Inequality question PLEASE HELP

x = 2 y = 7

Step-by-step explanation:

the explan at the pic

Answer:

5. 1 1/2 ( c )

6. 3 7/10 ( c )

Step-by-step explanation:

i can help u with the whole test if u give me brainliest

Answer: b then!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

14

Step-by-step explanation:

Because right angles are 90 degrees, we need to subtract 34 from 90 which gets us 56. That means 56 = 4x, so 56/4 = 14, therefore X = 14.

Hope this helps!

Both angles form a right angle which is 90 degrees.

Angle 2 would equal 90 degrees - angle 1

Angle 2 = 90 -34 = 56

So now we know 4x = 56

To find x divide both sides by 4

X = 14

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]4x + 2 = 90 \\4x = 88 \\ x = 22[/tex]

Answer:

D is one of them

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1 4

2 8

3 12

6 24

for next year, its 32

Step-by-step explanation:

cauz 8 divided by 2 is 4

Also since it goes up by four, 3 is 12 and 6 is 24

Answer:

$135

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

hows it goin my boi

Answer:

B is your answer

Step-by-step explanation:

there is none but GOOD LUCK

Answer:

17.5

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of a triangle is (height*base)divided by two

(the eight is really unnecessary)

so 7=base

8=height

7*5=35

35/2=17.5

Answer:

um.....

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3/10

Step-by-step explanation:

The true statements are as follows

The following statements considered to be false:

Therefore, the above statements are considered true.

Learn more: brainly.com/question/17429689

Answer:

obama your mama she looks like joe mama

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

3 times 3 is equal to nine

Have a good day!

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

This is the answer.:)

The factors of 9 are : 1, 3, 9.

Answer:

u  16

Step-by-step explanation:

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  3 days

Step-by-step explanation:

You can estimate the answer (correctly) by observing that 3 × 70 is 210. This is close enough to 232.85 that you know the number of rental days is not 2 or 4.

The equation for the number of days (d) is ...

  73.95d +11 = 232.85 . . . $73.95 per day plus an extra fee

  73.95d = 221.85 . . . . . . subtract 11

  d = 221.85/73.95 = 3 . . . . divide by the coefficient of d

The saw was rented for 3 days.

Answer:

3 days

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.9192 = 91.92% probability that the weight will be less than 4473 grams.

Step-by-step explanation:

Normal Probability Distribution:

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the z-score of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Mean weight of 3950 grams and a standard deviation of 374 grams.

This means that [tex]\mu = 3950, \sigma = 374[/tex]

Find the probability that the weight will be less than 4473 grams.

This is the pvalue of Z when X = 4473. So

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{4473 - 3950}{374}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1.4[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1.4[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.9192

0.9192 = 91.92% probability that the weight will be less than 4473 grams.

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  245 cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

The surface area of a cone is given by ...

  SA = πr(r +s) . . . . where r is the radius, and s is the slant height

Filling in the given values, we have ...

  SA = (3.14)(3 cm)(3 cm +23 cm) = (3.14)(3)(26) cm² ≈ 245 cm²

The surface area of the cone is about 245 cm².

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a really famous diagram!  The circle has been divided into many wedges (think slices of pizza!).  The wedges have been colored alternately blue and yellow, then the wedges were rearranged to form a "rectangle" -- well, it's approximately a rectangle because the wedges have arcs (pieces of a circle) on them.  See how the bottom and top edges of the rectangle look bumpy?

The area of the "rectangle" is approximately [tex]\pi r^2[/tex] .  The reason is that the height of the rectangle is  r , the radius of the circle.  And the length of the rectangle is about [tex]\pi r[/tex] -- half the circumference of the circle.  It's half because the circumference is in the bumpy parts of the wedges--half blue, half yellow.

The approximation improves as the number of wedges increases.  In fact, as the number of slices (sorry, pizza again) gets larger, the length of the rectangle gets closer and closer to half the circumference.  In other words, making more wedges makes the rectangle less bumpy!

Answer:

2 250×96×2.75=5 940

Step-by-step explanation:

1 year=12 months

8 year's =96 Month's

first thing you need to do is to convert Years into months

Answer:

a=16 is your correct answer.

Hope it helps!!!

Answer:

Cannot be determined with the information given in and of itself.

Step-by-step explanation:

You would have 1 apple left. However, there is absolutely no information given about the original amount of peanuts, how many peanuts are given to you, how many peanuts are taken from you, how many apples to a peanut, etc. etc. No answer in peanuts can be given.

I would appreciate Brainliest, but no worries.

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

if you have 2 and you take one away you have 1,

you'll have 0 peanuts since apples can't become peanuts, unless you have them already or buy them; apples won't help you get peanuts.

Answer:

16

Step-by-step explanation:

22-6=16 ;0

Answer:

Since the calculated t = -3.9886 falls in the critical region t ∝/2 ≥±2.101 we reject the null hypothesis and conclude that variance of impact strength is different for the two suppliers

Step-by-step explanation:

The given data is

Sample1 mean = x1` = 289.3

Sample 1 size = n1= 10

Sample 1 std. dev= s1= 22.5

Sample2 mean = x2` = 321.5

Sample 2 size = n2= 16

Sample 2 std. dev= s2= 21

1)Formulate the null and alternate hypothesis as

H0: σ₁=σ₂ against the claim Ha: σ₁ ≠σ₂

2)The test statistic is

t= (x1`- x2`) / √ s1²/n1+ s2²/n2

where degrees of freedom = d.f=

υ = [s₁²/n1 + s₂²/n2]²/ (s₁²/n1 )²/ n1-1 + (s₂²/n2)²/n2-1

3) the significance level chosen is ∝= 0.05

4) Calculating the d.f

υ = [s₁²/n1 + s₂²/n2]²/ (s₁²/n1 )²/ n1-1 + (s₂²/n2)²/n2-1

    = [21²/10 + 22.5²/16] / [(21/²10)² /9 + (22.5²/16)²/15]

= 18

5) the critical region for ∝= 0.05 for 18 d.f =  ±2.101 for two sided test

6) t= (x1`- x2`) / √ s1²/n1+ s2²/n2

t= 289.3- 321.5/√21²/10 + 22.5²/16

t= -32.2/√44.1+31.64

t= -32.2/8.0729

t= -3.9886

7) Conclusion

Since the calculated t = -3.9886 falls in the critical region t ∝/2 ≥±2.101 we reject the null hypothesis and conclude that variance of impact strength is different for the two suppliers

Answer:

At 2:00.

Step-by-step explanation:

You take 10 minutes off 2:50 for play time add the two 20s together then subtract 40 to get 2:00.

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

9/10+1/10=(9+1)/10=10/10=1

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

you can add the two fractions since they have a common denominator. 9/10 + 1/10 = 10/10

any number divided by itself is equal to 1

Answer:

Mean: 14

Median: 15

Mode: All values appear just once

Range: 7

Answer:

Mean of sample means = 22.12

Step-by-step explanation:

Data points     1     2     3     4     5        Sample mean

Sample 1         21    10   19    35   23         21.6

Sample 2        34   44   29   15   30         30.4

Sample 3        38   22   29   31   15          27

Sample 4         47   39    20  16   36         31.6

[tex]Mean of means = \frac{Sum of sample means}{No. of samples}[/tex]

                         [tex]=\frac{21.6 + 30.4 + 27 + 31.6 }{5} \\= 22.12[/tex]

Answer:

22.12

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps

Answer: 28.05

Step-by-step explanation: