To calculate the number of orders placed in one year, we first need to determine the reorder point, which is the level at which a new order should be placed. With a desired service level of 95%, the reorder point can be calculated as the average daily consumption multiplied by the procurement lead time plus the safety stock. The safety stock is the number of tubes needed to cover unexpected demand during the lead time and can be calculated as the z-score for a 95% service level multiplied by the standard deviation of daily consumption.
Using these values, the reorder point is calculated as:
Reorder point = (15 x 5) + (1.645 x 2 x √5) + 102 = 188.25 ≈ 189 tubes
Next, we can calculate the number of orders placed in one year as the total demand divided by the order quantity. The total demand can be calculated as the average daily consumption multiplied by the number of working days in a year.
Total demand = 15 x 240 = 3600 tubes
Order quantity = √(2 x 30 x 3600) / 5 = 84.85 ≈ 85 tubes
Number of orders = 3600 / 85 ≈ 42.35 ≈ 42 orders
To calculate the total annual cost for the tubes, we need to consider both the ordering cost and the holding cost. The ordering cost is $30 per order and the holding cost is 30% of the acquisition cost, which is $5 per tube.
Total ordering cost = $30 x 42 = $1260
Total holding cost = 0.3 x $5 x 102 = $153
Total annual cost = Total ordering cost + Total holding cost = $1260 + $153 = $1413
To calculate the cost savings if the company switched to a reorder point system, we need to consider the cost of holding excess inventory. In this case, the excess inventory is the inventory level minus the reorder point, which is 102 - 189 = -87 tubes. Since holding cost is positive, the cost savings for reducing excess inventory would be equal to the holding cost multiplied by the excess inventory, which is 0.3 x $5 x 87 = $130.50.
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Which of the following statements is correct?a.When depreciable property is contributed to charity, the depreciation recapture potential has no effect on the amount of the charitable contribution deduction.b.When depreciable property is inherited by a taxpayer, the depreciation recapture potential is extinguished.c.When corporate depreciable property is distributed as a dividend, the depreciation recapture potential is generally not recognized.d.When depreciable property is gifted to another individual taxpayer, the depreciation recapture potential is extinguished.e.All of these choices are correct.
The correct statement is e. All of these choices are correct regarding the impact of depreciation recapture potential in different scenarios.
All the statements mentioned in options a, b, c, and d are correct regarding the depreciation recapture potential in different scenarios.
a. When depreciable property is contributed to charity, the depreciation recapture potential has no effect on the amount of the charitable contribution deduction. This means that the donor can still claim a charitable contribution deduction for the fair market value of the property, even if there is potential depreciation recapture.
b. When depreciable property is inherited by a taxpayer, the depreciation recapture potential is extinguished. This means that the new owner of the property does not have to worry about potential depreciation recapture when they inherit the property.
c. When corporate depreciable property is distributed as a dividend, the depreciation recapture potential is generally not recognized. This means that the corporation distributing the property does not have to recognize depreciation recapture upon the distribution.
d. When depreciable property is gifted to another individual taxpayer, the depreciation recapture potential is extinguished. This means that the recipient of the gift does not have to worry about potential depreciation recapture when they receive the gifted property.
All the statements mentioned in the options are correct regarding the impact of depreciation recapture potential in different scenarios, such as charitable contributions, inheritance, corporate distributions, and gifting of depreciable property.
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Which of the following are short?run and which are long?run adjustments? (a) Wendy’s builds a new restaurant; (b) Acme Steel Corporation hires 200 more production workers; (c) A farmer increases the amount of fertilizer used on his corn crop; and (d) An Alcoa plant adds a third shift of workers.
The short-run adjustments among the given scenarios would be (c) a farmer increasing the amount of fertilizer used on his corn crop and (d) an Alcoa plant adding a third shift of workers. The correct option is c.
In the short run, some inputs in the production process are fixed, and firms can only make adjustments to certain factors. In the given scenarios, the farmer increasing the amount of fertilizer for his corn crop (c) is a short-run adjustment because it involves altering the input levels for a single production cycle. Similarly, the Alcoa plant adding a third shift of workers (d) is also a short-run adjustment as it involves making changes to the current workforce without significant changes to the plant's infrastructure.
