Find the total area round to the nearest 10th if necessary use the pi symbol on calculator

Answer:

C. 12

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the percentage of him drawing a blue marble.

4/10 = 0.4

He has a 40% chance of picking blue.

Find 40% of 30.

12

He would draw a blue marble around 12 times.

Answer:

C

Explanation:

So in the bag, there are 10 marbles, and 4 of them are blue, so if he drew from the bag 10 times, we can assume the fraction:

4/10

Next, we see that the denominator, or the number times Cade is drawing from the bag is 30, which makes us multiply most sides of the fraction by 3:

12/30

So I would say 12/30, but again, he wouldn't draw a blue exactly 4 times, and it may be more or less, so either 8/12....

Hope this helps!

Answer:

seems hard

Step-by-step explanation:

YEEEEET IT AWAY

Answer: C=5

Hope this helps!

Answer:

a=12

Step-by-step explanation:

We must use SOH, CAH, TOA

SOH= Sin0=opp/hyp

CAH=Cos0=adj/hyp

TOA= Tan0=opp/adj

Since we have opposite and hypotenuse we use Sin ratio, in this case,

sin30°= [tex]\frac{a}{24}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]=[tex]\frac{a}{24}[/tex] we cross multiply

[tex]\frac{2a}{2}[/tex]=[tex]\frac{24}{2}[/tex]divide both sides by 2 to get a by itself

a=12

Answer:

a = 12

Step-by-step explanation:

To find a, we will use the trigonometric ratio of Sin, since the opposite side of the angle given needs to be found out and the hypotenuse is given;

Sin(30) = [tex]\frac{a}{24}[/tex]

Sin(30) * 24 = a

12 = a

Hope this helps!

Answer:

8/5

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the slope given two points

m = (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

    = (10- -6)/(5 - -5)

    = (10+6)(5+5)

   = 16/10

   = 8/5

1.6

Step-by-step explanation:

change in y ÷ change in x

(10--6)=16

(5--5)=10

16÷10=1.6

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Since she's not spending more than $32, the equation is 2h + 8 ≤ 32.

Isolate h to find the maximum number of hours she can rent the boat:

2h + 8 ≤ 32

First, subtract 8 from both sides.

2h ≤ 16

Then divide both sides by 2.

h ≤ 8

h, the number of hours, must be less than or equal to 8, so 8 is the maximum number of hours Bernice can rent the boat for.

Answer:

the answer for the first is 22°

the answer for the second is 83°

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1.

The sum of all the interior angles of a triangle is equal to 180°. So, 90°+29°+(39°+x) = 180°.

2.

For the triangle on the right, the measure of 1 angle is not given. To find that out, make use of the angle in 112°: 180°-112° = 68°.

Then, we are able to find x by angle sum of triangles.

68°+29°+x = 180°.

Answer:

x = ± [tex]\sqrt{\frac{y}{a} }[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

y = ax² ( divide both sides by a to isolate x² )

[tex]\frac{y}{a}[/tex] = x² ( take the square root of both sides )

x = ± [tex]\sqrt{\frac{y}{a} }[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The lines are making 90° with each other.

Correct choice is C

Answer: A

Step-by-step explanation: 35 / 2 = 17.5

Answer:

C. is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

i hope this helps :) brainliest please?

Answer:5 3/20

Step-by-step explanation:

6 8/20 0- 1 5/20= 5 3/20

Answer:

I think 12 * 12/ 60 = ?

12*12= 144

144/ 60= ?

Answer:

360°

Step-by-step explanation:

I think

1/2 base ×height

1/2×60×12

30×12

=360

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

i'm doing the activity rn and got it right

Answer:

the answer is d

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: should be x> -18

Step-by-step explanation: hope this helps

Answer:

x > -18

Step-by-step explanation:

8 > 2 - x/3

Multiply the equation by 3.

24 > 6 - x

Flip around to make working with it easier.

6 - x < 24

Subtract 6 from both sides.

-x < 18

Divide by -1. When dividing by a negative in an inequality, flip the sign.

x > -18.

Answer:

The answer is 24 in my opinion

Step-by-step explanation:

1)1 2 3 4

2)1 2 4 3

3)1 3 2 4

4)1 3 4 2

5)1 4 3 2

6)1 4 2 3

Answer:

C-24

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

A right angle triangle with legs x and 10.

The angle opposite to the side with measure 10 is 33 degrees.

To find:

The value of x.

Solution:

We know that, in a right angle triangle,

[tex]\tan \theta=\dfrac{Perpendicular}{Base}[/tex]

In the given triangle,

[tex]\tan 33^\circ=\dfrac{10}{x}[/tex]

[tex]x=\dfrac{10}{\tan 33^\circ}[/tex]

[tex]x=15.39864[/tex]

[tex]x\approx 15.4[/tex]

Therefore, the value of x is 15.4 units.

Answer:

Fahad is taller with 31 centimeters

Step-by-step explanation:

1090mm=109cm

Fahad is taller than Fareed by 31 centimeters.

1090 mm = 109 cm

140 cm - 109 cm = 31 cm

Hope this helps; please mark brainliest!

Have an amazing day!

Answer:

[tex]first \: answer \: is \: true[/tex]

Answer:

The answer is D! Sorry if I get the answer wrong.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

uhm 0 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

The value of the inverse trigonometric expression sin⁻¹(sin 17°) will be 17°.

Simply put, inverse trigonometric operations are the opposites of the fundamental trigonometric parameters sine, cosine, secant, cosecant, tangent, and cotangent.

The connection between the lengths and angles of a triangular shape is the subject of trigonometry.

The inverse trigonometric expression is given below.

⇒ sin⁻¹(sin 17°)

We know that the value of sin⁻¹(sin θ) is θ.

Then the value of the inverse trigonometric expression will be

⇒ sin⁻¹(sin 17°)

⇒ 17°

Thus, the value of the inverse trigonometric expression sin⁻¹(sin 17°) will be 17°.

More about the inverse trigonometry link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/20595059

#SPJ2

Answer:

0.6 I think ........................

Answer:

setup below, you'll have to do the final calculation

Step-by-step explanation:

first perform the operation in parenthesis

2+39= 41

then do the multiplication 3 x 41

in general do calculations in this order

1. Parenthesis

2. Multiplication

3. Division

4. Addition

5. Subtraction

working from left to right

Answer: 17 pounds

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

formula for the first question:

a^2+b^2=c^2

8^2+6^2= 100

√100 = 10cm

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

arrange the number in order from smallest to largest, 4, 6, 6, 9, 11, 19, 23, 34. you then find the middle number, in this case there is no middle number, but 9 and 11 are the closest, so you add those to together to get 20, then divide by 2. this gives you ten

if you have any questions, leave them in the comments and i will try to answer them, if this helped pls give brainliest

Answer:

Hello There!!

Step-by-step explanation:

Median is ordering the numbers from smallest to biggest.

Ordered: 4,6,6,9,11,19,23,34

And there is no middle number so you have two add the two middle numbers 9+11=20 then divide by 2 which equals 10.

hope this helps,have a great day!!

~Pinky~

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

If 6 numbers have a mean value of 10, it means that the sum of the numbers divided 6 is equal to 10. This can be expressed as:

x÷6=10

x=60

The new number added will be the 7th number and now the mean is 9. You have to ask what number divided by 7 is equal to 9? This can be expressed as:

y÷7=9

y=63

63-60=3

So the new number added is 3

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

Mean is calculated as

mean = [tex]\frac{sum}{count}[/tex]

Given the mean of 6 numbers is 10, then

[tex]\frac{sum}{6}[/tex] = 10 ( multiply both sides by 6 )

sum = 60

When another number x is added then count is 7

[tex]\frac{60+x}{7}[/tex] = 9 ( multiply both sides by 7 )

60 + x = 63 ( subtract 60 from both sides )

x = 3 ← the number added

Answer:

tysm!!

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]have[/tex]  [tex]a[/tex]  [tex]great[/tex]  [tex]day[/tex] [tex]:)[/tex]

AAAAAAA THANK YOU :D

P(a) x p(b) = 2/5 x 1/4 = 2/20 = 1/10

1/10 does not equal 1/9 so the event is dependent

The answer is B ( the second choice)

Answer:

[tex]Pr = \frac{1}{870}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]n =30[/tex]

Required

Probability of selecting 2 toys of different types

From the question, we understand that all toys are different i.e. 1 of each type.

And the selection is without replacement;

So, after the first toy is selected; there are n - 1 toys left.

So, the probability is:

[tex]Pr = \frac{1}{n} * \frac{1}{n - 1}[/tex]

Substitute [tex]n =30[/tex]

[tex]Pr = \frac{1}{30} * \frac{1}{30- 1}[/tex]

[tex]Pr = \frac{1}{30} * \frac{1}{29}[/tex]

[tex]Pr = \frac{1}{30*29}[/tex]

[tex]Pr = \frac{1}{870}[/tex]