable to do it against resistance using normal force. She did demonstrate good, deliberate arm and leg movements while up against resistance.

Somatic sensory: She scowled in reaction to pinch in all limbs, but her right face and right arm showed diminished mechanosensation (mild touch and proprioception), sparing the lower right leg.

When tested with the point of a pin, she was unable to localize the sharp point of contact on her right face or arm, although localizations elsewhere were accurate.

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the nurse is administering a drug that has been ordered as follows: "give 10 mg on odd-numbered days and 5 mg on even-numbered days." when the date changes from may 31 to june 1, what should the nurse do?

Answers

When the date changes from may, the nurse is providing a medication as directed: "provide 10 mg on odd-numbered days and 5 mg on even-numbered days 31 to june 1 the nurse will do the folloiwing steps.

A. Since June 1 occurs on an odd-numbered day, administer 10 mg.

B. Postpone the dose only until following day with an odd number.

C. Modify the dosing schedule to read: "Give 10 mg on even days and 5 mg on odd days."

D. Consult with the doctor to ensure that the dose should change every day, whether the day is odd or even.

What is drug?

Anything that is used to cure or reduce the effects of a disease or other abnormal condition. Drugs may alter mood, awareness, thoughts, feelings, or behavior in addition to having an affect on how the brain and the rest of the body function.

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would writing down stresses before you go to bed to clear your head be considered good sleep hygiene?

Answers

Yes writing down stresses before you go to bed to clear your head be considered good sleep hygiene

What is good sleep hygiene ?

Healthy sleep patterns are referred to as sleep hygiene. Because obtaining a good night's sleep is so critical to your entire quality of life, mental and physical health, and both, excellent sleep hygiene is crucial. Your actions throughout the day, not just before bed, can have an impact on how well you sleep.

Be dependable. Every day, including weekends, go to bed at the same hour and wake up at the same time. Ensure that your bedroom is peaceful, dark, comfy, and silent. Remove all electrical devices from the bedroom, including TVs, computers, and smartphones.

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leclerc e, trevizol ap, grigolon rb, et al. the effect of caloric restriction on working memory in healthy non-obese adults. cns spectr 2019 april 10 (epub ahead of print).

Answers

In the long run, working memory appears to be marginally improved by caloric restriction in healthy persons. New avenues for preventing and treating cognitive impairments are made possible by research into brain CR targets.

calorie restriction's impact on healthy, non-obese adults' working memory

Objective:We compare working memory performance on neuropsychological tests between a group of non-obese healthy subjects who have been on CR for two years and a group who have been on an ad libitum diet in order to assess the impact of CR on cognition (AL).

Methods: 220 participants with a BMI between 22 and 28 kg/m2 participated in this study, which was a component of the broader multicenter CALERIE investigation.

This trial compared 2 years of 25% CR and AL in parallel groups in 220 individuals across 3 sites. The Cambridge Neuropsychological Tests Automated Battery (CANTAB) for Spatial Working Memory (SWM), including the total number of errors (SWMTE), and strategy were the cognitive tests that were utilized (SWMS). Mood states, energy expenditure, perceived stress, and sleep quality were all considered to be potential modifiers.Analysis was done at the beginning and at months 12 and 24.

Results: After corrections, CR individuals showed a considerably larger improvement in working memory measured by the SWM compared to AL. At month 24, it was primarily caused by consuming less protein than other macronutrients.

Changes in energy expenditure, physical activity, and sleep quality all had an impact on SWM.

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neonatal hypoxic encephalopathy: correlation between post-cooling brain mri findings and 2 years neurodevelopmental outcome

Answers

Grading of newborn MRI brain damage and 2-year neurodevelopmental outcome did not significantly co-relate.

What is Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy?

Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy (or HIE) is a broad term for brain dysfunction caused by a decrease in blood flow and oxygen to the brain. HIE is sometimes referred to as birth asphyxia, but this term only applies to infants with brain injury who meet very strict criteria.

Why doesn't it co-relate?

A tertiary university hospital conducted a retrospective cross-sectional study. This study included patients diagnosed with neonatal HIE between 2007 and 2016 who completed 72 hours of cooling therapy and had an MRI brain within two weeks of birth. Trivedi et al. developed a new scoring system that focuses on subcortical deep gray matter and posterior limb internal capsule injury during MRI assessment using TW, T2W, and diffusion-weighted imaging (DWI) sequences. The brain injury was graded as none, mild, moderate, or severe based on the cumulative MRI brain score. Using Fisher's Exact Test, the MRI brain scoring was then correlated with the patient's 2-year neurodevelopmental outcome.

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L-dopa is used to treat _____. parkinson's disease marfan's syndrome alzheimer's disease muscle sprains laryngitis

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L-dopa is used to treat __Parkinson's disease___

The Parkinson's drug that is most frequently prescribed is levodopa, generally known as L-dopa. Additionally, it works best at managing the condition's symptoms, particularly slow and inflexible body motions. Levodopa functions by converting to dopamine in your brain tissue.

What is a Parkinson's disease ?

A central nervous system condition that affects mobility and frequently includes tremors.

Dopamine levels fall as a result of nerve cell destruction in the brain, which results in Parkinson's symptoms.

The substantia nigra, a region of the brain, loses nerve cells, which results in Parkinson's disease. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that is made by nerve cells in this region of the brain.

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a nurse in an urgent care facility is preparing to administer a stat dose of medication to a toddler

Answers

Since the toddler is not wearing the identification band, the nurse would identify the client by asking the father to identify his child by name. Hence, the correct option is Option C.

One of the nurse's most crucial duties is administering medications to newborns and children. In addition to supporting the kid and family during the experience and educating the child and parents about the pharmacologic components of the child's care, the nurse is crucial in providing drugs.

It takes particular training to provide drugs to youngsters. The nurse must comprehend the physical traits and psychological requirements of children at each developmental phase in order to secure the child's cooperation and give the medication in the least painful way possible.

The complete question is as follows:

A nurse in an urgent care facility is preparing to administer a stat dose of medication to a toddler who is accompanied by her father. The child is not wearing an identification band. Using the medication rights, how should the nurse identify the client?

A. Ask the child to say her name.

B. Say the child's name and ask her if that is correct.

C. Ask the father to identify his child by name.

D. Hold the medication until the child receives an identification band.

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a nurse is administering oxytocin to a client in labor. during oxytocin therapy, which intervention should the nurse include on the client's plan of care

Answers

Monitoring uterine contractions and foetal heart rate should be assessed frequently during oxytocin induced labor.

What is oxytocin?

Oxytocin is a labor inducing hormone. It is produced by posterior pituitary gland. It induces uterine contractions.

At parturition, the foetal ejection reflexes secrete oxytocin and relaxin hormones. The concentration of oxytocin further send a positive feedback to release more oxytocin in blood stream. This leads to labour pain and ejection of foetus.

Oxytocin is often administering intravenous to speed up the process of natural child birth. This is helpful in minimizing foetal distress.

Oxytocin has its role in social attachment, lactation and bonding. Oxytocin is also associated with social behaviour of a human.

Thus, oxytocin is an important hormone owing to its unique functions.

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According to the exercise progression continuum, what is the correct order when progressing upper-body exercises?

Answers

The best order to exercise progression your upper body is One arm, one-arm with trunk rotation, two arms, alternating arms, and single arm

The Neural Continuum and Progressions

The neuronal continuum is its formal name. This continuum's modifications to stability and complexity are intended to enhance the neuromuscular system's effectiveness, stabilization, and functional strength.

Here is a summary of each of the four steps and how to use them most effectively:

INHIBIT OVERACTIVE MUSCLES IN CEX PHASE 1.

LENGTHEN (STRETCH) SHORTENED MUSCLES: CEX PHASE 2.

ACTIVATE UNDERACTIVE MUSCLES IN CEX PHASE 3.

Integrate With Multi-Joint Movements in CEX Phase 4.

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a nurse provides care for a client with an elevated temperature. the client is given the prescribed medication and the nurse checks the client's temperature at repeated intervals. what step of the nursing process is the nurse using to determine whether the client has achieved the outcome criteria of the treatment?

Answers

The nurse is using the evaluation phase.

The evaluation stage is the final stage of the nursing process. After the intervention, it is determined whether the objectives have been achieved. Caregivers decide how to assess goals and effectiveness of interventions during the evaluation phase. Trending patient oxygen saturation during a shift is a method of assessing patients with respiratory problems. The maintenance process consists of 5 steps. Step is an evidence-based method that nurses can use to think holistically about the patient's holistic situation and plan of care. When caring for patients in professional settings, nurses formally apply the nursing processes learned in nursing school. Nurses should use clinical judgment to develop basic strategies for the day when deciding how to proceed with shifts with patients. Nursing processes enable nurses to learn more about each patient, categorize problems, and set goals. As nurses' skills improve, using the nursing process to make decisions about patient care becomes a natural fit.

Therefore, evaluation is the correct answer.

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a physician has ordered subcutaneous injections of morphine every 4 hours as needed for pain for a motor vehicle accident victim. morphine has a high abuse potential and is categorized in which class of drugs?

Answers

Morphine is regarded as a Schedule II narcotic under the Controlled Substances Act.

What are the psychotic effects caused by morphine?

