Answer:
if the males alleles are Rr 25% reccesive, 50% heterozygous and 25% dominant.
if the males alleles are RR Then its 100% Rr heterozygous
Why may there be variations in plants grown from seeds?
Answer:
Because the seeds are formed as a result of sexual reproduction, which brings about genetic variation
Explanation:
Ideally, the chances of genetic variation in organisms increases as a result of sexual reproduction. Specifically, the meiotic process in sexual reproduction ensures this. Seeds are plant structures used for propagation, as they grow and develop into new organisms.
A plant propagated by SEEDS will possess variation because the seeds were formed from sexual reproduction i.e. fertilization of male gamete (pollen) and female ova. Note that each of these gametes that combined to form a seed, were produced by meiotic division.
You have isolated a bacterium from a contaminated river but you are unable to culture it in the laboratory. Which method could you use to identify the organism
Answer:
DNA sequencing
Explanation:
DNA sequencing is the method which can be used in order to identify the bacterium that was isolated from the contaminated river. DNA sequencing is the process in which the sequence of nucleotides is determined that is present within a DNA molecule. For identifying the bacterium, the sample of bacteria is collected. After sample collection is completed, genomic DNA is extracted from the bacteria and DNA sequencing will be done of that bacteria.
The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to ________. The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to ________. return glucose to the general circulation when blood sugar is low carry toxins to the kidney for disposal through the urinary tract distribute hormones throughout the body collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liver
Answer:
The correct answer is ''collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liver.''
Explanation:
Portal circulation is called that system that is between two large capillary beds, represented by the gastrointestinal organs, pancreas and spleen on the one hand, and the liver on the other. Hence, any venous system of the organism that is located between two capillary territories is called "portal system".The hepatic portal vein collects the deoxygenated blood from the gastrointestinal system, spleen and pancreas, this blood is venous and comes deoxygenated, in addition to being loaded with the nutrients absorbed in the digestive process, so it is a blood subjected to a high overload, but that quickly, thanks to its distribution through the liver, it will be bypassed to various chemical processes to extract a large part of the nutrients from it, and purify and eliminate toxins.
The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liver. Therefore, option D is correct.
The hepatic portal system is also known as the hepatic portal circulation or portal venous system. It is a specialized network of blood vessels that carries blood from the gastrointestinal tract, spleen, and pancreas to the liver. It plays a crucial role in directing nutrient-rich blood from the digestive organs to the liver for processing, storage, and detoxification before it is distributed throughout the rest of the body.
The hepatic portal system allows the liver to regulate the composition of blood coming from the digestive organs before it enters general circulation. Thus, option D is correct.
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can someone help???? Question: In what domain would humans be included?
A Eukarya
B Archea
C Bacteria
Answer:
A Eukarya
Explanation:
Answer:
A Eukarya
explanation: Eukaryotes are organisms whose cells have a nucleus enclosed within a nuclear envelope
how does the structure of simple cuboidal connect to its function
Answer:
Simple cuboidal epithelial tissue is specialized for diffusion and absorption. The reason our kidneys function the way they do is because of the movement of water and salts in and out of the kidney tubules.Likewise, the cuboidal shape of the cells allows greater surface area for absorption to take place.
At one time, Chondrichthyes were thought to have diverged from other vertebrates before the evolution of bone. Now we have concluded that the Chondrichthyes diverged after the evolution of bone had started. What does this change demonstrate about the evolution of fishes
Answer:
The correct answer would be - Characteristics can be lost in evolution.
Explanation:
The new evidence helps in developing a new hypothesis. In this case, new evidence proved that the Chondrichthyes diverged after the evolution of bone had started instead of before the evolution started. This process called atavism where an ancestral genetic trait reappears after having lost. This leads to loss of the traits in the evolution
This can take place by knocking the mutation out to overriding the gene by the old gene or overriding the new trait by the old trait during the evolution period.
At one time, Chondrichthyes were thought to have diverged from other vertebrates before the evolution of bone. Now we have concluded that the Chondrichthyes diverged after the evolution of bone had started might be their characteristics lost in evolution according to atavism.
What is atavism?
Recurrence in an organism of a trait or character typical of an ancestral form and usually due to genetic recombination. This leads to the loss of the traits in the evolution.
Hence, Chondrichthyes diverged after the evolution of bone had started might be their characteristics lost in evolution according to atavism.
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Why is it important that tissues are composed of specialized cells?
