I have to do the “got it”!!! Please help

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

y= -7/2x -7

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  a line labeled g of x that passes through points (-1, -2) and (0, 2)

Step-by-step explanation:

We can find the function g(x) to be ...

  g(x) = f(x+1) = 4(x+1) -2

  g(x) = 4x +2

This tells us the y-intercept is (0, 2), so the only viable answer choice is ...

  a line labeled g of x that passes through points (-1, -2) and (0, 2)

Answer:

Your answer would be C:]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 35x+50x_<(less than or equal to)1,325

Step-by-step explanation:

it’s easy and I’m taking the test and got it right

Answer:

Remember that a line segment is the portion of a straight line that directly connects two given points. Unlike a line, it does not extend off to infinity in both directions. To find the length, we just use the distance formula between the two points provided.

Example:

Find the distance between (-2,8) and (-7,-5). Said another way, find the length of the line segment between points (-2,8) and (-7,-5).

First, find the distance between the x-coordinates. To do this, subtract one number from the other and then take its absolute value.

We have: |-2-(-7)| = |5| = 5.

Then repeat with the y-coordinates.

We have: |8-(-5)| = |13| = 13.

NOTE: It does NOT matter which way you subtract the numbers because the absolute value of the answer would be the same anyway.

Finally, to compete the length (or distance), square BOTH values, add them, and take the square root. Here's the first part:

[tex]5^{2}[/tex]  +  [tex]13^{2}[/tex]  = 25  +  169  =  194

Taking the square root of 194 and rounding to TWO decimal places, we get a distance of 13.93:

[tex]\sqrt(194)[/tex]  =  13.93

By the way, what you are actually doing is using the Pythagorean Theorem on an imaginary right triangle with the line joining the two lines being the hypotenuse.

The general formula for distance between two points is the following:  [tex]\sqrt{x^2+y^{2}[/tex]  , where x and y are the change in x and y between the two points.

The correct answer is Farah's mixture

Explanation:

In this situation, how strong chocolate flavor is in the mix depends on the ratio of ingredients as more cocoa leads to a stronger chocolate flavor.

Rasu:

Her ratio was 3 teaspoons of cocoa mix and 2 cups of milk. This can be expressed as 3:2  or [tex]\frac{3}{2}[/tex]. Also, this can be simplified by dividing the amount of cocoa into the amount of milk 3 ÷ 2 = 1.5. This means for each cup of milk Rasu added 1.5 teaspoons of cocoa.

Farah:

The ratio was 5 teaspoons of cocoa mix and 3 cups of milk. So, the ratio is 5 : 3 or [tex]\frac{5}{3}[/tex], which is equal to 1.6. This implies for each cup of milk Farah added 1.6 teaspoons of cocoa. This ratio of cocoa vs milk is higher in Farah, which means he added more cocoa, and her mix would have a stronger chocolate flavor.

Answer:

4x^2+8x-5

Step-by-step explanation:

You work backwards to get (2x-1) which gets you the root 1/2 and (2x+5) which gets you the root -5/2 after this you foil what you have so (2x-1) times (2x+5). You do 2x times 2x which gives you 4x^2 2x times 5 which gives you 10x -1 times 2x which gives -2x and lastly -1 times 5 which gives you -5 now you combine like terms and get your final answer of 4x^2+8x-5

Answer:

Hi

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$5.25

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1:

10.50 / 6 = x / 3       Equation

Step 2:

6x = 31.5      Multiply

Step 3:

x = 31.5 ÷ 6      Divide

Answer:

x = 5.25

Hope This Helps :)

Answer: See explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Price of sandwich = $6

Food tax = 5% of $6

= 0.05 × $6

= $0.3

Tip = 20% of $6

= 0.2 × $6

= $1.2

Total cost of meal:

= $6 + $0.3 + $1.2

= $7.5

Answer: 1: $0.30 2: $1.20 3: $7.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: No, the experiment is not binomial

Step-by-step explanation:

From the formula for a binomial distribution :

nCx * p^k * q^(n - x)

n = number of trials (fixed)

x = number of success on trial

p = probability of success (which is the same for each trial).

q = (1 - p) = probability of failure (same for each trial)

Binomial experiment have binary outcome ; Either Success or Failure

The experiment described above :

Number of trials is satisfied (8 picks)

Binary outcome (matches on ticket or match does not exist).

Answer:

I THINK the answer is 57

Step-by-step explanation:

Add 51 + 36 + 84

Divide 171 by 57

57 is the most that can go into 171 evenly.

-5=r/9

-45=r

Step-by-step explanation:

you're just trying to get the r alone. so you have to subtract the 8 and multiply the nine. you're just reversing the problem.

Answer:

(2y+50)+(7x-248)=180    (solve for x and y)    supplementary angles add up to 180 and these two angles are supplementary complements

(5y-17) + (x+44) = 180   (solve for x and y)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

down

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y=6x-4

Step-by-step explanation:

for the y=mx+b format your m is the slope which is 6 and the b is the y intercept which is the 4

Answer:

The answer is B or -3.132

Step-by-step explanation:

You are multiplying 2 negatives and a positive, so it guarantees it will be negative! Hope this helps!

Answer:

she is running at a constant speed

Step-by-step explanation:

the bar is still because she isnt going faster or slowing down she is constant

Answer:

D: She is at a constant speed.

Step-by-step explanation:

she is not acceleraring or decelerating, so her speed is constant

Answer:

1. true

2. false

3. true

4. true

Answer:

1.

[tex]2765000000 \: or \: 2.765 \times {10}^{9} [/tex]

2.

[tex]273 \: seconds[/tex]

3.

[tex]3.5 \times {10}^{7} [/tex]

Answer:

1. x= 17

2. x= 31

3. x= 4

4. x= 40

Step-by-step explanation:

first one:

you pass the 10 dividing

x-7 = 100/10  ----> x-7 =10

Pass the 7 adding

x = 10+7 ---> x= 17

second one:

Pass the 7 multiplying

x+11= 6*7 ---> x+11= 42

Pass the 11 in substraction

x = 42-11  ----> x =31

third one:

Add the 3+8 = 11

Pass the 11 dividing

x*11 = 44 -----> x= 44/11 ---> x= 4

fourth one:

Rest the 8-4 = 4

Pass the 4 multiplying

x/ 4 = 10 -----> x = 4*10 ---> x= 40

Answer:

41 and then 24 i belive

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:Well the first one is 60

Step-by-step explanation:6!/3!2!=60 thats all i got

Answer:

60 for the first one

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 15:26

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: Car a travels 15 miles while car b travels 26 miles.

Now, the ratio of the distance traveled by car a to car b is given by :-

[tex]\dfrac{\text{15 miles}}{\text{26 miles}}=\dfrac{15}{26}[/tex] , which is the fraction in the simplest as highest common factor of 15 and 26 =1.

So, the the ratio of the distance traveled by car a to car b = 15:26

Hence, the ratio of car a to car b = 15:26

Answer:

M/140 = 50/60

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the total is 200 it will be the denominator but we already have 60 gallons so we do 200-60=140

the ratio is 50 per 60

Answer:

its c

Step-by-step explanation:

took the testisk...........

Answer:

The inverse is 1/2x -1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) = 2x+1

y = 2x+1

Exchange x and y

x = 2y+1

Solve for y

Subtract 1

x-1 = 2y+1-1

x-1 =2y

Divide by 2

x/2 -1/2 = 2y/2

1/2x -1/2 = y

The inverse is 1/2x -1/2

Answer:

Bart worked 37.5 hours last week (37 1/2).

Step-by-step explanation: Divide total pay by rate per hour (in this case $6.30 per hour.)

$236.25 (the total) / $6.30 (money per hour) = 37.5 or 37 1/2