Assume you are the CEO of a large multinational corporation and you are on a salary plus a compensation scheme for an increased shareprice. Over the next three years the share price is expected to rise substantially and your compensation in the form of bonuses are as follows:
Year Bonus
1 $176143.00
2 $763210.00
3 $482324.00
What is the present value of receiving these income bonuses given the discount rate is 10.18%?
Work to two decimal places and do not include a $ sign.
Assume you are the CEO of a large multinational corporation and you are on a salary plus a compensation scheme for an increased shareprice. Over the next three years the share price is expected to rise substantially and your compensation in the form of bonuses are as follows:
Year Bonus
1 $176143.00
2 $763210.00
3 $482324.00
What is the present value of receiving these income bonuses given the discount rate is 10.18%?

Answers

Answer 1

The present value of the CEO's compensation scheme is $1,118,970.18, rounded to two decimal places.

To calculate the present value of the CEO's compensation scheme, we need to discount each bonus amount by the appropriate discount factor.

Using a discount rate of 10.18%, the discount factors for years 1, 2, and 3 are 0.9078, 0.7423, and 0.5721, respectively. Multiplying each bonus by its corresponding discount factor and summing the results gives a present value of $1,118,970.18.

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Related Questions

the accompanying schedule contains data for a private closed economy. all figures are in billions. if gross investment is $10 at all levels of gdp, the equilibrium gdp will be

Answers

1) The equilibrium GDP will be 220. The calculations for the same are shown in the below section.

Macroeconomic equilibrium happens whilst the amount of actual GDP demanded equals the amount of actual GDP provided on the factor of intersection of the AD curve and the AS curve. If the amount of actual GDP provided exceeds the amount demanded, inventories pile up in order that companies will reduce manufacturing and prices. if we desired to forecast how much (aggregate) expenditure might arise whilst GDP is $20,000, then we are able to simply plug $20,000 into that equation for Y and solve. The solution might be that AE = $15,000 whilst Y = $20,000. Remember, however, that our aim is to locate the factor in which this economic system is at equilibrium.

The equilibrium GDP will be calculated as follows-

C + I = 210 + 10 = 220

when GDP is 220.

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Complete question-

1: GDP C $140 $150 180 180 220 210 260 240 300 270 The Accompanying Schedule Contains Data For A Private Closed Economy. All Figures Are In Billions. If Gross Investment Is $10 At All Levels Of GDP, The Equilibrium GDP Will Be Question 25 Options:

1:

GDP C

$140 $150

180 180

220 210

260 240

300 270

The accompanying schedule contains data for a private closed economy. All figures are in billions. If gross investment is $10 at all levels of GDP, the equilibrium GDP will be

you find a zero coupon bond with a par value of $10,000 and 19 years to maturity. the yield to maturity on this bond is 4.1 percent. assume semiannual compounding periods. what is the dollar price of the bond

Answers

The dollar price of a zero coupon bond can be calculated using the present value formula, where the present value is the dollar price of the bond, the future value is the par value of the bond, the interest rate is the yield to maturity, and the number of periods is the total number of compounding periods until maturity.

Using the information given in the question, we know that the par value of the bond is $10,000 and the yield to maturity is 4.1 percent, which is equivalent to 0.041 when expressed as a decimal. The total number of compounding periods until maturity is 19 years multiplied by 2 since we are assuming semiannual compounding periods, which gives us 38 periods.

Using the present value formula, the dollar price of the bond is calculated as follows:

Present value = Future value / (1 + interest rate)^number of periods
Present value = $10,000 / (1 + 0.041/2)^38
Present value = $10,000 / (1.0205)^38
Present value = $10,000 / 1.9668
Present value = $5,075.43

Therefore, the dollar price of the zero coupon bond with a par value of $10,000 and 19 years to maturity and a yield to maturity of 4.1 percent, assuming semiannual compounding periods, is $5,075.43. This means that an investor can purchase the bond for $5,075.43 today and receive the par value of $10,000 at maturity in 19 years.

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These are legal rules governing the behavior of Boards of Directors when it comes to the dividend decision EXCEPT?
a) Dividends may only be paid out of profit both past and present.
b) Dividends per share cannot exceed earnings per share in any given fiscal year.
c) Dividends cannot be paid where the payment will cause the firm to become insolvent.
d) Dividends cannot be paid out of capital.
e) None of the above

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(e) None of the above, as all of the rules mentioned in options a) to d) are indeed legal rules governing dividend decisions.

What's legal rules governing the behavior of Boards of Directors

The legal rules governing the behavior of Boards of Directors with regard to dividend decisions are aimed at ensuring that dividends are paid only when it is safe and prudent to do so, and that the interests of all shareholders are protected.

These rules are put in place to prevent situations where dividends are paid out of capital or where the payment of dividends can lead to the insolvency of the company.

These rules ensure that dividends are paid only out of profits, both past and present, and that dividends per share do not exceed earnings per share in any given fiscal year.

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a large automobile repair shop installs about 1,250 mufflers per year, 18 percent of which are for imported cars. (assume a very steady demand rate.) all of the imported-car mufflers are purchased from a single local supplier at a cost of $18.50 each. the shop uses a holding cost based on a 25 percent cost of capital (i.e., 25% of the purchase cost). the fixed cost for placing an order is estimated to be $28. the following questions are about imported-car mufflers only. a. determine the optimal number of imported-car mufflers the shop should purchase each time an order is placed, and the time between placement of orders. b. if the (replenishment) lead-time is six weeks, what are the reorder point and on-hand inventory at the time of placing an order? c. the current reorder policy is to buy imported-car mufflers only once a year. what is the additional annual inventory cost (which consists of annual holding cost and order (setup) cost) incurred by this policy? d. due to some administrative reason, the manager decides to order every quarter (3months). repeat (c) with this order interval. do you see anything about the robustness of the eoq model?