In real life, sequencing data is never as clean and clear as the sequencing data presented here. Typically, sequencing machines do not read eDNA sequences perfectly, occasionally mistaking a C for a T, for instance (though this is often <1% of the time). Additionally, there will even be some variability of the barcode among individuals of the same species! How can sequences without 100% identity to a reference still be useful for biodiversity assessment
Answer:
by using consensus sequences and complementing DNA barcoding data with other sources of information (e.g., morphological, and ecological data)
Explanation:
DNA barcoding refers to the taxonomic method used to identify and classify species by comparing DNA sequences. Some of the most used barcoding genes include the 16 subunit (16S) of the ribosomal RNA (rRNA) gene in prokaryotes, the Cytochrome c Oxidase I (COI) gene in animals, the Internal Transcribed Spacer (ITS) sequence in fungi and the RuBisCO gene in plants. A good gene for DNA barcoding purposes must exhibit intraspecific variability, conserved regions in order to synthesize appropriate PCR primers, and the sequence need to be short in length (100 to 1000 bases). The main problem associated with this identification method is the confidence value between genetic sequences. For example, when COI sequences are identical, there is a 6 percent of chance that these sequences belong to different species. On the other hand, the percentage of intraspecific variability among DNA barcoding sequences is variable, even among closely related species. This problem, as well as bioinformatic errors related to sequence reads, can be partially overcome by aligning genetic sequences (including outgroups) in order to obtain consensus sequences. Moreover, taxonomists reasonably argue that DNA barcoding data should be complemented with morphological and ecological data in order to achieve accurate species identification.
The genetic material of a bacterial cell is:
None of the above
DNA is present in chromosomes
Double stranded circular DNA
A single stranded DNA molecule
Answer:
DNA is present in chromosomes
an organisms habitat must provide all of the following except
Answer: Predators (trust me)
Answer:
except what? there are no possible answer
Explanation: Please give possible answers
The image below is an example of which level of organization,
Which form of water is not considered as a resource? A) groundwater B) glacial ice C) ocean water D) water vapor E) surface water
Answer:
D. water vapor
Explanation:
water vapor is a gas and could not be used as a resource
n rabbits, coat color is affected by a series of alleles with a hierarchy of dominance such that C >Cch>Ch>C. Each allele is dominant over all the alleles listed to its right. C codes for full color, Cch codes for chinchilla, Ch codes for himalayan (white with black extremities) and C codes for albino. A chinchilla rabbit is mated to a himalayan rabbit. Each of these rabbits had one albino parent. What are the phenotypes of the offspring and in what frequencies will they be produced
The radial tuberosity is the site of the attachment for the deltold muscle. True or false?
Answer:(Radius is bone on right. Radial tuberosity is visible at upper left of radius.) Details. Identifiers. Latin, Tuberositas radii. TA98 · A02.4.05.007 · TA2 · 1216 · FMA · 23489 · Anatomical terms of bone. [edit on Wikidata]. Beneath the neck of the radius, on the medial side, is an eminence, the radial tuberosity; ... Ligaments that support the elbow joint also attach to the radial ...
True
Explanation:
Inbreeding leads to the problem called_________________
Answer:
Recessive gene disorders
Explanation:
Inbreeding often raises the danger of genetic mutation disorders. Calf defects, infertility, and stillbirths are also potential consequences of these conditions. To have the condition, animals should have 2 versions of a genetic abnormality.
how many monads are present in a human cell that is in G1 of interphase?
Answer:
47.9
Explanation:
There are 46 monads in a human cell that is in G1 of interphase.
In humans, each somatic cell contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, thereby having a total of 46.A chromosome consisting of one chromatid is called a monad. When a chromosome contains two chromatids, it is called a dyad.In the G1 phase, the genetic material of the cell still has not been replicated.In conclusion, there are 46 monads in a human cell that is in G1 of interphase.
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The smooth endoplasmic reticulum Group of answer choices converts sunlight into chemical energy. stores water, nutrients, and enzymes. is the site where lipids destined for other cellular compartments are manufactured. produces the energy needed to run chemical reactions in the cell.
Answer:
is the site where lipids destined for other cellular compartments are manufactured.
Explanation:
This is because smooth endoplasmic recticulum is an organelles found in eukaryotic organisms that lack membrane bound ribosomes and are found in cells that has much lipids like ovaries, testes, oil glands in the skin e.t.c. They are important in the synthesis of lipids is the site where lipids , Phospholipids, steroid hormones.
They also play a major role in detoxification of harmful metabolic by products and metabolic processes of calcium ions within the cell
What is a density dependent limiting factor that affects population size?
-Drought
-Climate
-Natural Disasters
-Disease
Answer:
Disease
Explanation:
In Ecology, certain factors that affect the size of a population can either be dependent on size or not. Density-dependent factors are those factors that affect population of organisms in dependence of how dense the population is. Examples of these density dependent factors are diseases, predation etc.