Usually, morphine is administered into the bloodstream through an IV drip or a needle (in illegal situations). The medicine targets particular nervous system receptors after being absorbed into the circulation and traveling to different bodily organs. Depending on what they perform in the body, these receptors will cause various reactions. The m 1-receptors, which cause analgesia (the inability to feel pain) and euphoria, the m 2-receptors, which cause drowsiness and mental fogging, the k-receptors, which cause dysphoria and mild respiratory depression, and the d-receptors, which cause delusions and hallucinations, are some of the receptors that morphine affects.

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cardio and strength 9. discuss/explain how strength and conditioning activities impact the cardiovascular system?

Answers

Cardio (strength and conditioning activities) affects the cardiovascular system:

-Blood Pressure controlled

-Cholesterol controlled

-Capillary Density Increases

-Improved Recovery

-Disease Prevention

At its most basic level, strength and conditioning is the practical application of sports science to improve movement quality. It is based on empirical research, exercise physiology, and anatomy. We can all gain from improved movement quality since we all move.

Strength and conditioning has a variety of impacts and advantages on the human body. Physical exercise not only strengthens the body's skeletal and muscular systems, but it also has a lot of positive effects on the cardiovascular system. The heart, blood vessels, and blood are all parts of this system, which is in charge of transporting blood throughout the body. Regular exercise can do wonders for the cardiovascular system when combined with a good diet.

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Which+of+the+following+is+a+positive+externality?++after+measles+vaccinations+increase+by+20%,+the+number+of+cases+of+measles+falls+by+35%.

Answers

The correct option is B.

After measles vaccinations increase by 20%, the number of cases of measles falls by 35% is considered a positive externality.

Measles is a disorder that is caused by a single-stranded, enveloped RNA virus having 1 serotype. It is then classified as a member of a particular genus Morbillivirus in the family Paramyxoviridae. Humans are the only natural hosts making the measles virus attack.

An increase of 20% in measles is caused by pandemic-related disruptions which are increasing inequalities so as to access vaccines and also the diversion of resources from the procedure of routine immunization where all play a role. Right now, too many children are being left without any protection against measles and other diseases which can be prevented by vaccines.

Many studies are indicating that one dose of vaccine can confer long-term which is probably lifelong, protection against the rubella virus.

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The question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows,

Which of the following is a positive externality?

Group of answer choices

A. Researchers develop a new drug that effectively treats a devastating disease that previously had no cure.

B. After measles vaccinations increase by 20%, the number of cases of measles falls by 35%.

C. After the price of dental care decreases, more people can afford regular dental check-ups.

D. After a large stadium is built in a neighborhood, homeowner property values in the neighborhood fall because of noise and traffic.

Which of the following is NOT one of the goals of psychology?
Select one:
a. Explanation
b.Obfuscation
c. Prediction
d. Description

Answers

Answer:

Obfuscation

Explanation:

Obfuscation is the answer because, while it may be a goal of some individual psychologists, it is not a goal of psychology as a whole. The other three are all goals of psychology.

If a pharmacist dissolves 1.2 g of a medicinal agent in 60 ml of a cough syrup having a specific gravity of 1.20. what is the specific gravity (to 3 decimal places) of the product if the addition of the medicinal agent increases the syrup’s volume by 0.2 ml?

Answers

The specific gravity of the product, if some added medical agent is increased by a few volumes, will be 1.22 g/mL.

We have been given that Mass of medicinal agent taken = 1.2 g

And the volume is 60 mL with Specific gravity = 1.20.

According to the mass of solution = specific gravity * volume

                                                           = 1.20 * 60

                                                           = 72g

Now it is given to us that the volume has been increased by 0.2

So the new volume = 60.2

Hence the New mass = 72 + 1.2 = 73.2  

Specific gravity = mass / volume

                          = 73.2 / 60.2

                          = 1.22 g/mL

The ability of a medicine to dissolve is very important to its effectiveness. A drug substance cannot be absorbed without it, which results in limited bioavailability.

Drugs which have poor solubility can potentially cause some problems with metabolism or permeability, interactions with other medications, or the requirement for prolonged drug release.

There are numerous methods to increase the solubility of drugs, including salt creation, solid dispersion, particle size reduction, nanosuspension, use of surfactants, etc.

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A serving of bleu cheese dressing containing 23 grams of fat would yield _____ kcal from fat.

Answers

A serving of bleu cheese dressing containing 23 grams of fat would yield 9 kcal from fat.

How many calories are there in one gram fat, protein, and carbohydrates?

To determine this, multiply the result by 100 after dividing the number of calories in a food or beverage that are derived from fat by the total number of calories in the item.

How many kilocalories are in 1 gram of fat, for instance, if food has 300 calories and 60 of those are from fat?

Divide 60 by 300 and then multiply the result by 100.

9 kcal

What is the calorie count per gram of fat?

The most calorically dense macronutrient is fat, which has a caloric value of 9 kcal per gram.