On the other hand, building a new restaurant (a) is a long-run adjustment because it requires substantial investments and changes in the firm's capital stock. Constructing a new restaurant involves acquiring land, designing the building, obtaining permits, and installing equipment, which are all long-term decisions. Hiring 200 more production workers (b) by Acme Steel Corporation is also a long-run adjustment as it implies expanding the company's workforce, which may require modifying the production facility, providing additional training, and adjusting other resources to accommodate the increased labor force. These long-run adjustments reflect more significant changes in the firm's production capacity and operations.
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items that can be presented in any order are best displayed in a
Grid or table format is often used to display items that can be presented in any order. It allows for easy comparison and organization of information.
Information refers to data, facts, or knowledge that is communicated or received. It can be presented in various forms, such as text, images, audio, or video. Information plays a crucial role in decision-making, problem-solving, and communication. It can be used to gain understanding, provide guidance, or convey messages. With the advent of technology and the internet, access to information has become more widespread and readily available. However, it is important to assess the credibility and reliability of the information sources to ensure its accuracy and validity.
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taylor bank lends guarantee company $105,000 on january 1. guarantee company signs a $105,000, 8%, 9-month, interest-bearing note. the entry made by guarantee company on january 1 to journalize the proceeds and issuance of the note is
The entry made by guarantee company on January 1 to journalize the proceeds and issuance of the note is Cash =150,000 Notes Payable= 150,000. The correct option is d.
When Guarantee Company borrows$ 150,000 from Taylor Bank, it signs a 9 month, 8 interest- bearing note. This means that Guarantee Company will admit$ 150,000 in cash( proceeds) incontinently and it'll pay back the$ 150,000 principal plus$ 12,000 of interest($ 150,000 x 8 x9/12) at the end of the 9 months.
The journal entry made by Guarantee Company on January 1 to record the proceeds and issuance of the note is a simple dis benefit and credit to the applicable accounts. The company debits Cash for the full amount of the loan proceeds($ 150,000) and credits Notes Payable for the same quantum, representing the obligation to pay back the loan with interest. thus, the correct answer is( d) Cash = $ 150,000 Notes Payable = $ 150,000.
The question is incomplete, complete question is "Taylor Bank lends Guarantee Company $150,000 on January 1. Guarantee Company signs a $150,000, 8%, 9-month, interest-bearing note. The entry made by Guarantee Company on January 1 to record the proceeds and issuance of the note is
a. Cash 162,000 Interest Expense = 12,000 Notes Payable =150,000
b. Notes Payable = 120,000 Interest Payable = 7,200 Cash =120,000 Interest Expense = 7,200
c Interest Expense = 12,000 Cash= 138,000 Notes Payable =150,000
d. Cash =150,000 Notes Payable= 150,000
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Mesut Özil sells ready-to-eat kebabs. Mesut buys kebabs from his
supplier for $c each and has no other costs.
What if he sells 40 kebabs?
If Mesut Özil sells 40 kebabs, his total revenue will depend on the selling price per kebab. Assuming he sells each kebab for $p, his total revenue would be 40p dollars.
To determine Mesut Özil's profit when selling 40 kebabs, we need to consider the selling price per kebab and the cost price per kebab. Let's assume the selling price per kebab is $p. Since Mesut sells 40 kebabs, his total revenue can be calculated by multiplying the selling price per kebab by the number of kebabs sold, which is 40. Hence, his total revenue is 40p dollars.
On the cost side, Mesut buys the kebabs from his supplier for $c each. As there are no other costs mentioned, the cost per kebab remains constant at $c. Therefore, his total cost of purchasing 40 kebabs would be 40c dollars.
To calculate his profit, we subtract the total cost from the total revenue. Hence, Mesut's profit can be calculated as 40p - 40c dollars. This formula accounts for the revenue generated by selling 40 kebabs and the cost of purchasing those kebabs. The actual profit value will depend on the specific values of p and c, which are not provided in the question.
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What term applies to third-party financing that is used between funds advanced by the
permanent lender and funds needed to repay the construction loan?
(A) Interim loan
(B) Mini-perm financing
(C) Gap financing
(D) Partial financing
The term that applies to third-party financing used between funds advanced by the permanent lender and funds needed to repay the construction loan is (B) Mini-perm financing.
Mini-perm financing refers to a type of interim or temporary financing that is obtained to bridge the gap between the completion of a construction project and the long-term permanent financing. It provides a medium-term solution to secure the necessary funds during the transition phase. The purpose of mini-perm financing is to provide the borrower with a source of funds to repay the construction loan and cover any additional costs or contingencies until long-term financing can be secured.
This type of financing is typically used in real estate development projects, where there is a need for short-to-medium-term financing to ensure the project's completion and stabilization before transitioning to long-term financing. Mini-perm financing serves as a bridge between the construction loan and the permanent financing, allowing developers and borrowers to manage the financial aspects of the project effectively. Once the project is completed and stabilized, the borrower can seek long-term permanent financing to repay the mini-perm loan.
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A loss contingency should be accrued when the amount of loss is known and the occurrence of the loss is:
A) Remote: No; Reasonably possible: No
B) Remote: Yes; Reasonably possible: Yes
C) Remote: Yes; Reasonably possible: No
D) Remote: No; Reasonably possible: Yes
The correct answer is C) Remote: Yes; Reasonably possible: No.
Loss contingencies are potential losses that depend on uncertain future events. Accrual of a loss contingency should occur when both of the following conditions are met:
1. The amount of loss is known or can be reasonably estimated: This means that there is sufficient information available to determine or reasonably estimate the potential amount of the loss.
2. The occurrence of the loss is probable: This means that it is more likely than not that the event resulting in the loss will occur.
In option C, it states that the loss occurrence is remote, meaning it is highly unlikely to happen. In this case, a loss contingency should not be accrued since the occurrence is not probable. Additionally, it states that the loss occurrence is not reasonably possible, which further supports the fact that a loss contingency should not be accrued.
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When we say that marketing can be entrepreneurial, it means that entrepreneurs
A. attempt to mimic existing products on the market.
B. strive to satisfy unfilled needs.
C. raise social consciousness.
D. gain monopoly power.
E. push new technology even if people aren't ready for it.
When we say that marketing can be entrepreneurial, it means that entrepreneurs strive to satisfy unfilled needs. The correct option is option B.
Entrepreneurial marketing refers to the approach taken by entrepreneurs who are focused on identifying and satisfying unfilled needs in the market. This approach involves recognizing gaps or opportunities in the market and developing innovative solutions to address them.
Entrepreneurs are known for their ability to identify unmet customer needs and create new products, services, or business models to fulfill those needs. Rather than simply imitating existing products on the market, entrepreneurs seek to differentiate themselves by offering unique value propositions that effectively satisfy customer demands.
By striving to satisfy unfilled needs, entrepreneurs take a proactive and innovative approach to marketing. They may introduce new products or services, explore different distribution channels, engage in targeted marketing strategies, or employ other tactics to capture market share and create a competitive advantage.
The entrepreneurial mindset in marketing is centered around creating value and meeting customer needs in unique and innovative ways. This approach goes beyond simply pushing new technology or raising social consciousness; it focuses on identifying and addressing specific gaps in the market, leading to the development of successful and sustainable businesses.
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Suppose the economy is initially in long-run equilibrium. Then suppose there is a reduction in military spending due to the end of the Cold War. According to the model of aggregate demand and aggregate supply, what happens to prices and output in thelong run ? Prices fall; output is unchanged from its initial value.
The end of the Cold War would result in a reduction in military spending, which in turn would reduce aggregate demand. Thus, in the long run, prices fall, but the output remains unchanged from its initial value.
In the context of aggregate demand and aggregate supply, the long-run equilibrium refers to a state where the economy's output is at its full-employment level, and the aggregate demand and supply curves intersect at the potential GDP. The end of the Cold War would result in a reduction in military spending, which in turn would reduce aggregate demand. According to the model of aggregate demand and aggregate supply, this reduction in aggregate demand would lead to a decrease in the overall price level in the long run, while output remains unchanged from its initial value. This is because in the long run, wages and other input prices adjust to the lower level of aggregate demand, causing a decrease in production costs and allowing firms to maintain their original levels of output while charging lower prices.
This is consistent with the idea of the long-run equilibrium in the economy, where prices and output adjust to ensure that all markets clear. It's worth noting that the end of the Cold War and subsequent reduction in military spending had a significant impact on the US economy. Military spending was a significant source of government spending and jobs, and its reduction had ripple effects throughout the economy. The end of the Cold War also had broader geopolitical implications, as it marked a major shift in the global balance of power and led to significant changes in international relations. Overall, the end of the Cold War was a complex and multifaceted event with far-reaching consequences. Thus, in the long run, prices fall, but the output remains unchanged from its initial value.
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determine the earnings per share of common stock, assuming income before bond interest and income tax is $2,000,000.
The calculation of earnings per share (EPS) requires additional information, such as the number of shares outstanding. Without this information, it is not possible to provide a specific answer.
However, the general formula for calculating EPS is:
EPS = (Net Income - Preferred Dividends) / Weighted Average Common Shares Outstanding
Net income is the total profit earned by the company after all expenses, including bond interest and income tax. Preferred dividends are payments made to preferred shareholders. Weighted average common shares outstanding is the number of common shares outstanding over a given period, weighted for the amount of time they were outstanding.
Once this information is known, EPS can be calculated, and it represents the amount of earnings attributable to each outstanding common share of stock.
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in a supermarket or drug store in the u.s., where is the best placement for private-label merchandise?
In a supermarket or drug store in the u s the best placement for private label merchandise is typically on the lower shelves
where is the best placement for private-label merchandise?the reason for this is that private label merchandise also known as store brand or house brand products is often priced lower than branded products and is intended to be a more affordable alternative by placing private label products on the lower shelves retailers can create a perception of value for these products and make them more accessible to price sensitive shoppers
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which of the following measures is used by traditional costing systems as an allocation base for allocating overhead costs to the units produced?
Traditional costing systems use different measures as an allocation base for allocating overhead costs to the units produced. The most common measure used by traditional costing systems is direct labor hours. Direct labor hours refer to the number of hours spent by the workers directly involved in the production process.
This measure assumes that the more direct labor hours needed to produce a unit, the more overhead costs will be incurred. Therefore, the more labor-intensive a product is, the more overhead costs it will bear.Another measure used by traditional costing systems is machine hours. Machine hours refer to the number of hours the machines are used in the production process. This measure assumes that the more machine hours needed to produce a unit, the more overhead costs will be incurred. Therefore, the more machine-intensive a product is, the more overhead costs it will bear.A third measure used by traditional costing systems is direct material costs. Direct material costs refer to the cost of the materials that are directly used in the production process. This measure assumes that the more expensive the materials needed to produce a unit, the more overhead costs will be incurred. Therefore, the more material-intensive a product is, the more overhead costs it will bear.
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which element of the marketing mix specifically deals with supply chain management? group of answer choices price production product promotion place
The element of the marketing mix that specifically deals with supply chain management is "place." Place refers to the distribution channels through which a product or service is delivered to the end consumer.
Supply chain management is the process of managing the flow of goods and services from the point of origin to the point of consumption, including all the activities involved in procurement, production, transportation, storage, and delivery of products.
In the context of marketing, place involves making sure that the right products are available at the right time, in the right quantities, and in the right locations to meet customer needs. Supply chain management plays a critical role in ensuring that this happens efficiently and effectively. Companies must work closely with suppliers, manufacturers, distributors, and retailers to coordinate the various stages of the supply chain and ensure that products are delivered to customers in a timely and cost-effective manner.
In summary, place is the element of the marketing mix that specifically deals with supply chain management, as it involves managing the distribution channels and ensuring that products are delivered to customers efficiently and effectively.