For example, a certain disease will spread faster among a population of organisms whose size is dense but slower in a scarcely densed population. Hence, disease as a factor is dependent on population size. Note that; Drought, Climate, and Natural Disasters will wipe out a population irrespective of its size.
Answer:
Disease
Explanation:
In normal cells, stathmin is inactivated by phosphorylation at the start of M phase. Phosphatases remove these phosphates as the cell transitions from M phase to G1. What enzyme is likely to be responsible for phosphorylating stathmin during M phase
Answer:
The enzyme that is responsible for this is the cyclin dependent kinase subunit of mpf
Explanation:
This enzyme is also known as cyclin dependent kinase subunit, CDKs. they are protein kinases and can function as cell cycle regulators. They have the power to modify different protein substrates that are useful for the progression of cell cycle. CDKs are inhibitors hence stathmin is inactivated by phosphorylation. They help to control cell divisions. DNA should not be damaged for cell to move from G₁ to the S phase.
The enzyme that is likely to be responsible for phosphorylating stathmin during M phase is the cyclin dependent kinase.
Cyclin-dependent kinases:
Cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) are protein kinases characterized by needing a separate subunit - a cyclin - that provides domains essential for enzymatic activity. CDKs play important roles in the control of cell division and modulate transcription in response to several extra- and intracellular cues. CDKs are inhibitors hence stathmin is inactivated by phosphorylation. They help to control cell divisions. DNA should not be damaged for cell to move from G₁ to the S phase.Full kinase activity requires an activating phosphorylation on a threonine adjacent to the CDK's active site.Learn more:
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CH3
CH2-CH2-CH-CH2-CH?
1
1
OH
Name the compound
Answer:Alkene
Explanation:
Answer:
Cyclohexanol
Explanation:
C₆H₁₁OH = CH₃CH₂CH₂CH CH₂CH OH
A deletion mutation occuring in the region of DNA which encodes for a sigma subunit of RNA polymerase results in decreased binding to the promoter region of the DNA sequence which encodes for alpha, beta, and omega subunits of RNA polymerase. What is the effect
Answer:
The correct answer is - a reduced expression of alpha, beta, and omega subunits of RNA polymerase.
Explanation:
Sigma subunit of RNA polymerase is the subunit that the holoenzyme, the other part of the enzyme, identifies and attaches with the specific DNA site called promotors that is responsible for coding the alpha, beta, and omega subunits of this enzyme.
As it is given that there is a deletion in the sigma subunit due to mutation that results in decreased the sigma factor's binding affinity to the promoter region. That ultimately leads to less or unable to bind properly to the promoter and the level of gene expression to fall or be reduced.
Which elements are likely to have similar properties to calcium because they have the same number of valence electrons as calcium
Answer:
The correct answer would be - strontium, magnesium, beryllium.
Explanation:
As we know that the number of the same valence electrons is most likely to exhibit similar physical and chemical properties so the elements of the particular group in the periodic table have a similar number of physical and chemical properties and a similar number of the valence electrons.
For example, group 2 elements are known as alkaline earth metals, and strontium, magnesium, beryllium, and calcium are the same group elements thus, they have the same chemical and physical properties as they have 2 valence electrons.
HELP HELP HELPPP
10. Water breaks down into hydrogen and oxygen as shown in the
balanced equation below.
2H2O + 2H2 + O2
Which best supports the Law of Conservation of Mass based on is shown in the
equation?
A. The amount of hydrogen is doubled during the reaction.
B. One atom of oxygen appears on both sides of the equation.
C. Four atoms of hydrogen appear on both sides of the equation.
D. Two molecules of water break down into two hydrogen and
two oxygen molecules.
Answer:C
Explanation:
PLEASE I NEED HELP ASAP :(
Answer:
b
Explanation:
the rest just wont help when you are trying to identify them
choose five body systems that are involved in maintaining homeostasis in your body as you answer these assessment questions. Explain how these five body systems work together.
Answer:
Explanation:
Water Levels
For example, the cardiovascular, urinary, and lymphatic systems all help the body control water balance. The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems transport fluids throughout the body and help sense both solute and water levels and regulate pressure. If the water level gets too high, the urinary system produces more dilute urine (urine with a higher water content) to help eliminate the excess water. If the water level gets too low, more concentrated urine is produced so that water is conserved.