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c.k.'s sister has brought her 71-year-old brother to the primary care clinic; he came down with a fever 2 days ago. she says he has shaking chills, a productive cough, and he cannot lie down to sleep because "he can't stop coughing." after c.k. is examined, he is diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia (cap) and admitted to your unit.

Answers

You become ill with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in a public place. No hospital, hospital ward, or other healthcare facility experiences it. Your respiratory system includes your lungs.

Your blood receives new oxygen from this mechanism, which also removes waste carbon dioxide. It happens outside of medical facilities like hospitals. Bacteria could be the culprit. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most frequent cause of bacterial pneumonia in the United States.

The following are widely used as part of CAP outpatient treatment in patients without comorbidities or risk factors for drug-resistant S pneumoniae: Amoxicillin 1g PO orally three times per day A macrolide (such as clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily or azithromycin 500 mg once daily) or Doxycycline 100 mg twice.

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you are assessing a middle-aged unconscious man who is lying in bed. his skin is cool and clammy. his heart rate is 124 beats/min, his respiratory rate is 140 breaths/min, and his blood pressure level is 74/52 mm hg. when you established iv access, he moaned. he has not opened his eyes or moved. you examine his eyes and note they are twitching with pupils at 3 mm and equal bilaterally. what is this patient’s gcs score?

Answers

Based on the situation of things above, the patient’s GCS score is 3.

What do GCS scores mean?

The levels of response in the part  of the Glasgow Coma Scale are known to be often 'scored' from the range of  1, for when there is no response and also up to normal values of 6 (Motor response).

Note that the responses that are said to less than 5 is linked with an 80% likelihood of being in a big vegetative state or death.

Therefore, Based on the situation of things above, the patient’s GCS score is 3.

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You are assessing a middle-aged unconscious man who is lying in bed. His skin is cool and clammy. His heart rate is 124 beats/min, his respiratory rate is 140 breaths/min, and his blood pressure level is 74/52 mm Hg. When you established IV access, he moaned. He has not opened his eyes or moved. You examine his eyes and note they are twitching with pupils at 3 mm and equal bilaterally. What is this patient's GCS score?

3

4

5

6

modern medicine has thrived in the united states together with the use of herbal remedies from south africa. this is an example of

Answers

Modern medicine has thrived in the united states together with the use of herbal remedies from south Africa this is an example of Chinese herbal medicine.

What isl herbal medicine?

Herbal medicine is defined as the medicine which is acquired from the various parts of the plants such as flowers, roots, shoots, and leaves. Herbal medicine are costly in compare to normal medicine and because there production is limited and there will be no side effect of herbal medicine in compare to allopathic medicine.

The main difference between herbal medicine and allopathic medicine is that the allopathic medicine is formed from the active or particular part of the plant but in herbal medicine whole plant parts are utilised.

Therefore, Modern medicine has thrived in the united states together with the use of herbal remedies from south Africa this is an example of Chinese herbal medicine.

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which provide care designed specifically for patients who need functional restoration and/or rehabilitation and medical management of a variety of conditions for an average of 3 to 6 weeks?

Answers

Long-term acute care hospitals provide care designed specifically for patients who need functional restoration and/or rehabilitation and medical management of a variety of conditions.

The treatment of patients with significant medical disorders that require continuous care but no longer call for intensive care or major diagnostic tests is the focus of long-term acute care hospitals (LTACHs). These patients need more care than they can get at a rehab facility, skilled nursing facility, or at home after they are routinely discharged from intensive care units.

LTACHs are able to deliver more cost-effective care than acute care institutions because they can concentrate their efforts and resources on a small number of specialized therapies with less overhead.

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the most natural and economical way to obtain nutrients and phytochemicals is to base your diet on .

Answers

Answer:

a variety of foods.

Explanation:

the clinic nurse reviews danielle's prenatal record prior to a performing a nursing assessment. danielle has given birth three times; once at 35 weeks (twins), once at 38 weeks (singleton) and once at 41 weeks (singleton). all of these children are alive and well. she had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks' gestation.

Answers

5-2-1-1-4

Gravida (no. pregnancies, including current)

Term (after wk 37) {live and stillborn}

Preterm (between 20-37 wk) {live and stillborn}

Abortion (fetal loss, up to 20 weeks)

Living (all alive at time of interview)

What is gestation ?

The time during which an embryo, and eventually a foetus, develops inside viviparous animals is known as the gestational period. Although certain non-mammals also experience it, it is usual for mammals. When mammals are pregnant, they may have one or more gestations concurrently, as in the case of multiple births.

Your uterus' lining thickens and its blood vessels grow during pregnancy in order to better nourish the foetus. Your uterus grows larger as the pregnancy goes on to accommodate the growing foetus. Your uterus will have enlarged significantly by the time your baby is delivered.

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