Fill in the table based on the following equation:
у – x
у
ол | 1 x
-2

Answer:

This is called the product.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The result of a multiplication operation is called a product. The multiplication of whole numbers may be thought of as a repeated addition; that is, the multiplication of two numbers is equivalent to adding as many copies of one of them, the multiplicand, as the quantity of the other one, the multiplier.

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

In first area before change = 216 in

but after change area =54 in

In second perimeter change = 18ft

but after change perimeter = 54ft

radius before change =16mm

but after change =8mm

Answer:

In first area before change=216 in.

but after change area= 54 in.

Complete Question:

State whether each set of hypothesis is valid for a statistical test and briefly explain why ?

[tex]H_0 : \mu=10; \ \ \ H_a : \mu\ne10[/tex]

[tex]H_0 : p \ne 0.5; \ \ \ H_a : p = 0.5[/tex]

[tex]H_0 : p_1 < p_2; \ \ \ H_a : p_1 \supset p_2[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]H_0 : \mu=10; \ \ \ H_a : \mu\ne10[/tex] --- Valid

[tex]H_0 : p \ne 0.5; \ \ \ H_a : p = 0.5[/tex] --- Invalid

[tex]H_0 : p_1 < p_2; \ \ \ H_a : p_1 \supset p_2[/tex] --- Invalid

Step-by-step explanation:

For a test of hypothesis to be valid, the null hypothesis has to contain some form of equality i.e. [tex]=, \le,\ or\ \ge[/tex]

So, the above will be used to test for validity in the given tests of hypotheses.

[tex]H_0 : \mu=10; \ \ \ H_a : \mu\ne10[/tex]

This is valid because the null hypothesis has an equality sign.

The null hypothesis is: [tex]H_0:\mu = 10[/tex]

[tex]H_0 : p \ne 0.5; \ \ \ H_a : p = 0.5[/tex]

This is invalid because the null hypothesis does not have any equality sign. The null hypothesis is: [tex]H_0:p \ne 0.5[/tex]

[tex]H_0 : p_1 < p_2; \ \ \ H_a : p_1 \supset p_2[/tex]

This is invalid because the null hypothesis does not have any equality sign. The null hypothesis is: [tex]H_0:p_1 <p_2[/tex]

Answer:

X=15

Step-by-step explanation:

21:28

x-9:8

Cross multiply

168=28x-252

28x=420

420/28=15

Answer:

x = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

these questions are basically asking you to draw a line down the middle of the shape so that both sides are the same

Answer:

3000.00

Step-by-step explanation:

72,000 divide by 12 months = 6,000

6000.00 divide by 2 = 3000.00

Answer:

heyyyyy timmmmmmyyy

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-7-4=-11

Step-by-step explanation:

-7 - 4 = -11

If you add -11 with +4 you will get -7.

So you have -11+4=-7

         and      -7-4=-11

hope this helps

Answer:

ok

Step-by-step explanation:

mark me brilliant

plzzz

The probability of an impossible event is 0. Because it cannot occur in any situation.

Answer:115

Step-by-step explanation:

i took the lesson

Answer:

I think that it is: [5 2] (.25)^2(.75)^3

Step-by-step explanation:

This looks like a binomial distribution problem. The formula for that is:

A common discrete distribution is used in statistics. The probability the individual will win a prize exactly two times out of five is 0.2637.

A common discrete distribution is used in statistics, as opposed to a continuous distribution is called a Binomial distribution. It is given by the formula,

[tex]P(x) = ^nC_x p^xq^{(n-x)}[/tex]

Where,

x is the number of successes needed,

n is the number of trials or sample size,

p is the probability of a single success, and

q is the probability of a single failure.

The probability of getting a ball out of the four cups will be,

[tex]P = \dfrac14[/tex]

The probability of not getting the ball out of the four cups will be,

[tex]q = \dfrac34[/tex]

Now, using the binomial distribution the probability the individual will win a prize exactly two times out of five can be written as,

[tex]P(x) = ^nC_x p^xq^{(n-x)}\\\\P(x=2) = ^5C_2 \cdot (\dfrac{1}{4})^2\cdot (\dfrac34)^{(5-2)}\\\\P(x=2) = 10 \cdot \dfrac{1}{16} \cdot \dfrac{27}{64}\\\\P(x=2)=0.2637[/tex]

Hence, the probability the individual will win a prize exactly two times out of five is 0.2637.

Learn more about Binomial Distribution:

https://brainly.com/question/14565246

#SPJ2

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]11x + 1 + 7x + 17 = 180 \: \: \: \: 18x + 18 = 180 \: \: \: \: \: \: \: 18x = 180 - 18 \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \:18x = 162 \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: 162 \div 18 = 9[/tex]

Answer:

The long worm work is _ times as long as the shortest worm

The answer is 3/4 inches.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps :D

Step-by-step explanation:

Here's the answer .... Hope it works .

Answer:

24,000 i think

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

For all the dogs: you have 2.65+2.46+3.67+2.91 = 11.69%

Now, the probability of getting a chihuahua would be 3.44/11.69=0.2942= 24.92

Step-by-step explanation:

there ya go....

Answer:

i think you add all the dogs which give you 2.65+2.46+3.67+2.91 = 11.69%

then for the  chihuahua  you add  3.44/11.69=0.2942= 24.92

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3/4 so math

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

true

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

truueee

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 50 Batches

Step-by-step explanation:

16 ounces in a pound

12 pounds times 16 ounces is 192 ounces

192 ounces plus the extra 8 is 200 ounces of flour

200 divided by 4 ounces per batch

200/4= 50

Answer:

50

Step-by-step explanation:

there are 16 ounces in a pound.

at 4 ounces per batch, she can make 4 batches per pound (16/4=4)

so, at 4 batches per full pound, she can make 48 batches (12×4=48)

she can make 2 more batches with the remaining 8 ounces (8/4=2)

so, 48+2= 50 batches

Answer:

true

Step-by-step explanation:

17

25 - 8 = 17

so

17 + 8 = 25

Answer:

$18800

Step-by-step explanation:

3200 + 12(1300)

3200 + 15600

Answer:

$15 600

Step-by-step explanation:

price now-$3200

yearly depreciate=$1300

in 12 years= 1300×12=$15 600

Answer:

14.88m²

if you need the solution tell me