Answers

Here's the answer to each of the question:

a. The optimal number of imported-car mufflers the shop should purchase each time an order is placed can be calculated using the Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) model.

EOQ = √[(2DS)/H]

where D = annual demand, S = ordering cost per order, and H = holding cost per unit per year.

Given,

Annual demand (D) = 18% of 1,250 = 225 mufflers per year

Ordering cost (S) = $28 per order

Holding cost (H) = 25% of $18.50 = $4.625 per muffler per year

Substituting the values,

EOQ = √[(222528)/4.625] = 103 mufflers per order (rounded to nearest integer)

The time between placement of orders can be calculated as:

Time between orders = EOQ / D = 103/225 = 0.457 years or approximately 5.48 months.

b. The reorder point is the level of inventory at which an order should be placed to avoid stockouts during the lead time. The lead time is given as 6 weeks, which is approximately 0.115 years. The reorder point can be calculated as:

Reorder point = D * Lead time = 225 * 0.115 = 25.875 or approximately 26 mufflers

On-hand inventory at the time of placing an order should be equal to the EOQ minus the reorder point, which is:

On-hand inventory = EOQ - Reorder point = 103 - 26 = 77 mufflers

c. If the current reorder policy is to buy imported-car mufflers only once a year, the additional annual inventory cost can be calculated by comparing the annual cost of the current policy to the annual cost of the EOQ model.

Annual cost of current policy = (D * H) + (D/Q) * S

= (225 * $4.625) + (225/1250) * $28

= $1,309.38

Annual cost using EOQ model = √(2DSH)

= √[(222528*4.625)]

= $239.45

Therefore, the additional annual inventory cost of the current policy compared to the EOQ model is:

$1,309.38 - $239.45 = $1,069.93

d. If the manager decides to order every quarter, the new time between orders would be 3 months or 0.25 years. The EOQ would remain the same, but the annual demand would need to be adjusted:

Quarterly demand = (225/4) = 56.25 mufflers per quarter

Time between orders = EOQ / Quarterly demand = 103/56.25 = 1.836 quarters

The new annual cost using EOQ model can be calculated as:

Annual cost using EOQ model = (D/Q) * S + (Q/2) * H

= (225/103) * $28 + (103/2) * $4.625

= $132.99

Therefore, the additional annual inventory cost of the quarterly policy compared to the EOQ model is:

$132.99 - $239.45 = -$106.46

The negative value indicates that the quarterly policy is actually cheaper than the EOQ model. This shows that the EOQ model is not always robust to changes in the ordering interval, lead time, or other factors. In this case, ordering more frequently than the EOQ suggests leads to a lower inventory cost.

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Why did the healthcare industry not historically viewcustomers or patients as consumers? Please support any answer youpost with references. thank you

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Historically, the healthcare industry did not view patients as consumers because healthcare was considered a social good rather than a commodity.

Healthcare was traditionally viewed as a public service, provided by the government or charitable organizations to improve the health and well-being of the population.

In this model, patients were not viewed as consumers because they did not pay directly for the services they received. Instead, healthcare was funded through taxation or philanthropy, and provided based on medical need rather than ability to pay.

Furthermore, the paternalistic attitude of healthcare providers towards patients played a role in this as well. Doctors were seen as authority figures who made decisions for their patients, rather than partnering with them to make informed choices about their health.

This attitude changed in the latter half of the 20th century, as the rise of private health insurance and the growing cost of healthcare led to a shift towards a more consumer-driven model of healthcare.

Patients began to demand more choice and control over their healthcare decisions, leading to a greater emphasis on patient-centered care and the recognition of patients as consumers.

References:

Reinhardt, U. E. (2003). The healthcare industry: Understanding its structure, participants, and factors that affect its performance. Health economics, 12(3), 185-196.

Blendon, R. J., Benson, J. M., & Hero, J. O. (2016). Public opinion and health care quality measurement: A national survey. Health Affairs, 35(8), 1430-1435.

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10. Consider a Trading desk is trying to hedge their risk by delta hedging and other similar methods. Assume you have a portfolio of one security and have two different options on that security in your trading book. The Delta Gamma and Vega of option 1 and 2 and that of the portfolio is given below: (18 points)

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To effectively hedge their risk, the Trading desk can use delta hedging and other similar methods. When considering a portfolio with one security and two different options on that security, the Delta, Gamma, and Vega of each option as well as the portfolio as a whole must be taken into account.

Delta represents the change in the price of the option in response to a change in the underlying security's price. Gamma measures the change in delta for every change in the underlying security's price. Vega represents the change in the price of the option in response to a change in volatility.

With this information, the Trading desk can use delta hedging to adjust their positions in the options and underlying security in order to maintain a neutral or desired level of exposure. They may also use other methods such as gamma hedging or vega hedging to further manage their risk.

Overall, having a clear understanding of the Delta, Gamma, and Vega of each option and the portfolio as a whole is crucial for effective risk management and hedging strategies in the Trading desk.

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in the context of cash flow statements and budgets, for a new entrepreneurial firm, what is a benefit of separating cash inflows on a cash flow statement into as many categories as possible?

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There are several benefits to separating cash inflows on a cash flow statement into as many categories as possible for a new entrepreneurial firm. Separating cash inflows into as many categories as possible on a cash flow statement is a valuable tool for new entrepreneurial firms.

Many categorizing cash inflows into multiple categories, entrepreneurs can:

1. Identify the main sources of revenue: Separating inflows allows for a clear understanding of which products or services are generating the most income, helping to prioritize future investments and strategies.

2. Monitor trends and seasonality: Categorizing cash inflows can reveal patterns and trends in the business, helping to anticipate fluctuations and adjust budgets accordingly.

3. Allocate resources more effectively: Knowing where cash is coming from allows entrepreneurs to allocate resources more efficiently, ensuring that the most profitable areas of the business receive the necessary support.

4. Improve financial forecasting: Categorizing cash inflows contributes to more accurate financial forecasting, which is essential for planning and decision-making in an entrepreneurial firm.

5. Better track and control expenses: Separating cash inflows into categories also makes it easier to compare them with corresponding expenses, enabling better cost management and control.

Therefore, n the context of cash flow statements and budgets for a new entrepreneurial firm, a benefit of separating cash inflows into as many categories as possible is that it allows for a more accurate understanding of the company's financial situation, as well as improved decision-making and planning for future growth.  

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Classic Potato Chips is thinking of distributing a coupon on its 454 g bag of regular crinkled chips. Currently, the cost of producing a bag of chips is $0.60, with typical expenses of $0.21 per bag. Classic sells the bag to retailers for $1.50 per bag. The coupon is in the amount of $0.60, while retailers are offered $0.13 for handling expenses. Classic forecasts an increase in sales of 500,000 bags with the coupon, incurring total marketing expenses of $115,000. What is its profit (or loss) per unit if Classic goes forward with the coupon? For full marks your answer(s) should be rounded to the nearest cent. Profit/loss = $ 0.00

Answers

The answer to the question is if Classic goes forward with the coupon, their profit or loss per unit would be a loss of $0.64 per bag.

We need to calculate the profit or loss per unit for Classic Potato Chips if they go forward with the coupon.

1. Calculate the total cost per bag without the coupon:
Cost of production: $0.60
Expenses per bag: $0.21
Total cost per bag = $0.60 + $0.21 = $0.81

2. Calculate the revenue per bag without the coupon:
Revenue per bag = Selling price to retailers = $1.50

3. Calculate the total cost per bag with the coupon:
Cost of production: $0.60
Expenses per bag: $0.21
Coupon amount: $0.60
Retailer handling expenses: $0.13
Total cost per bag = $0.60 + $0.21 + $0.60 + $0.13 = $1.54

4. Calculate the revenue per bag with the coupon:
Revenue per bag = Selling price to retailers - Coupon amount = $1.50 - $0.60 = $0.90

5. Calculate the profit or loss per unit with the coupon:
Profit/loss per unit = Revenue per bag with the coupon - Total cost per bag with the coupon
Profit/loss per unit = $0.90 - $1.54 = -$0.64

So, if Classic goes forward with the coupon, their profit or loss per unit would be a loss of $0.64 per bag.

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​Navarro's Intra-Company Hedging. Navarro was a​ U.S.-based multinational company which manufactured and distributed specialty materials for​ sound-proofing construction. It had recently established a new European subsidiary in​ Barcelona, Spain, and was now in the process of establishing operating rules for transactions between the U.S. parent company and the Barcelona subsidiary. Ignacio Lopez was International Treasurer for​ Navarro, and was leading the effort at establishing commercial policies for the new subsidiary.
​Navarro's first shipment of product to Spain was upcoming. The first shipment would carry an​ intra-company invoice amount of​$800,000.
The company was now trying to decide whether to invoice the Spanish subsidiary in U.S. dollars or European​ euros, and in​ turn, whether the resulting transaction exposure should be hedged.​ Ignacio's idea was to take a recent historical period of exchange rate quotes and movements and simulate the invoicing and hedging alternatives available to Navarro to try and characterize the choices. Ignacio looked at the​ 90-day period which had ended the previous Friday​ (standard intra-company payment terms for transcontinental transactions was 90​ days). The quarter had opened with a spot rate of ​$1.0648​/€​, with the​ 90-day forward rate quoted at ​$1.0967​/€ the same day. The quarter had closed with a spot rate of ​$1.0602​/€.
1. Which unit would have suffered the gain​ (loss) on currency exchange if​ intra-company sales were invoiced in U.S. dollars​ ($), assuming both completely unhedged and fully​ hedged?
A. The Barcelona subsidiary would have gained from a weakened euro if the exposure is completely​ unhedged, but it would have suffered the loss from a strengthened forward rate if the exposure is fully hedged.
B. The Barcelona subsidiary would have suffered the loss from a weakened euro if the exposure is completely​ unhedged, but it would have gained from a strengthened forward rate if the exposure is fully hedged.
C. The U.S. parent company would have suffered the loss from a weakened euro if the exposure is completely​ unhedged, but it would have gained from a strengthened forward rate if the exposure is fully hedged.
D. The U.S. company would have gained from a weakened euro if the exposure is completely​ unhedged, but it would have suffered the loss from a strengthened forward rate if the exposure is fully hedged.

Answers

If the intra-company sales were invoiced in U.S. dollars, the Barcelona subsidiary would have suffered the loss from a weakened euro if the exposure is completely unhedged, but it would have gained from a strengthened forward rate if the exposure is fully hedged. This is option B.

Invoicing in U.S. dollars would mean that the Barcelona subsidiary would have to convert euros to dollars, exposing it to foreign exchange risk. If the exposure is completely unhedged, the subsidiary would suffer the loss from a weakened euro. On the other hand, if the exposure is fully hedged, the subsidiary would be protected from the currency fluctuations and would gain from a strengthened forward rate.

It is important for Navarro to evaluate its invoicing and hedging alternatives carefully to minimize transaction exposure and manage foreign exchange risk effectively. Ignacio's idea to simulate different scenarios based on historical exchange rate quotes and movements is a good starting point to characterize the choices and make an informed decision. Ultimately, Navarro should consider its business objectives, risk appetite, and market conditions to determine the optimal invoicing and hedging strategy for its intra-company transactions.

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Consider the following example: Assume that Hilary Taylor from New Orleans, Louisiana borrows $2,500 for four years at 7% add-on interest to be repaid in 48 monthly installments.

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In the given example, Hilary Taylor from New Orleans, Louisiana has borrowed $2,500 for four years at 7% add-on interest. This means that the interest is added to the principal amount and the borrower pays interest on the entire loan amount.

The loan is to be repaid in 48 monthly installments. It is important to note that the add-on interest rate is higher than the simple interest rate, which is calculated on the remaining principal amount. Therefore, Hilary will pay more interest over the life of the loan than if she had taken a loan with a simple interest rate.
happy to help you with your question. In this example, Hilary Taylor from New Orleans, Louisiana borrows $2,500 for four years with a 7% add-on interest. To calculate the total interest, multiply the loan amount by the interest rate and the loan term: $2,500 x 0.07 x 4 = $700. The total amount to be repaid is the sum of the borrowed amount and the interest: $2,500 + $700 = $3,200. Hilary will repay the loan in 48 monthly installments, so to find the monthly payment, divide the total amount by the number of installments: $3,200 / 48 ≈ $66.67.

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Hilary will have to make monthly payments of $66.67 for the next four years to repay the loan.

In the given example, Hilary Taylor from New Orleans, Louisiana has borrowed $2,500 for four years at 7% add-on interest.

The interest rate of 7% add-on means that the interest will be calculated on the original amount borrowed, and not on the outstanding balance after each payment. The loan is to be repaid in 48 monthly installments, which means that Hilary will have to make 48 equal payments over the course of four years.
To calculate the monthly payment, we first need to calculate the total amount of interest that will be charged over the four-year period. The add-on interest rate of 7% means that the total interest charged will be 7% of the original loan amount, multiplied by the number of years, which is four. Therefore, the total interest charged will be:
$2,500 x 7% x 4 = $700
The total amount that Hilary will have to repay will be the original loan amount plus the total interest charged, which is:
$2,500 + $700 = $3,200
To calculate the monthly payment, we divide the total amount to be repaid by the number of monthly payments:

$3,200 / 48 = $66.67
Therefore, Hilary will have to make monthly payments of $66.67 for the next four years to repay the loan. It is important to note that while the monthly payments may seem manageable, the add-on interest rate of 7% means that Hilary will end up paying significantly more in interest over the course of the loan. It is always important to carefully consider the interest rate and repayment terms of any loan before borrowing.

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A $100,000 interest rate swap has a remaining life of 15 months, with interest payments occurring every 6 months. Under the terms of the swap, six-month LIBOR is exchanged for 4.6% per annum (compounded semi-annually). Six-month LIBOR forward rates for all maturities are 5.5% (compounded semi-annually). The six-month LIBOR rate was 4% three months ago. The risk free rate is 5% (cont. comp) for all maturities. What is the value of the swap to the party PAYING FLOATING? (Required precision: 0.01 +/- 5)

Answers

The value of the $100,000 interest rate swap, having a remaining life of 15 months, with interest payments occurring every 6 months, to the party paying floating is $77.51.

To calculate the value of the swap to the party paying floating, we need to calculate the present value of the floating rate payments and the present value of the fixed rate payments, and then take the difference.

The floating rate payments are based on six-month LIBOR, which is reset every six months. We can calculate the floating rate payments as follows:

For the first six-month period, the floating rate is 4%, which is below the fixed rate of 4.6%, so the party paying floating pays the fixed rate. The payment is $2,300 (=$100,000 x 4.6% x 6/12).

For the second six-month period, the floating rate is 5.5%, which is above the fixed rate of 4.6%, so the party paying floating pays the floating rate. The payment is $2,750 (=$100,000 x 5.5% x 6/12).

For the third six-month period, the floating rate is also 5.5%, so the payment is again $2,750.

For the fourth six-month period (i.e., the final period), the floating rate is unknown, as it will be set at the beginning of the period. However, we can use the six-month LIBOR forward rate to estimate it. The six-month LIBOR forward rate for this period is 5.5%, so we can assume that the floating rate will be 5.5%. The payment is $2,750.

To calculate the present value of these floating rate payments, we need to discount them using the risk-free rate. The risk-free rate is 5% (cont. comp), which is equivalent to 2.47% (compounded semi-annually) for a six-month period. The present value of the payments is:

PV(floating) = [tex]\$2,300 / (1 + 2.47\%) + \$2,750 /(1 + 2.47\%)^2 + \$2,750 / (1 + 2.47\%)^3 + \$2,750 / (1 + 2.47\%)^4[/tex]

= $9,866.59

The fixed rate payments are based on the fixed rate of 4.6%, which is paid every six months. We can calculate the fixed rate payments as follows:

For the first six-month period, the payment is $2,300.

For the second six-month period, the payment is also $2,300.

For the third six-month period, the payment is again $2,300.

For the fourth six-month period, the payment is also $2,300.

To calculate the present value of these fixed rate payments, we again need to discount them using the risk-free rate. The present value of the payments is: PV(fixed) = [tex]\$2,300 / (1 + 2.47\%) + \$2,300 / (1 + 2.47\%)^2 + \$2,300 / (1 + 2.47\%)^3 + \$2,300 / (1 + 2.47\%)^4[/tex]

= $9,789.08

The value of the swap to the party paying floating is the difference between the present value of the floating rate payments and the present value of the fixed rate payments:

Value of swap = PV(floating) - PV(fixed)

= $9,866.59 - $9,789.08

= $77.51

Therefore, the value of the swap to the party paying floating is $77.51.

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QUESTION 4 If you were the CEO of a company and was promised a $10M bonus if net income were to increase by 10% this year. You might:
A. Increase profits by eliminating much of the advertising, reducing expenses, a good long run result for the company and the stockholders B Increase profits by eliminating much of the research and development expenses, a good long run result for the company and stockholders. C. Increase profits by eliminating employee training programa, reducing expenses, a good long run result for the company and stockholders D. You might do a, b, and e, because profits will go up and you will be happy to receive a the bonus E. Hold everything, this reward system is misguided because it encourages reducing expenses now in ways that makes you better off (richer) but have negative impact on the future performance of the company

Answers

You might: Hold everything, this reward system is misguided because it encourages reducing expenses now in ways that makes you better off (richer) but have negative impact on the future performance of the company.

So, the correct answer is E.

How to increase net income?

As CEO, it is important to focus on long-term growth and sustainability of the company rather than just short-term gains for personal benefit.

By cutting expenses that may impact the company's future success, it could ultimately harm the company and its stakeholders in the long run.

It would be better to explore other ways to increase net income that do not sacrifice the future of the company.

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consider a bond paying a coupon rate of 11.75% per year semiannually when the market interest rate is only 4.7% per half-year. the bond has two years until maturity. a. find the bond's price today and six months from now after the next coupon is paid.

Answers

The bond's price six months from now after the next coupon is paid is $1100.63.

To calculate the bond's price, we need to use the bond pricing formula:

Bond Price = [tex]C / (1 + r)^1 + C / (1 + r)^2 + ... + C / (1 + r)^n + F / (1 + r)^n[/tex]

Where:

C = coupon payment

r = market interest rate

n = number of periods

F = face value of the bond

In this case, the coupon rate is 11.75% per year semiannually, which means the coupon payment is:

C = 11.75% * $1000 / 2 = $58.75

The market interest rate is 4.7% per half-year, which means the semiannual rate is:

r = 4.7% / 2 = 0.0235

The number of periods is 2 years or 4 half-years, and the face value is $1000.

Using the formula, we can calculate the bond price today:

Bond Price = [tex]58.75 / (1 + 0.0235)^1 + $58.75 / (1 + 0.0235)^2 + $58.75 / (1 + 0.0235)^3 + $58.75 / (1 + 0.0235)^4 + $1000 / (1 + 0.0235)^4[/tex]

Bond Price = $1137.36

Therefore, the bond's price today is $1137.36.

To calculate the bond's price six months from now after the next coupon is paid, we need to adjust the formula by one period and subtract the coupon payment:

Bond Price (after 6 months) =[tex]$58.75 / (1 + 0.0235)^2 + $58.75 / (1 + 0.0235)^3 + $58.75 / (1 + 0.0235)^4 + $1058.42 / (1 + 0.0235)^4[/tex]

Bond Price (after 6 months) = $1100.63

Therefore, the bond's price six months from now after the next coupon is paid is $1100.63.

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greg is paid for the number of hours he works or for the number of units he produces, whichever is higher. which form of compensation does greg receive?

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Greg receives a form of compensation that is commonly referred to asvariable pay or performance-based pay.

Under this form of compensation, Greg's pay is based on either the number of hours he works or the number of units he produces, whichever is higher. This means that if Greg produces more units than the number of hours he works, he will receive pay based on the number of units he produces. On the other hand, if he works more hours than the number of units he produces, he will receive pay based on the number of hours he works.

Variable pay is often used in industries where productivity is critical, such as manufacturing, construction, and sales. This form of compensation is designed to motivate employees to work more efficiently and to increase their productivity by rewarding them for their performance.

Overall, the use of variable pay can help organizations to align employee performance with business goals and objectives, which can ultimately lead to increased profitability and success.

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the current yield can be described as the bond's annual interest divided by its face value. question 1 options: true false

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True. The current yield is a financial ratio that measures the annual income received from a bond in relation to its face value.

It is calculated by dividing the bond's annual interest by its face value. For example, if a bond has a face value of $1,000 and an annual interest of $50, then its current yield would be 5% ($50 divided by $1,000).


The current yield is an important metric for investors who want to compare the income-generating potential of different bonds. However, it is not the only factor to consider when evaluating a bond's performance. Other factors, such as the bond's maturity date, credit rating, and market conditions, can also impact its overall value.

Therefore, investors should conduct a thorough analysis of a bond's characteristics before making any investment decisions.

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The firm's bank charges $18 per wire and $0.50 per EDT. The EDT takes one day longer to clear. The investment opportunity rate is 4%. The bank's Earnings credit rate is 0.5% on account balances. The RRR is 10%. What is the minimum transfer balance that justifies a wire transfer?

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The minimum transfer balance that justifies a wire transfer is approximately $3,975.49. To determine the minimum transfer balance that justifies a wire transfer, we need to consider the bank's charges, the opportunity cost, and the earnings credit rate.

Step 1: Calculate the daily interest cost (DIC) using the investment opportunity rate (IOR) at 4%.
DIC = (IOR / 365) = (0.04 / 365) = 0.000109589

Step 2: Calculate the required reserve ratio (RRR) adjustment.
Adjusted DIC = DIC * (1 - RRR) = 0.000109589 * (1 - 0.10) = 0.000098630

Step 3: Calculate the earnings credit rate (ECR) adjusted for the RRR.
Adjusted ECR = ECR * (1 - RRR) = 0.005 * (1 - 0.10) = 0.0045

Step 4: Calculate the opportunity cost of waiting one day for the EDT to clear.
Opportunity Cost = Adjusted DIC - Adjusted ECR = 0.000098630 - 0.0045 = -0.00440137

Step 5: Calculate the net cost difference between a wire transfer and an EDT.
Net Cost Difference = Wire Transfer Fee - EDT Fee + Opportunity Cost = $18 - $0.50 + (-0.00440137 * Transfer Balance)

Step 6: Solve for the minimum transfer balance that justifies a wire transfer.
Transfer Balance = (Wire Transfer Fee - EDT Fee) / Opportunity Cost = ($18 - $0.50) / -0.00440137 = $17.50 / -0.00440137 ≈ $3,975.49

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a fixed set of characteristics we apply to all members of a group is called (a/n)

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A fixed set of characteristics we apply to all members of a group is called a "stereotype."

A stereotype is a simplified and generalized belief about the traits and behaviors of a certain group, where the same characteristics are assigned to all members of that group.

A decent arrangement of qualities that we will generally credit to all gathering individuals is known as a generalization. Preconceptions or beliefs about a group of people based on how they are perceived to belong to that group are called stereotypes. Age, gender, race, ethnicity, religion, profession, or social class are just a few of the many characteristics that can serve as the foundation for these beliefs. Both positive and negative stereotypes are frequently oversimplified, exaggerated, or inaccurate. They can be unsafe on the grounds that they can prompt segregation, bias, and inclination against people dependent exclusively upon their gathering enrollment, as opposed to their singular characteristics and activities.

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jane smith earns $975 a week. as of the end of february, jane has cumulative earnings $7,800. during the last week of february, how much of her current earnings are subject to state unemployment tax?

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Jane Smith earns $975 a week. As of the end of February, her cumulative earnings are $7,800. To determine how much of her current earnings are subject to state unemployment tax during the last week of February. current earnings are subject to state unemployment tax is $175

We need to know the taxable wage base for state unemployment tax in her state. For this example, let's assume the taxable wage base is $7,000.



Compare the cumulative earnings ($7,800) with the taxable wage base ($7,000). Since Jane's cumulative earnings ($7,800) exceed the taxable wage base ($7,000), she has reached the maximum taxable amount for the year. Subtract the taxable wage base from her cumulative earnings: $7,800 - $7,000 = $800. The excess amount of $800 is not subject to state unemployment tax.



Therefore, during the last week of February, only a portion of Jane's current earnings ($975) is subject to state unemployment tax. That portion is $975 - $800 = $175. So, $175 of her current earnings are subject to state unemployment tax.

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Jennifer buys a typewriter for $590. She puts 20% down and will pay $70 a month for the next 10 months. What's the total amount of monthly payments?

$700 ---- correct answer

$750

$850

$1,000

Answers

The total amount of monthly payments for Jennifer who buys a typewriter is $850.

What are payments?

Payments refer to the transfer of money from one party to another in exchange for goods, services, or debts. They can be made using a variety of methods, including cash, checks, credit and debit cards, electronic funds transfer (EFT), mobile payments, and cryptocurrencies. Payments are an essential aspect of commerce and are used in both personal and business transactions. They enable individuals and companies to purchase goods and services, pay bills, and transfer money to others. With the increasing use of technology, payments have become more convenient and accessible, allowing people to make transactions from anywhere and at any time. The security and reliability of payment methods are crucial, and various measures are taken to protect against fraud and ensure the safety of transactions.

Jennifer puts 20% down on the typewriter= 0.2 * $590 = $118

Amount that Jennifer needs to finance= $590 - $118 = $472

Total amount of her monthly payments= $70 * 10 = $700

The total amount of Jennifer's payments, including her down payment=

$118 + $700 = $818

So, the closest answer is $850.

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as long as the mp is positive, the tp will be increasing. true false

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The statement "as long as the mp is positive, the tp will be increasing" is false because marginal product and total product are not directly related.

The given statement "as long as the mp is positive, the tp will be increasing" is false because the relationship between mp and tp is not necessarily a direct one. MP (marginal product) refers to the change in output resulting from a change in the input. TP (total product), on the other hand, is the total output resulting from a specific amount of input. While a positive MP may contribute to an increase in TP, there are other factors that can affect TP as well, such as diminishing returns.

Therefore, a positive MP does not necessarily guarantee an increase in TP. The given statement is false.

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in the context of marketing, what enhances message involvement, leading to stronger memory and learning among consumers?

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in the context of marketing, message involvement, leading to stronger memory and learning among consumers is personal relevance.

Personal relevance is the degree to which a consumer perceives a message as important or relevant to their own needs, goals, or values. When a message is personally relevant, it captures the consumer's attention and stimulates their cognitive processing, which enhances their memory and learning of the message. Personal relevance can be increased by using targeted and customized messages that speak directly to the consumer's needs and interests, as well as by using emotional appeals that resonate with the consumer's values and aspirations.

In summary, to enhance message involvement and strengthen memory and learning among consumers, marketers should strive to make their messages personally relevant to their target audience. By doing so, they can capture the consumer's attention, stimulate cognitive processing, and create a deeper connection between the consumer and the brand or product being promoted.

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Nancy has a strong tendency to morally disengage. As a result, when Nancy sells some company supplies on eBay for her own profit she is likely to ________
.
A) turn herself into a company official
B) feel no distress from being unethical
C) suffer from extreme role conflict
D) share her profits with the company

Answers

Nancy is likely to feel no distress from being unethical.(B)

When someone has a strong tendency to morally disengage, they can easily detach themselves from the ethical consequences of their actions. In Nancy's case, she sells company supplies on eBay for her own profit.

Due to her moral disengagement, she does not experience any distress or guilt from acting unethically. Instead, she is able to justify her actions and rationalize them in her mind.

This differs from options A, C, and D, where she would either face consequences, experience role conflict, or share profits with the company, which are not typical of someone who morally disengages.(B)

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the key proposition of new growth theory that makes growth persist is that ______ is not subject to diminishing returns.

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The key proposition of new growth theory that makes growth persist is that Knowledge and innovation is not subject to diminishing returns.

The key proposition of new growth theory that makes growth persist is that knowledge and innovation are not subject to diminishing returns. Unlike traditional factors of production such as capital and labor, the more knowledge and innovation are applied, the greater the potential for growth and productivity. This is because knowledge and innovation can be shared and replicated infinitely without losing their value, leading to an endless cycle of growth and development.

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the key proposition of the new growth theory that makes growth persist is that technological innovation is not subject to diminishing returns.

The theory suggests that as more knowledge and innovation are created, there are increasing returns to scale, meaning that each additional unit of input leads to a larger increase in output.

This is in contrast to traditional neoclassical growth theory, which assumes that all factors of production are subject to diminishing returns, and therefore, growth will eventually slow down.

What are diminishing returns?

The law of diminishing returns is an economic principle stating that as investment in a particular area increases, the rate of profit from that investment, after a certain point, cannot continue to increase if other variables remain constant.

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eBook Given the following information, determine the beta coefficient for Stock Lthat is consistent with equilibrium: f1 = 14.5% = 3.5% = 10.5%. Round o your answer to two decimal places.

Answers

The beta coefficient for Stock L is 1.86.

The beta coefficient measures the sensitivity of a stock's returns to the returns of the overall market. To calculate the beta coefficient for Stock L, we can use the following formula:

beta = (rL - rf) / rm - rf

where rL is the expected return on Stock L, rf is the risk-free rate, and rm is the expected return on the market.

Using the given information, we can plug in the numbers:

beta = (14.5% - 3.5%) / 10.5% = 1.86

Therefore, the beta coefficient for Stock L is 1.86.

Note that a beta coefficient of 1 indicates that the stock's returns move in line with the market, while a beta greater than 1 indicates that the stock's returns are more volatile than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates that the stock's returns are less volatile than the market.

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martha stewart employs a(n) style of leadership for her lifestyle brand martha stewart living. she makes every decision, no matter how small. martha is able to make quick decisions due to her consistent vision.her style can be described as:

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Martha stewart employs style of leadership for her lifestyle brand martha stewart living. Because to crisis management, the company had limited harm. Martha Stewart committed her crimes while conducting her usual business.

A crime is an illegal conduct that is subject to governmental or other punishment. Modern criminal law lacks a clear and widely agreed definition of what constitutes a crime, despite the fact that legislative definitions have been established.

Crime is the deliberate performance of an act that is generally regarded as socially destructive or dangerous and is expressly banned by, and subject to, criminal sanctions.The process by which an organisation handles unforeseen events that could hurt the organisation or its stakeholders is known as crisis management. If damage control is not done right away, Brand value can be easily destroyed. When a firm is facing a crisis, crisis management enables the creation of a system that is effectively coordinated, has good internal and external communication, and is simple to use.

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implementation of an enterprise resource planning (erp) system provides an organization with an opportunity to also upgrade the information technology that it uses. (True or False)

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True :  Implementation of an enterprise resource planning (erp) system provides an organization with an opportunity to also upgrade the information technology that it uses.

What can an organization accomplish with enterprise resource planning (ERP)?

The term "enterprise resource planning" (ERP) refers to a class of software that businesses use to oversee routine operations including accounting, purchasing, project management, risk management, and compliance.

The ERP system gathers, organizes, and saves information that management and outside parties need to evaluate the business. A centralized database is used by ERP systems to coordinate activities and exchange information amongst company processes.

Another frequent element of ERP systems is a tool for customer relationship management (CRM). This module keeps track of sales leads and customer data to deliver valuable information that your sales and marketing teams may utilize to boost revenue development.

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. what is the present (year 0) value of the cash flow stream if the opportunity cost rate is 10 percent?

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To calculate the present value of a cash flow stream, you need to discount each cash flow by the opportunity cost rate. The present value is the sum of all discounted cash flows.

For example, if the cash flow stream is $100 for each of the next five years, the calculation would be:
Year 1: $100 / (1 + 0.1)^1 = $90.91
Year 2: $100 / (1 + 0.1)^2 = $82.64
Year 3: $100 / (1 + 0.1)^3 = $75.13
Year 4: $100 / (1 + 0.1)^4 = $68.30
Year 5: $100 / (1 + 0.1)^5 = $62.09
Present value = $90.91 + $82.64 + $75.13 + $68.30 + $62.09 = $379.07
Therefore, the present (year 0) value of the cash flow stream is $379.07 if the opportunity cost rate is 10 percent. The opportunity cost rate represents the return that could be earned on an alternative investment with similar risk, so it is used as a benchmark to determine whether the cash flow stream is worth investing in.

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P15–3 Multiple changes in cash conversion cycle Garrett Industries turns over its inventory
six times each year; it has an average collection period of 45 days and an average
payment period of 30 days. The firm’s annual sales are $3 million. Assume that
there is no difference in the investment per dollar of sales in inventory, receivables,
and payables, and assume a 365-day year.
a. Calculate the firm’s cash conversion cycle, its daily cash operating expenditure,
and the amount of resources needed to support its cash conversion cycle.
b. Find the firm’s cash conversion cycle and resource investment requirement if it
makes the following changes simultaneously.
(1) Shortens the average age of inventory by 5 days.
(2) Speeds the collection of accounts receivable by an average of 10 days.
(3) Extends the average payment period by 10 days.
c. If the firm pays 13% for its resource investment, by how much, if anything,
could it increase its annual profit as a result of the changes in part b?
d. If the annual cost of achieving the profit in part c is $35,000, what action would
you recommend to the firm? Why?

Answers

a. The firm’s cash conversion cycle is 60 days, its daily cash operating expenditure is $41,096. and the amount of resources needed to support its cash conversion cycle is $2,465,753.

b. After the changes, the firm’s cash conversion cycle will be 50 days, and the amount of resources needed to support its cash conversion cycle will be $2,054,795.

c. The firm could increase its annual profit by $20,960.

d. I would recommend the firm to implement the changes because the potential increase in profit ($20,960) is greater than the cost of achieving it ($35,000). By implementing the changes, the firm can improve its cash conversion cycle and reduce its resource investment requirement, leading to increased profitability.

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Eight years ago Zack& Co. had purchased an equipment fo: $1,200,000. This equipment was being depreciated on a straight line basis over a 12 year period to a 300,000 salvage value. The equipment has six more years of economic life. During this period the annual revenues and operating costs assocaited with this machine are expected to be $388,000 and $87,500, respectively. Zack is now considering replacing this machine with a more modern one. The old equipment can now be sold for $180,000. Investment in net working capital is expected to increase by $132,000 as a result of the investment. The new machine will cost $1,500,000 and another $120,000 will be needed to modify it. This machine falls into the ACRS 5-year class life. It. is also expected to have an economic life of SiX years. The annual revenue and operating costs from the new machine are expected to be $750,000 and $58,000, respectively. At the sixth year Zack expects to sell the nes machine for $180,000. Zack's marginal tax rate is 34%. The equipment will be equity financed. (14 pts.) 1 Please calculate Zack's Net Investment and the Net Cash flows for the next six years if the replacement decision is made.

Answers

The net investment for the replacement decision is $1,512,000 and the net cash flows for the next six years are -$186,600, $322,800, $436,000, $386,000, $347,800, and $293,400 respectively.

To calculate the net cash flows for the next six years, we need to calculate the annual depreciation expense for the new machine using the ACRS depreciation method, which is $240,000 for the first year and $360,000 for the second year.

We also need to calculate the tax savings from the depreciation expense, which is $81,600 for the first year and $122,400 for the second year. Then, we can calculate the net operating cash flows for each year by subtracting the operating costs and taxes from the revenues.

Finally, we can calculate the net cash flows for each year by subtracting the net operating cash flows, the investment in net working capital, and the annual loan payments from the tax savings. At the end of the sixth year, we add the salvage value of the new machine and the salvage value of the old machine to get the total net cash flow.

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A stock recently paid a $5/share dividend and they currently have a constant growth policy with g=10%/year. They will maintain this policy for the next 3 years. The growth rate will fall down to 3%/year after year 3 into perpetuity (i.e., from year 3 to year 4, the growth rate is 3%). R = 15%. Calculate the stock price. A stock will pay the following dividends over the next 5 years: $4 in year 1, $4.5 in year 2, $5 in year 3, $5.5 in year 4, and $6 in year 5. Afterwards, they will maintain a zero growth dividend policy. R=15%. Calculate the stock price.

Answers

For the first scenario, the stock price is $93.86.

For the second scenario, the stock price is $50.37.

For the first scenario,

To calculate the stock price in the first scenario, we use the formula:

[tex]P0 = (D1 / (r - g)) + (D2 / (1+r)^2) + (D3 / (1+r)^3) + (P3 / (r - g))[/tex]

where D1, D2, and D3 are the dividends in years 1, 2, and 3 respectively, r is the required rate of return, g is the growth rate, and P3 is the expected stock price in year 3.

Plugging in the given values, we get:

[tex]P0 = ($5.50 / (0.15 - 0.10)) + ($6.05 / (1.15)^2) + ($6.66 / (1.15)^3) + ($182.78 / (0.15 - 0.03)) = $93.86.[/tex]

For the second scenario,

To calculate the stock price in the second scenario, we use the formula:

[tex]P0 = (D1 / (1+r)) + (D2 / (1+r)^2) + (D3 / (1+r)^3) + (D4 / (r - g)) + (D5 / (r - g)) / (1+r)^5[/tex]

where D1 to D5 are the dividends in years 1 to 5 respectively, r is the required rate of return, and g is the growth rate.

Plugging in the given values, we get:

[tex]P0 = ($4 / 1.15) + ($4.5 / (1.15)^2) + ($5 / (1.15)^3) + ($5.5 / (0.15 - 0.03)) + ($6 / (0.15 - 0.03)) / (1.15)^5 = $50.37[/tex]

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