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according to information found on the production analysis page of the inquirer, chester sold 1127 units of cat in the current year. assuming that cat maintains a constant market share, all the units of cat are sold in the nano market segment and the growth rate remains constant, how many years will it be before cat will not be able to meet future demand unless the company adds production capacity? exclude any existing inventory.
To know the number of years it will be before CAT is unable to meet future demand unless production capacity is increased, one need:
Current production capacityAnnual growth rateWhat is the CAT?The annual growth rate pertains to the percentage rise in the demand for CAT units in the niche Nano market segment every year.
By utilizing this data, we can make estimates on the future demand and measure it against the current capacity for production to predict the timeline for when further production capabilities will be necessary.
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a broad differentiation strategy works best in situations where: group of answer choices buyers incur low costs in switching their purchases to rival brands. technological change is fast paced and competition revolves around rapidly evolving product features. buyer needs and uses of the product are very similar. buyers have a low degree of bargaining power and purchase the product frequently.
A broad differentiation strategy works best in situations where technological change is fast-paced, and competition revolves around rapidly evolving product features.
The differentiation strategy involves creating a unique and superior product that offers something valuable and different from other products in the market. In fast-paced industries, companies need to stay ahead of the curve and continuously innovate to remain competitive. The differentiation strategy allows companies to create a unique product that customers are willing to pay a premium for, even if switching costs are low.
In situations where buyers have similar needs and uses of the product, a focused differentiation strategy may work better. This strategy involves targeting a specific market segment and tailoring the product to meet their specific needs and preferences. In situations where buyers have a low degree of bargaining power and purchase the product frequently, a low-cost strategy may work better. This strategy involves achieving the lowest cost of production and passing the savings on to customers in the form of lower prices.
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which of the following is not true? the binomial probabilities are probabilities as if investors were risk neutral. when pricing a put with the binomial model, the up and down probabilities are reversed. put-call parity holds within a two period binomial model. the single period binomial hedge ratio for stock call options could be computed by equating the two future cash flows -- from a portfolio of long h shares of stock and short one call -- and solve for the number of underlying stocks to hold
The binomial probabilities are probabilities as if price put a option investors were risk neutral the call option is priced at $19.70. This is so that an investor can invest in the $19.70.
Replicating portfolio and replicate the call option's payment. Finding the underlying stock and risk-free asset combination with the same payment as the call option at the expiration date is necessary to build a replicating portfolio.
If the stock price is $120 in this instance, the call option will pay out $20, and if it is $80, nothing will. Let y represent the amount invested in the risk-free asset, and let x be the number of shares of the stock. To solve for x and y, we can write up two equations as follows: (If the stock) 1.015y + 100x = 100.
Complete question:
which of the following is not true? the binomial probabilities are probabilities as if investors were risk neutral. when pricing a put with the binomial model, the up and down probabilities are reversed. put-call parity holds within a two period binomial model. the single period binomial hedge ratio for stock call options could be computed by equating the two future cash flows -- from a portfolio of long h shares of stock and short one call -- and solve for the number of underlying stocks to hold?
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on method of measuring the extent of a firm's market power is
One method of measuring the extent of a firm's market power is through the calculation of the firm's market share.
Market share refers to the portion of total market sales or revenue that a particular firm holds. It is typically expressed as a percentage and represents the firm's relative dominance or control over a specific market.
By analyzing a firm's market share, one can assess its position in the market compared to its competitors. A higher market share indicates a greater level of market power, as the firm has a larger presence and influence in shaping market dynamics. Conversely, a lower market share suggests a lesser degree of market power, with the firm having less control over market outcomes.
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how was the llamas patrician status changed by its role as a working animal
The llama's patrician status was not changed by its role as a working animal. It seems that there might be a confusion or a mix-up in terms here.
The term "patrician" typically refers to a member of the ancient Roman patrician class, which was an elite social and political group. Llamas, on the other hand, are domesticated animals native to South America.
Llamas have been used as working animals for centuries in the Andean region of South America. They have served various practical purposes such as carrying loads, serving as pack animals, and providing wool for clothing and other products.
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a(n) _________ that is short-term in nature can also be called an operating plan.
A(n) budget that is short-term in nature can also be called an operating plan.
An operating plan refers to a detailed blueprint or strategy that outlines the day-to-day operations and activities of a business or organization. It focuses on the short-term goals and objectives and serves as a guide for achieving them.
A budget, specifically a short-term budget, aligns with the characteristics of an operating plan. A budget is a financial plan that outlines projected revenues, expenses, and cash flows for a specific period, typically on a monthly, quarterly, or annual basis. Short-term budgets usually cover a period of one year or less.
By developing a short-term budget, organizations can effectively allocate resources, manage expenses, and track financial performance in line with their operational goals. It helps in making informed decisions and ensuring the efficient use of resources to achieve the desired outcomes.
A short-term budget serves as an operating plan as it provides a comprehensive framework for managing the day-to-day operations and financial activities of an organization. By aligning financial resources with operational goals, a short-term budget helps organizations maintain control over their expenses, optimize resource allocation, and work towards achieving their short-term objectives.
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Which of the following pieces of information does Linda, a Virginia real estate salesperson who works for Big Valley Realty, NOT have to include on her business cards? "Associated with Big Valley Realty" Big Valley Realty's phone number Her work phone number The name and number of her sponsoring broker
As a Virginia real estate salesperson who works for Big Valley Realty, Linda is required by law to include certain pieces of information on her business cards. This includes her name, the name of her brokerage (Big Valley Realty), and her work phone number. However, she is not required to include the name and number of her sponsoring broker.
The purpose of requiring certain information on business cards is to ensure that consumers have access to important information about the real estate professional they are working with. By including her name, brokerage, and work phone number on her business cards, Linda is making it easy for potential clients to reach out to her and inquire about her services. It's worth noting that while Linda is not required to include the name and number of her sponsoring broker on her business cards, she is required to disclose this information to clients upon request. This is important because it allows clients to verify that Linda is licensed and affiliated with a reputable brokerage. Overall, the information that Linda is required to include on her business cards is designed to promote transparency and protect consumers. By providing easy access to important information, real estate professionals like Linda can build trust with potential clients and establish themselves as reliable, knowledgeable experts in the industry.
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Monopolistic competition is characterized by which of the following attributes?
(i) Free entry; (ii) Product differentiation; (iiI) Many sellers
a. (i) and (iii)only.
b. (i) and (ii) only.
c. (ii) and (iii) only.
d. (i), (ii), and (iii).
The correct answer is (b) (i) and (ii) only. Monopolistic competition is a market structure in which many sellers offer differentiated products that are close substitutes but not identical.
Product differentiation means that each seller can charge a slightly different price and have some market power, but there is still a downward-sloping demand curve and some competition from other sellers. Free entry means that new firms can enter the market if they see an opportunity for profit, which prevents existing firms from earning excessive profits in the long run. Many sellers mean that no single seller has a dominant market share or can control the price, which is different from a monopoly or oligopoly. Overall, monopolistic competition is a common and important market structure that combines elements of both competition and monopoly.
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junior's sporting goods sells camping equipment and outdoor gear. the company is willing to sell a particular fishing pole for as little as $55. its main competitor is sporty gear, which is willing to sell the fishing pole for as little as $45. the current market price of that type of fishing pole is $75. what is the total producer surplus for the two firms?
To calculate the total producer surplus for Junior's Sporting Goods and its main competitor, Sporty Gear, we need to determine the area between the market price and the minimum prices set by the firms. By calculating the producer surplus for each firm and summing them, we can determine the total producer surplus.
Producer surplus is the difference between the price at which a good is sold and the minimum price at which producers are willing to sell it. In this case, Junior's Sporting Goods is willing to sell the fishing pole for a minimum price of $55, while Sporty Gear is willing to sell it for a minimum price of $45. The market price for the fishing pole is $75.
To calculate the producer surplus for Junior's Sporting Goods, we subtract the minimum price ($55) from the market price ($75):
Producer Surplus for Junior's Sporting Goods = Market Price - Minimum Price = $75 - $55 = $20
Similarly, for Sporty Gear, the producer surplus is calculated by subtracting the minimum price ($45) from the market price ($75):
Producer Surplus for Sporty Gear = Market Price - Minimum Price = $75 - $45 = $30
To find the total producer surplus for both firms, we sum the individual producer surpluses:
Total Producer Surplus = Producer Surplus for Junior's Sporting Goods + Producer Surplus for Sporty Gear
= $20 + $30 = $50
Therefore, the total producer surplus for Junior's Sporting Goods and Sporty Gear, combined, is $50.
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which of the following circumstances would result in a deferred tax asset for the current year? expenses that are recognized in financial income this year and deductible next year. expenses that are deductible this year and recognized in financial income next year. revenues that are recognized in financial income this year but are not subject to taxation. revenues that are recognized in financial income this year and taxable next year.
A deferred tax asset for the current year is revenues that are recognized in financial income this year but are not subject to taxation. The correct option is revenues that are recognized in financial income this year but are not subject to taxation.
This is because the company will pay less tax in the following year due to the deductible expense, resulting in a deferred tax asset. On the other hand, if an expense is deductible in the current year but will be recognized in financial income in the following year, it will not result in a deferred tax asset.
Additionally, recognizing revenues that are not subject to taxation or will be taxable in the following year will not result in a deferred tax asset. Therefore, only expenses recognized in the current year that will be deductible in the following year will result in a deferred tax asset. The correct option is revenues that are recognized in financial income this year but are not subject to taxation.
The complete question is:
which of the following circumstances would result in a deferred tax asset for the current year?
expenses that are recognized in financial income this year and deductible next year.
expenses that are deductible this year and recognized in financial income next year.
revenues that are recognized in financial income this year but are not subject to taxation.
revenues that are recognized in financial income this year and taxable next year.
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a professional sport team that uses nielsen ratings from their game broadcasts to set advertising rates is using syndicated data. select one: a. true b. false
A professional sport team that uses nielsen ratings from their game broadcasts to set advertising rates is using syndicated data is b. false
What is the ratings?Syndicated data pertains to information gathered by a market research entity and subsequently offered for sale or subscription to various customers. Usually, the data that is combined together offers intelligence on the conduct of customers, patterns in the market, or the characteristics of the audience.
In contrast, Nielsen Media Research offers metrics for gauging audience engagement called Nielsen ratings.
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berne, inc. uses a flexible budget for manufacturing overhead based on machine hours. variable manufacturing overhead costs per machine hour are as follows: indirect labor $5.00 indirect materials 2.50 maintenance 0.80 utilities 0 .30 fixed overhead costs per month are: supervision $800 insurance 200 property taxes 300 depreciation 900 the company believes it will normally operate in a range of 2,000 to 4,000 machine hours per month. prepare a flexible manufacturing overhead budget for a month for the expected range of activity, using increments of 1,000 machine hours.
A mixed cost example is the overall overhead costs. A cost that is composed of both fixed and variable costs is referred to as a mixed cost. The correct answer b. supervision $800 insurance 200 property taxes 300 depreciation 900 the company believes
Although the fixed component is unaffected by the number of machine hours.15,300 + 5,600 + 6,600 = 27,500 is the fixed overhead. Hourly variable overhead is equal to (54,560 - 27500) / 2200, or $12.3.
The following chart shows how total budgeted overhead costs were calculated:
Variable overhead cost per unit = $24,000 + $39,600 divided by 4,000 to equal $63,600 plus 4,000 to equal $15.9 per machine hour.
$14,000 plus $7,400 plus $8,400 multiplied by 4,000 equals $7.45 per machine hour for fixed overhead costs per unit.
the month after planned expenses for overhead
Cost of variable overhead: 3,900 times $15.9, or $62,010.
Cost of fixed overhead: 4,00 x $7.45 = 29,800
Total budgeted overhead costs equal $62,010 plus $29,800 for variable overhead costs and $91,810 for fixed overhead costs.
When the activity level is 3,900, the total estimated overhead expense for the following month is $91,810.
Complete question:
berne, inc. uses a flexible budget for manufacturing overhead based on machine hours. variable manufacturing overhead costs per machine hour are as follows:
a. indirect labor $5.00 indirect materials 2.50 maintenance 0.80 utilities 0 .30 fixed overhead costs per month are
b. supervision $800 insurance 200 property taxes 300 depreciation 900 the company believes
c. it will normally operate in a range of 2,000 to 4,000 machine hours per month.
d. prepare a flexible manufacturing overhead budget for a month for the expected range of activity, using increments of 1,000 machine hours.
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A regional manager for a major restaurant chain conducts an ANOVA using customer feedback or satisfaction; cards for eight restaurants in the region: The manager hypothesizes customers are equally satisfied with the eight restaurants on average: If the manager selects 11 cards at random from each restaurant; the value for MSB 90,and the calculated value for the associated test statistic equals 6, determine the value for SSWa. 990 b. 45 c. 1,200d. 630
The value for SSWa is c) 1200.
We are given that there are 8 restaurants and 11 cards are selected at random from each restaurant. Let's first find the total number of cards:
Total number of cards = 8 x 11 = 88
The degrees of freedom for the numerator is 8-1=7 and the degrees of freedom for the denominator is 8 x (11-1) = 80.
We are given MSB=90 and F = MSB/MSE = 6. We can use this to find MSE:
MSE = MSB/F = 90/6 = 15
Now we can use the formula for SSWa:
SSWa = MSE x df_within = 15 x 80 = 1200
Therefore, the value for SSWa is 1200.
So the answer is (c) 1,200.
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if mr is greater than mc, a profit-maximizing monopolist should . multiple choice question. decrease output to maximize profits increase output to maximize profits increase firm size
If Mr is greater than mc, a profit-maximizing monopolist should increase output to maximize profits.
Option b is correct.
A monopolist is a single seller or producer of a good or service in the market, with no close substitutes available to consumers. As the only supplier, a monopolist has the power to control the price of the product it sells and can restrict output to increase prices and maximize profits.
A monopolist typically faces a downward-sloping demand curve, meaning that as it increases the price of its product, the quantity demanded by consumers decreases. The degree of market power a monopolist has depends on the barriers to entry in the industry, which prevent competitors from entering the market and competing away its profits.
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if mr is greater than mc, a profit-maximizing monopolist should .
multiple choice question.
decrease output to maximize profits increase output to maximize profits increase firm sizethe condition of decision making in which it is hard to determine outcomes or develop alternatives is known as ______. risk uncertainty probability certainty
The condition of decision making in which it is hard to determine outcomes or develop alternatives is known as uncertainty.
Uncertainty refers to a lack of knowledge or information about future events or outcomes, making it difficult to assess the likelihood or probabilities associated with different scenarios. In situations of uncertainty, decision makers often have limited data or experience to rely on, and the potential outcomes are unclear or ambiguous . Unlike risk, which involves measurable probabilities and known potential outcomes, uncertainty involves a higher degree of unpredictability and ambiguity. Decision making under uncertainty often requires careful analysis, consideration of multiple scenarios, and reliance on judgment and intuition.
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After confirming the content, organization, style, and tone of your message, which of the following should be the focus of your second proofreading pass?
The focus of the second proofreading pass should be on checking for grammatical errors, spelling mistakes, punctuation errors, and ensuring proper sentence structure and clarity in the message.
Proofreading is the process of carefully reviewing a written document to identify and correct errors in grammar, spelling, punctuation, syntax, and overall clarity. It involves reading the text word by word, line by line, and sentence by sentence to ensure accuracy and improve readability. Proofreading helps eliminate typos, grammatical mistakes, and inconsistencies, ensuring that the document is error-free and effectively communicates the intended message. It is an essential step in the writing and editing process to produce polished and professional content.
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Recent research indicates that inflation performance (low inflation) has been found to be best in countries withA) a policy of always keeping interest rates lowB) money financing of budget deficitsC) political control of monetary policyD) the most independent central banks