Internal Temperatures
Similarly, the cardiovascular, integumentary (skin and associated structures), respiratory, and muscular systems work together to help the body maintain a stable internal temperature. If body temperature rises, blood vessels in the skin dilate, allowing more blood to flow near the skin’s surface. This allows heat to dissipate through the skin and into the surrounding air. The skin may also produce sweat if the body gets too hot; when the sweat evaporates, it helps to cool the body. Rapid breathing can also help the body eliminate excess heat. Together, these responses to increased body temperature explain why you sweat, pant, and become red in the face when you exercise hard. (Heavy breathing during exercise is also one way the body gets more oxygen to your muscles, and gets rid of the extra carbon dioxide produced by the muscles.)
Conversely, if your body is too cold, blood vessels in the skin contract, and blood flow to the extremities (arms and legs) slows. Muscles contract and relax rapidly, which generates heat to keep you warm. The hair on your skin rises, trapping more air, which is a good insulator, near your skin. These responses to decreased body temperature explain why you shiver, get “goose bumps,” and have cold, pale extremities when you are cold.
Homeostasis of Ions
Body functions such as regulation of the heartbeat, contraction of muscles, activation of enzymes, and cellular communication require tightly regulated calcium levels. Normally, we get a lot of calcium from our diet. The small intestine absorbs calcium from digested food.
The endocrine system is the control center for regulating blood calcium homeostasis. The parathyroid and thyroid glands contain receptors that respond to levels of calcium in the blood. In this feedback system, blood calcium level is the variable, because it changes in response to the environment. Changes in blood calcium level have the following effects:
When blood calcium is low, the parathyroid gland secretes parathyroid hormone. This hormone causes effector organs (the kidneys and bones) to respond to increase calcium levels. The kidneys prevent calcium from being excreted in the urine. Osteoclasts in bones reabsorb bone tissue and release calcium.
When blood calcium levels are high, the thyroid gland releases calcitonin. Calcitonin causes the kidneys to reabsorb less calcium from the filtrate, allowing excess calcium to be removed from the body in urine. Calcitonin also suppresses the formation of active vitamin D in the kidneys; without vitamin D the small intestines don’t absorb as much dietary calcium. Osteoblasts, stimulated by calcitonin, use calcium in the blood to add to bone tissue.
1
What is the original source of energy for most ecosystems?
A.grass
B.humans
C.the sun
D.heat
Answer:
C. The sun
Explanation:
The sun provides energy for the plant to do photosynthesis. Since all animal species depend on plants qnd the sun helps the plants, the sun is the original source of energy.
Answer:
C,The sun
Explanation:
the vast majority of energy in food webs originates from the sun
5. DQ 5 Which of the following is NOT a class of clastic rock?
A.fossil
B.conglomerate
C.sandstone
D.shale
Answer:
B.conglomerate us not a class of clastic rock
Hurry Timed!!! Help pls!!! 20 points!!!
Answer:
This fern has roughly 630 pairs of chromosomes or 1260 chromosomes per cell. The fact that these cells can accurately segregate these enormous numbers of chromosomes during mitosis is truly remarkable.
Explanation:
Leaf cell has 21 chromosomes.
Probes that bind under very stringent hybridization conditions resulting in the differential binding over one nucleotide are called ________. Probes that bind under very stringent hybridization conditions resulting in the differential binding over one nucleotide are called ________. short, variable repeats VNTRs microsatellites allele-specific oligonucleotides (ASOs) generation-specific probes
Answer:
allele-specific oligonucleotides (ASOs)
Explanation:
An allele-specific oligonucleotide (ASO) is a piece of synthetic DNA that is short and usually a complementary to the sequence of a target DNA, It is an oligonucleotide of 15–21 nucleotide bases in length.
It acts as a probe in southern blot assay or simpler Dot blot assay to identify the presence of a target.
It is an important research tool in genetic testing, forensics, and Molecular Biology.
The probes can detect a difference of as little as 1 base in the sequence targeted.
Austin made the claim that meiosis provides an advantage for sexually reproducing organisms by ensuring genetic variation
Which statement explains why he is correct
A. Meiosis allows the offspring produced during sexual reproduction to grow and develop
B meiosis joins together the sex cell during sexual reproduction to produce new offspring
C meiosis produces sex cells that are joined during sexual reproduction to produce offspring
D meiosis produces the body cells that join to form new offspring during sexual reproduction
Answer: C. meiosis produces sex cells that are joined during sexual reproduction to produce offspring
Explanation:
Meiosis is also called as reduction division in this the parent diploid cell divides twice to produce four haploid daughter cells. The daughter cells so produce after cell division contain half the number of chromosomes then that of the parent cells. The germ cells in males and females divide twice or meiotic division occurs in them twice to produce four daughter haploid gamete cells that are sperms (male) and ovum (oocyte) (female). These male and female gametes fuse during sexual reproduction. The sperm fertilizes an ovum to produce zygote.
Answer:
c
Explanation: