Answer:
An invasive species is a non-native species that spreads from the point of introduction and becomes abundant. The invasive species label attaches only to populations of species whose impact upon introduction has altered their new environment.
Explanation:
Answer:
Invasive species
Explanation:
An invasive species is an animal imported from another country. For example: the Giant African Snail. Hence their name, the Giant African Snail came from Africa. They first came into Florida as pets, and were then released into the wild. Since then, they have spread across the state. These snails eat plants voraciously, damaging crops and competing with local wildlife. They will also eat stucco, wood, and plaster, causing thousands of dollars in damage.
does Glycolysis joins glucose to other molecules to make pyruvate.
QUESTION 1 (POLL)
We can feed more people with grain than with meat and would
take up less space on our planet to do all this.
SELECT AN ANSWER
True
False
This can not be measured
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Maltase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of the disaccharide maltose. This process occurs during human digestion when maltase is secreted by the intestine and then converts maltose into glucose. Which two classes of biomolecules are directly involved in this process?
A .proteins and carbohydrates
B. lipids and proteins
C. carbohydrates and nucleic acids
D. carbohydrates and lipids
Answer: D
Explanation:
Carbohydrates and nucleic acids are the two main classes of biomolecules which are involved directly in the process of digestion of maltose through maltase enzyme. Thus, the correct option is D.
What is Maltase?Maltase is a an enzyme which belongs to the alpha-glucosidase enzyme family. These are found in the small intestine's brush bordered cells. The hydrolysis of the disaccharide maltose into two simple sugars such as glucose is catalyzed through the enzyme maltase.
Maltose is a disaccharide which is produced by the enzymatic hydrolysis of starch, which is a homopolysaccharide and this is catalyzed by the enzyme amylase. Maltose sugar is further hydrolyzed by the enzyme maltase to produce two molecules of d-glucose.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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Imagine you are riding on a train. Which object will appear to be stationary from the train seat?
A. A building outside
B. A poster on the train
C. A passenger walking down the train aisle O D. A tree outside
If someone is riding on a train, the object will appear to be stationary from the train seat, such as a poster on the train, which is present in option B, and this example explains the nature of the motion.
What is the significance of the motion?When traveling by train, some substances appear to be moving along with the train, while others appear to be stationary. This is due to the relative nature of motion, and due to this person inside the train, objects outside the train are moving because the train is in motion, whereas objects inside the train are stationary.
Hence, if someone is riding on a train, the object will appear to be stationary from the train seat, such as a poster on the train, which is present in option B, and this example explains the nature of the motion.
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Which step in the formation of calcitriol is regulated by the parathyroid hormone
Answer:
The word that would fill this space would be calcium. Calcitonin lowers it, calcitriol increases it, and parathyroid hormones balance it out.
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10 POINS IM SUPOSED TO TURN THIS IN TODAY!!!
THIS IS THE ONLY ONE I NEED HELP ON PLZ HELP ME!!!
Answer:
glucose <disaccharides <starch<protein
Hope this helps!!
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Which process occurs within the mitochondria?
Answer:
oxidative phosphorylation occurs within the mitochondria
Identify the RNA bases that would pair up with the DNA sequence TGCACT
A. TGCACT
B. ACGTGA
C. UCGUGA
D. ACGUGA
RNA and DNA are two nucleic acids that differ in nitrogen bases. ACGUGA is the RNA base pair that will pair with TGCACT, of DNA. Thus, option D is correct.
What is complementary base pairing?The complementary base pairing has been defined as the pairing of the nucleotides with each other to form the RNA or DNA structures. The base pairs with each other through hydrogen bonding where the reaction occurs between the purines and pyrimidines.
The RNA and DNA structure differs as RNA is made of ribonucleic acid with four nitrogen bases, A, U, G, and C, whereas DNA is made of deoxyribonucleic acid with bases, A, T, G, and C. Both differ in sugar and one nitrogenous base.
According to Chargaff's base pairing rule the purines (adenine and guanine) pair with pyrimidines (cytosine, thymine, and uracil). A forms a double bond with T in DNA and U in RNA, and G forms triple bonds with C.
The given DNA sequence is: TGCACT
The RNA bases for the sequence will be: ACGUGA
Therefore, option D. ACGUGA is the complementary base pair.
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1. What is an example of an illness that requires airborne precautions?
Answer:
measles
Explanation:
There are twenty amino acids in living organisms. Ten of these are referred to as essential amino acids. Why are they called essential amino acids?
These amino acids are the only ones that are important for the body to function properly.
These amino acids cannot be made by the human body and must be consumed in one’s diet.
These amino acids are the only ones that are made by the human body.
.
2nd one
Explanation:
these amino acids cannot be made by the human body and must be consumed in one's diet
they can be synthesized in sufficient quantities in the body.
The Burgess Shale biota is significant because it contains the: a. conodont animal b. fossils of rare marine plants c. earliest known benthonic community d. first shelled animals e. carbonized impressions of many extinct soft-bodied animals
Answer: Option E.
carbonized impressions of many extinct soft-bodied animals
Explanation:
The Burgesss shale biota is significant because it contains the carbonized impressions of many extinct soft-bodied animals because Burgess shake biota indicate best example and famous fossil records that contain soft bodied organisms with carbon impression . This fossil contain soft tissues fauna and floral and not mineralised structures which is not present in any other fossils. priapulid and annelid worms that are found in Burgess shale biota
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Which statement best describes a population that competes for reproductive purposes?
Animals push each other to access water.
Hyenas quarrel over a fresh animal kill.
Squirrels and chipmunks collect food for the winter months.
Members of the same species battle each other to protect their young.
Answer:
DDDDD Members of the same species battle each other to protect their young.
Explanation:
The statement that best describes a population that competes for reproductive purposes is members of the same species battle each other to protect their young. The correct option is D.
What is competition?Competition is an interplay between life forms or species in which both necessitate a scarce resource.
Competition reduces the fitness of both organisms involved because the presence of one reduces the amount of resource available to the other.
The varying relationships between breeding success and specific traits in the two genders provide a foundation for predicting the shape of gender differences that are likely to evolve.
Adequate nutrition during pre-mating periods was found to have the greatest impact on various reproductive processes in mammals.
Members of the same species battle each other to protect their young, which best describes a population that competes for reproductive purposes.
Thus, the correct option is D.
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A mutagen is
a living thing that has undergone a mutation.
an agent that causes a mutation in DNA.
a mutation that has affected one gene.
any chemical that can poison living cells.
Answer:
B)an agent that causes a mutation in DNA.
have a nice day
Explanation:
Mutagen is the chemical or biological agent that results in mutation in the genetic or the hereditary material of the living organism. Thus, option B is correct.
What are mutagens?Mutagens are substances that can be chemical or biological and causes alterations and modifications in the genetic material of the organisms. They can cause positive and negative damages in the process of the replication and repair mechanism.
UV rays, X rays, ROS, base analogs, alkylating agents, transposons, viruses, etc., are some examples of mutagens that can cause somatic or germline mutations. They can cause silent, missense, nonsense, deletion, addition, or substitution mutations.
Therefore, mutagens cause a mutation by altering the genetic material.
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What is the function of the eukaryotic cell?
Answer: Eukaryotic cells have a true nucleus, which means the cell's DNA is surrounded by a membrane. Therefore, the nucleus houses the cell's DNA and directs the synthesis of proteins and ribosomes, the cellular organelles responsible for protein synthesis.
Explanation: Mark as brainllest
Answer:
their functions are different depending upon their location and organism in which they are. for example the cells of stomach wall release mucous, similarly the cell of pancreas release pancreatic juice. and the sieve tube cells help in water transfer from source to sink.
So, all this just depends upon their location and area of labor you can say. Ig i took this last year so i don't remember much
moon phase that is half light and half dark
Answer:
Because a half of the half illuminated Moon can be seen, this is referred to as a "quarter Moon". When the Moon is waxing and reaches this position, it's called the "first quarter Moon"; when waning, the "third quarter Moon."
Orbits: Earth
Explanation:
Answer:
First Quarter Moon
Explanation:....
Which path shows how gravity causes water to move?(APEX)
Answer:
Stream , Tributary, River, and Lake
Explanation:
Stream tributary River and Lake is the path for gravity causes water to move.
What is Path for water?Evaporation, condensation, and precipitation are typically taught as three separate but interconnected stages of the water cycle. Although this is a useful model, the actual situation is far more nuanced.
Water moves through ecosystems on Earth in a variety of ways that are incredibly complicated and still not fully understood.
For better weather, climate, water resource, and ecosystem health forecasting, NOAA is working to increase understanding of the water cycle at all sizes, from the global to the local.
Evaporation, condensation, and precipitation are frequently taught as three basic, circular processes that make up the water cycle. This is a good paradigm, but in practice things are much more nuanced.
Therefore, Stream tributary River and Lake is the path for gravity causes water to move.
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3) Two plants are grown using the same light and pots. One plant is given water that has been
microwaved and the other plant is given regular tap water. Their height is measured after 2 weeks.
What is not a constant in the experiment ?
Light
Soil
Plant
Water
Answer:
Water
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The ranges of the Eastern meadowlark (Sturnella magna) and the Western
meadowlark (Sturnella neglecta) overlap. To the untrained eye, these species
look nearly identical. However, they rarely breed with each other because they
have very different songs. Which of the following terms applies to these
species?
A. Geographical isolation
B. Behavioral and geographical isolation
C. Behavioral isolation
O D. Temporal isolation
Answer: behavioral isolation
Explanation:
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13) A polar bear swims in the ocean and grabs a fish to eat. Which one of the following is true of the polar
bcar?
A) The polar bear is a carnivore that is a predator of fish.
B) The polar bear is an herbivore that is a predator of fish.
C) The polar bear is an herbivore that is prey to fish.
D) The polar bear is a carnivore that is prey to fish.
16) how would an increase in predators likely affect a given prey population ?
A) The growth rate would decrease.
B) The growth rate would increase
C) birth rates would exceed death rates
D) The population would remain unchanged
19) Which one of the following statements best defines the role of a scavenger in the environment?
A) A scavenger gets energy by eating the dead organisms it finds.
B) A scavenger gets energy by breaking down organic wastes.
C) A scavenger gets energy by absorbing sunlight and producing glucose.
D) A scavenger gets energy by hunting and killing its prey.
20) Which one of the following roles is most similar to the role of a scavenger in an ecosystem?
A) Decomposer
B) Producer
C) Parasite
D) Herbivore
21) A vulture swoops down and grabs a dead mouse that it later eats. What is the vulture's ecological niche in
this situation?
A) Predator
B) Decomposer
C) Producer
D) None of the above
22) A type of relationship in which two species live in close association for long periods is known as
A) competition
B) symbiosis.
C) opportunism.
D) cohabitation
Answer:
13 is A
16 is A
19 is B
20 is A
21 is A
A forest was completely destroyed by a volcanic eruption. All living organisms were killed. Then, due to the arrival of propagules carried by birds from nearby areas, certain plant species started growing in the forest. These species have started colonizing the forest because they could survive the harsh conditions of the forest. They also facilitated the growth of other species. What stage of succession is taking place in the forest?
Answer:
a
Explanation:
competition
Answer:
Ecesis
Explanation:
I got 5/5 and answered that on plato
What allows oxygen to create polar molecules?
Answer:
That the oxygen atom attracts electrons a little more strongly than hydrogen does. So even though the electrons from each atom are attracted by both the oxygen and the hydrogen, the electrons are a bit more attracted to the oxygen.
Explain how capillary action is really just teamwork between adhesion and cohesion
Please help it’s times I’ll mark you brainliest
Answer:
Peptin
Explanation:
What is technology?
A. A way to apply science to solve problems
B. A type of scientific experiment
C. A political idea
D. A way to convince people
Answer:
a
Explanation:
i think its A because the rest font make sense
Answer: A
Explanation: the application of scientific knowledge for practical purposes, especially in industry
Which one of the following is an example of qualitative data? *
Answer:
the is no pictures or equation I'm sorry can you try and upload it again I would love to help
Explanation:
upload
what is the size of an eukaryotic ribosome ?
Answer:
The molecular mass of a eukaryotic ribosome is ~3.2×106 Daltons.
The diameter of a eukaryotic ribosome is ~250–300 Å. Å, or angstroms, standing for one hundred-millionth of a centimeter.
What is the effect of the angle of the Sun on the insolation an area receives?
Answer:The sun angle at a place varies over the course of the year as a result of the constant tilt and parallelism of the earth's axis. As the sun angle decreases, light is spread over a larger area and decreases in intensity (energy input per unit area)
Explanation:
Which of the following best describes the hydrolysis of carbohydrates
Answer:
The addition of a water molecule breaks a covalent bond between sugar monomers
Explanation:
The digestion of carbohydrates by enzymes is an example of a hydrolysis reaction.
Carbohydrates are chains of monosaccharides. Hydrolysis involves the addition of a water molecule that cleaves the covalent bond between the molecules of sugar.
The reverse reaction is a condensation reaction, the joining of sugar monomers to create a carbohydrate releases a molecule of water.
You run 30 PCR cycles using primers that amplify a tandem repeat (let's call it D3T40) on Chromosome 3. Choose all of the statements below that are correct. A. The number of repeats at the D3T40 locus will vary among individuals.B. The size of an individual's amplicons is determined by the number of repeats at the D3T40 locus.C. The primers will anneal to the sequences that flank the D3T40 locus.D. Taq polymerase will amplify the entire length of Chromosome 3.E. About 30 amplicons will be produced at the end of 30 cycles of PCR.F. You can determine the size of an individuals D3T40 amplicons using gel electrophoresis.G. The size of the amplicons produced will vary among individuals.H. The primers used to amplify D3T40 could be used to amplify another locus like the D1S80 locus on Chromosome 1.
Answer:
A b c f and g are true
Explanation:
A is true because when we have different individuals we can observe dna polymorphism.
B is true because the size of the amplicon is determined by the treat count of D3T40 locus
C. Is true because polymorphic sequence are actually flanked by primers
D is false
E is false
G is true
F is false
The statements below that are correct include:
A. The number of repeats at the D3T40 locus will vary among individuals.
B. The size of an individual's amplicons is determined by the number of repeats at the D3T40 locus.
C. The primers will anneal to the sequences that flank the D3T40 locus.
PCR.
F. You can determine the size of an individuals D3T40 amplicons using gel electrophoresis.
G. The size of the amplicons produced will vary among individuals.
It should be noted that DNA polymorphism can be observed among different individuals. Therefore, the number of repeats at the D3T40 locus will vary among individuals.
Also, the amplicon size depends on the number of repeats. Hence, the size of an individual's amplicons is determined by the number of repeats at the D3T40 locus.
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