Mrs. Riddell had 1/2 of the blueberry pie. Ms. Braddock ate 1/4 of the pie. Mrs. Muse ate 1/8 of the pie. How much pie did the 5th grade teachers eat altogether? *

The equivalent expression of [tex]w^{4} -36[/tex] is [tex](w^{2} -6)(w^{2} +6)[/tex].

Equivalent expressions are expressions that work the same even though they look different.

According to the given question.

we have an expression [tex]w^{4} -36[/tex]

The equivalent expression of the above expression can be given by

[tex]w^{4} -36[/tex]

⇒ [tex](w^{2}) ^{2} -(6)^{2}[/tex]

⇒[tex](w^{2}-6)(w^{2} +6)[/tex]      (by using the property [tex]a^{2} -b^{2} = (a-b)(a+b)[/tex] )

Hence, the equivalent expression of [tex]w^{4} -36[/tex] is [tex](w^{2} -6)(w^{2} +6)[/tex].

Thus, option D is correct.

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an expression that s equivalent to 36x^4- 100 would be 4(3x²+5)(3x²−5)

Answer:

=8x^2-10x-3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D. 7

Step-by-step explanation:

7/8 x 8 = 7

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Each football weighs 7/8 of a pound. Let's convert 7/8 to a decimal by dividing its numerator by its denominator. ANSWER: The total weight of the football, in pounds, is 7 lb.

Answer:

Sorry,for the answer it is too difficult brother .

Answer:

M' (- 3, 1 )

Step-by-step explanation:

Under a rotation about the origin of 90°

a point (x, y ) → (- y, x ) , then

M (1, 3 ) → M' (- 3, 1 )

Answer:

the answer is a

Step-by-step explanation:

a is .75 shaded in then there are 5 sections in the shaded area

Answer:

D is the correct option.

Step-by-step explanation:

I used the elimination method to solve this. so we can see that there is 100 boxes and we need to 75 to be shaded. only C and D have 75 squares shaded so we can eliminate A and B. now we have to divide by 5. Square C is divided 3 times while square D is divided 5 times, so square D is correct.

Have a nice day! :-)

Answer:

29.50 degrees to the nearest hundredth.

Step-by-step explanation:

First we can find the measure of < CGB by using the Cosine Rule:

cos <CGB = (11^2 - 5.3^2 - 6.9^2) / (-2 * 5.3 * 6.9)

= -0.61936

So m < CGB = 128.27 degrees.

Now we can find the measure of x by using the Sine Rule:

11 / sin 128.27 = 6.9  / sin x

sin x =  6.9 * sin 128.27 / 11

= 0.49248

x = 29.5035 degrees

Answer:

x is around 29.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's just use the law of cosines.

[tex]c^2 = a^2 + b^2 - 2ab\cos\angle (ab)\\\\6.9^2 = 5.3^2 + 11^2 - 2\cdot5.3\cdot11\cdot \cos x^{\circ}\\47.61 = 28.09 + 121 - 116.6\cdot\cos x^{\circ}\\~\\cos x^{\circ} = \frac{149.09 - 47.61}{116.6} = \frac{101.48}{116.6}\\~\\x^{\circ} = \arccos\frac{101.48}{116.6}\\~\\x^{\circ} \approx 29.5^\circ[/tex]

Answer:

28x

Step-by-step explanation:

Use foil to get

8x^2 +28x+12

middle term is 28x

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

trapezoid

Step-by-step explanation:

look at it my guy

Answer:

If you are talking about 1/2 scale factor, it is D. 32.

Step-by-step explanation:

What you are saying does not make sense for a scale factor of 1. If it were a scale factor of one, it would still be 64 lbs. which is not a option.

Can I get brainliest please?

Answer:

1.

2. $25 dollars for 10 toppings

3. $19 dollars for 6 toppings

4. 6 toppings

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

154 sq. meters

Step-by-step explanation:

the area of the whole  thing is 180 then you find the area of the blank space which is 16 and subtract it out

Answer:

44

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1,4 1,6 1,8 2,0 2,2

Step-by-step explanation:

The Times table of 2

Answer:

Aired

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$283.50

Step-by-step explanation:

210x0.35=73.5

73.5+210=283.5

Answer: $283.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Okie dokie! All you have to do is Multiply 210 by 135%, since 135% is a markup of 35%. Make sure to convert your percent's to decimals.

210 x 1.35 = 283.50.

So $283.50 is the selling price!

Answer:

1.2, 1.6, 2.0

Step-by-step explanation:

Pythagorean theorem

A^2 +b^2=c2

1.2^2+1.6^2=2^2

1.44 + 2.56=4

4=4

Since equation works (4=4), it is a right triangle.

Answer:

[tex](x) = 1 + \frac{1}{2x} \\ f {}^{ - 1} (x) = \frac{1}{2(x - 1)} [/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

We can use Pythagorean Theorem to find leg BC.

[tex]AB^2=AC^2+BC^2[/tex]

[tex]24^2=12^2+BC^2[/tex]

[tex]576=144+BC^2[/tex]

[tex]BC^2=432[/tex]

[tex]BC=\sqrt{432}[/tex]

[tex]BC=2\sqrt{108}[/tex]

[tex]BC=4\sqrt{27}[/tex]

[tex]BC=12\sqrt{3}[/tex]

So, the measure of leg BC is 12√3.

Answer:

The answer is 4

Step-by-step explanation:

The experimental probability will be  [tex]P =\dfrac{1}{8}[/tex]

The experimental probability of an event occurring is the number of times that it occurred when the experiment was conducted as a fraction of the total number of times the experiment was conducted.

The sample will be b= 16

favourable outcomes = 2

As she spends the spinner 16 times

The experimental probability =  2   /   16  =  1   /  8

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Answer:

A) [tex]x = y^{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

An equation is a function of [tex]x[/tex] when [tex]x[/tex] is the independent variable, that is:

[tex]y = f(x)[/tex] (1)

Where [tex]y[/tex] is the dependent variable.

According to this, [tex]x = y^{2}[/tex] does not represent a function of [tex]x[/tex], since the independent variable is a function of [tex]y[/tex], that is, [tex]x = f(y)[/tex]. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Answer:

50.7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the plot points should be: m - (-1,-5) l - (-1,-8) n - (-3,-9)

Step-by-step explanation:

i'm not the greatest at explaining but i'll give it a shot. When you are doing a reflection of plot point shape, you need to reflect it over/under the x or y axis (hence the name "reflection") If you are reflecting over any of the axis, y or x, you need to first find the plot points of the original image. Then, you move over to that same spot to reflect it. For example, the shape 1,1, 1,2, 2,1 and 2,2. that's a square right? right. i would be a little worried if you didn't know that. anyways, you would then move to those points to reflect on the axis. We'll reflect on the y axis. You would then move it to the -1,1, -1,2, -2,1 and -2,2.

i'm super bad at explaining stuff but i hope this helps !

Answer: c

Step-by-step explanation:

Because the total should be at the end plus how much pounds it is so c

Answer:

A Japan and B £38

Step-by-step explanation:

Spain £1=€1.41

more €352.50

€352.50÷1.41 ×1 = £250

Japan £1= ¥188

more ¥39856

¥39856÷188×1 =£212

A) Japan is cheaper

B) £250-£212=£38