How many of you go to Wilders Prepatory Academy Charter School

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

x=1/2=2/4

y=5/4

y=2.5x

10/2.5=4

so x=4

Answer:

14π

Step-by-step explanation:

C = 2πr

D=2r

D=14

14=2r

r=7

C=2π(7)

C=14π or 43.98

Answer: 100

Step-by-step explanation: I don't really have a step-by-step explaination, but I do know that the answer is 100.  

Answer:

x=8. You plug 8 in for x.

7+12(8)=103

7+96=103

Step-by-step explanation:

7+12x=103

or 12x=103-7

x=96/12=8

to check it 8 is needed.

7+12×8=103

Answer:

Compound interest is better, by $14.36.

Step-by-step explanation:

Simple Interest:

The simple interest formula is given by:

[tex]E = P*I*t[/tex]

In which E is the amount of interest earned, P is the principal(the initial amount of money), I is the interest rate(yearly, as a decimal) and t is the time.

After t years, the total amount of money is:

[tex]T = E + P[/tex]

Compound interest:

The compound interest formula is given by:

[tex]A(t) = P(1 + \frac{r}{n})^{nt}[/tex]

Where A(t) is the amount of money after t years, P is the principal(the initial sum of money), r is the interest rate(as a decimal value), n is the number of times that interest is compounded per year and t is the time in years for which the money is invested or borrowed.

Total amount in compound interest:

$3,000 in a certificate of deposit that pays 2.8% interest, compounded annually for 4 years. This means, respectively, that [tex]P = 3000, r = 0.028, n = 1, t = 4[/tex]

So

[tex]A(t) = P(1 + \frac{r}{n})^{nt}[/tex]

[tex]A(4) = 3000(1 + \frac{0.028}{1})^{4} = 3350.38[/tex]

Total amount in simple interest:

[tex]P = 3000, I = 0.028, t = 4[/tex]

So

[tex]E = P*I*t = 3000*0.028*4 = 336[/tex]

[tex]T = E + P = 3000 + 336 = 3336[/tex]

Which is better and by how much?

Higher earning with compound interest, so it is better.

3350.36 - 3336 = 14.36

Compound interest is better, by $14.36.

Answer:

The expected number of ticket holders that will fail to show for the flight is 13.9.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each ticket holder, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they fail to show up for the flight, or they do not. Ticket holders are independent. This means that we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

Probability of exactly x sucesses on n repeated trials, with p probability.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]E(X) = np[/tex]

5% of passengers fail to show for flights

This means that [tex]p = 0.05[/tex]

278 tickets sold

This means that [tex]n = 278[/tex]

What is the expected number of ticket holders that will fail to show for the flight?

[tex]E(X) = np = 278*0.05 = 13.9[/tex]

The expected number of ticket holders that will fail to show for the flight is 13.9.

Answer:

The TI-84 Plus Silver Edition is powered by four AAA alkaline batteries (not included) , with an automatic shutoff to save energy.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

approx 41.6%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

41.7%

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you will divide 20 by 48.

[tex]20/48=0.4167[/tex]

Secondly, you would multiply by 100%

[tex]0.4167* 100= 41.67%[/tex]%

If you round to the nearest whole number it would give you [tex]42[/tex]%. If it is rounded to the nearest tenth it would be [tex]41.7%[/tex]%

Answer:

x = 16.2

Step-by-step explanation:

5/9 = 9/x

5x = 81

x = 16.2

The dog is able to run around in a circle with a radius of9 ft.

The area of a circle is A = pi r^2

A = (3.14) (9)^2

A= (3.14)(81)

A= 254.34 sq ft

Answer:

B. Vanessa only established some of the necessary conditions for a congruence criterion.

Step-by-step explanation:

The diagram does support the claim that \overline{KL}\cong\overline{MN}  

KL

≅  

MN

start overline, K, L, end overline, \cong, start overline, M, N, end overline because they both have two tick marks.

Step 1 is correct.

Step 2

The diagram does support the claim that \overline{LM}\cong\overline{NK}  

LM

≅  

NK

start overline, L, M, end overline, \cong, start overline, N, K, end overline because they both have a single tick mark.

Step 2 is correct.

Step 3

In this step, Vanessa claims that \triangle KLM\cong \triangle MNK△KLM≅△MNKtriangle, K, L, M, \cong, triangle, M, N, K using the side-side-side criterion. But Vanessa only established two pairs of congruent corresponding sides. To use this criterion, we must establish three pairs of congruent sides.

Vanessa would be able to use this criterion if she first established that \overline{MK}\cong\overline{KM}  

MK

≅  

KM

start overline, M, K, end overline, \cong, start overline, K, M, end overline (this can be done with the reason that line segments are congruent to themselves).

The first error Vanessa made in her proof was option B.

Vanessa only established two pairs of congruent corresponding sides

polygons are congruent if they may be identical in size and shape - that is, if their corresponding angles and sides are the same.

Congruent shapes are shapes that can be exactly equal. The corresponding facets are identical and the corresponding angles are equal.

⇒KL≅  MN   9K, L, end overline)

⇒LM≅  NK

⇒MNK△KLM≅△MNK  (triangle, K, L, M)

Vanessa would be able to use this criterion if she first established that

⇒MK≅  KM

Learn more about concurrency here:-https://brainly.com/question/513871

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Answer:

[tex]\boxed {\boxed {\sf x \approx 105.3}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve for x, remember the right triangle trigonometry ratios (soh-cah-toa).

If we look at the angle given (θ), then we see that 36 is adjacent or next to the 70° angle. x is the hypotenuse because it is opposite the right angle. So, we have to use cosine (adjacent and hypotenuse).

[tex]cos (\theta)=\frac {adjacent}{hypotenuse}[/tex]

[tex]cos(70)=\frac{36}{x}[/tex]

Cross multiply. (Multiply the first numerator by the second denominator. Then, multiply the first denominator by the second numerator).

[tex]\frac{cos(70)}{1}=\frac{36}{x}[/tex]

[tex]cos(70)*x= 36[/tex]

Since we want to solve for x, we must isolate the variable. Divide both sides by the cosine of 70.

[tex]\frac{cos(70)*x}{cos(70)}=\frac{ 36}{cos(70)}\\x= 105.2569584[/tex]

Round to the nearest tenth. The 5 in the hundredth place tells us to round the 2 to a 3.

[tex]x \approx 105.3[/tex]

x is about 105.3

(a) Center is K (b) Radius is KI ,(c) Chord is KL,(d) Diameter is JKI,(e) Sectant is JL,(f) Tangent is GI,(g) Point of Tangency is H,(h) Minor Arc is JL,(i) Major Arc is HIJ,(j) Semicircle is HIL,(k) Center Angle is HKI,(l) Inscribed Angle is HIJ.

A circle is a geometrical figure which becomes by plotting a point around a fixed point by keeping a constant distance.

In our daily life, we always see circular objects for example our bike wheel.

The longest line which can be drawn inside the circle will be the diameter.

Area of the circle = πr² and the perimeter of circle = 2πr where r is the radius of the circle.

As per the given circle,

(a)→ Center is at K

(b)→ Radius is at KI

(c)→ Chord is at KL

(d)→ Diameter is at JKI

(e)→ Sectant is at JL

(f)→ Tangent is at GI

(g) →Point of Tangency is at H

(h)→ Minor Arc is at JL

(i)→ Major Arc is at HIJ

(j)→ Semicircle is at HIL

(k)→ Center Angle is at HKI

(l) →Inscribed Angle is at HIJ

Hence "All parts of the circle have been shown above".

To learn more about the circle,

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Answer:

If you have a spinner spin it 2 times if u dont have one just use a virtual one on the internet

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

By spinning it once, you have a 1/3 chance to land on A. By spinning it again, you have another 1/3 chance to land on A. If you add 1/3 and 1/3, you get 2/3.

Answer:

60 cookies are chocolate

30 cookies are peanut butter

15 cookies are snickerdoodle

15 cookies are oatmeal raisin

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

it increases by 10

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

18 nuts in 12 minutes, 13.5 nuts in 4 minutes and 90 nuts in one hour

Step-by-step explanation:

12 min :

12/6 = 2    

2 x 9 = 18 nuts in 12 minuts

4 min:

6/4 = 1.5

1.5 x 9 = 13.5 nuts in 4 minutes

(round to 13 if whole nuts only)

1 hour:

1 hour = 60 mins

60/6 = 10

9 x 10 = 90 nuts in one hour

Answer:

-2.75

-1.75

-0.75

0.25

1.25

Step-by-step explanation:

The value of x is given in the top row of the table. We can complete the rest of the table by plugging in the corresponding values of x into the equation and solve for y.

For example:

y = (-2) - 3/4 = -2.75

y = (-1) - 3/4 = -1.75

y = (0) - 3/4 = -0.75

y = (1) - 3/4 = 0.25

y = (2) - 3/4 = 1.25

Answer:

116°

Step-by-step explanation:

complementary angles add to 180 so

180-64= 116

Answer:

C. 15/8 is the correct answer and the mixed form would be 1 7/8

Step-by-step explanation:

figure A :

step 1: multiply

3 x 4 x 4 x5=240m

figure B:

step 1: add

17+12+5+ 15=49cm

Answer:

your answer is b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

X + 2 [tex]\geq \\[/tex] 19

Step-by-step explanation:

a number  ur going to represent with a variable x and increased by 2 means + 2 so x + 2 and when it say greater than or equal to remember that it always opens to the lager number or x + 2 and has a line underneath to represent the or equal to.

Answer:

(-5 1 0 0) and (-3 0 1 0)

Step-by-step explanation:

Based on my memory,  you can use the dot product to find orthogonality meaning

u1 . u2 = 0

In this case, we let u be the arbitrary vector represented by (x y z w)

u . (1 5 3 0) can be expressed as an equation given by:

{(x y z w) | x + 5y + 3z  + 0w= 0}

We solve this equation letting y = s and z = t and x = -5s -3t

Reconstruct this according to their variable will give

(-5 1 0 0)s + (-3 0 1 0)t = 0

So the basis vectors are (-5 1 0 0) and (-3 0 1 0).

Let c1 and c2 be arbitrary constants:

if you solve for c1(-5 1 0 0) + c2(-3 0 1 0) = 0

c1 and c2 should have only trivial solution, which proves its

linear independence and so it forms a basis vector space.

Answer:

Parallelogram

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry if it's wrong