On January 1, 2024, the general ledger of Grand Finale Fireworks includes the following account balances:

Accounts Debit Credit Cash $ 43,100 Accounts Receivable 45,300 Supplies 7,900 Equipment 68,000 Accumulated Depreciation $ 9,400 Accounts Payable 15,000 Common Stock, $1 par value 14,000 Additional Paid-in Capital 84,000 Retained Earnings 41,900 Totals $ 164,300 $ 164,300

During January 2024, the following transactions occur:

January 2 Issue an additional 2,100 shares of $1 par value common stock for $42,000.

January 9 Provide services to customers on account, $15,300.

January 10 Purchase additional supplies on account, $5,300.

January 12 Purchase 1,100 shares of treasury stock for $19 per share.

January 15 Pay cash on accounts payable, $16,900.

January 21 Provide services to customers for cash, $49,500.

January 22 Receive cash on accounts receivable, $17,000.

January 29 Declare a cash dividend of $0. 20 per share to all shares outstanding on January 29. The dividend is payable on February 15. (Hint: Grand Finale Fireworks had 14,000 shares outstanding on January 1, 2021, and dividends are not paid on treasury stock. )

January 30 Resell 700 shares of treasury stock for $21 per share.

January 31 Pay cash for salaries during January, $42,400.

The following information is available on January 31, 2021.

a. Unpaid utilities for the month of January are $6,600.

b. Supplies at the end of January total $5,500.

c. Depreciation on the equipment for the month of January is calculated using the straightline method. At the time the equipment was purchased, the company estimated a service life of three years and a residual value of $10,400.

d. Accrued income taxes at the end of January are $2,400.

I need help with closing entry for revenue, expenses, and dividends. As well as an income statement, balance sheet, and analysis

Answers

Answer 1

It is impossible to produce a full set of closing entries or financial statements without further data on income, costs, and dividends. Debiting all revenue accounts and crediting the income summary account, as well as debiting the income summary account and crediting all expense accounts, would be the standard procedure for closing entries.

By making a debit to the retained profits account and a credit to the dividends account, dividends would be closed. The final balances in the revenue, expense, and dividend accounts should be zero once all closing entries have been made, and the balance in the income summary account should indicate the period's net profit or loss.

A formal income statement and balance sheet can be created using the closing entries. While the balance sheet would disclose all assets, liabilities, and equity accounts as of the end of the period, the income statement would indicate revenues, expenses, and net income or loss for the period. Comparing the results to prior quarters, industry benchmarks, and corporate goals would be part of an analysis of the financial statements, as well as highlighting areas of strength and weakness that could need further attention or action.

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Related Questions

nformation on four investment proposals is given below: investment proposal a b c d investment required $ (360,000 ) $ (150,000 ) $ (130,000 ) $ (1,200,000 ) present value of cash inflows 506,000 210,300 197,300 1,601,100 net present value $ 146,000 $ 60,300 $ 67,300 $ 401,100 life of the project 5 years 7 years 6 years 6 years required: 1. compute the project profitability index for each investment proposal. (round your answers to 2 decimal places.) 2. rank the proposals in terms of preference.

Answers

1 The project profitability index for investment proposals A, B, C, and D are 1.40, 1.40, 1.51, and 1.33 respectively.

2 Project C is the most preferred investment proposal, followed by D, A, and B.

Project profitability index (PPI) is a capital budgeting technique used to evaluate and rank investment proposals. It is computed by dividing the present value of cash inflows by the initial investment. A PPI greater than one indicates that the project is expected to generate a positive return. Investment proposals C and A have the highest PPI of 1.51 and 1.40, respectively, indicating that they are expected to generate returns greater than the required rate of return. On the other hand, investment proposal D has a PPI of 1.33, which is lower than that of proposals C and A but higher than proposal B. Therefore, the investment proposals can be ranked in terms of preference as C, D, A, and B based on their PPIs. It is important to note that PPI does not consider the size of the investment or the timing of cash flows.

Ranking investment proposals based solely on their PPI can lead to incorrect investment decisions. Other factors, such as the risk associated with the project, availability of funds, and the strategic fit of the project with the company's objectives, should also be considered. Therefore, it is essential to use PPI in conjunction with other capital budgeting techniques to make informed investment decisions.

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The Senate recently passed antispam legislation, but many consumers have little faith in its ability to reduce spam is an example of _____ sentence.
a. simple
b. compound
c. complexd. d. compound-complex

Answers

The given sentence, "The Senate recently passed antispam legislation, but many consumers have little faith in its ability to reduce spam," is an example of a compound sentence.

A compound sentence is formed by combining two or more independent clauses, which are complete thoughts that can stand alone as separate sentences. In this case, we can identify two independent clauses in the sentence:

"The Senate recently passed antispam legislation."

"Many consumers have little faith in its ability to reduce spam."

These two independent clauses are connected by the coordinating conjunction "but." The conjunction "but" joins two contrasting ideas or statements, indicating a contradiction between the passage of the antispam legislation and the lack of faith consumers have in its effectiveness.

To determine the sentence type, we examine the structure and identify the presence of independent clauses and conjunctions. In this case, we have two independent clauses ("The Senate recently passed antispam legislation" and "Many consumers have little faith in its ability to reduce spam") connected by the coordinating conjunction "but."

Based on the analysis above, we can conclude that the given sentence, "The Senate recently passed antispam legislation, but many consumers have little faith in its ability to reduce spam," is a compound sentence.

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The method of setting prices in which marketers total all the costs for the product and then add an amount to arrive at the selling price is called ________.
A) supply-based pricing
B) target costing
C) cost-plus pricing
D) yield management pricing
E) demand-based pricing

Answers

The method of setting prices in which marketers total all the costs for the product and then add an amount to arrive at the selling price is called C) cost-plus pricing.

Cost-plus pricing, also known as markup pricing or full-cost pricing, is a pricing strategy where the selling price of a product is determined by adding a markup or profit margin to the total cost of producing or acquiring the product. This method ensures that the selling price covers all the costs incurred and allows for a desired level of profit.In cost-plus pricing, the total costs considered include both variable costs (such as materials, labor, and direct expenses that vary with production volume) and fixed cos t regardless of production volume). Once the total costs are calculated, a predetermined markup percentage or amount is added to cover the desired profit margin.

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yokam company is considering two alternative projects. project 1 requires an initial investment of $490,000 and has a present value of all its cash flows of $1,150,000. project 2 requires an initial investment of $4 million and has a present value of all its cash flows of $7 million. (a) compute the profitability index for each project.(b) based on the profitability index, which project should the company select?

Answers

To compute the profitability index for each project, we divide the present value of cash flows by the initial investment for each project:

Project 1:

Profitability Index = Present Value of Cash Flows / Initial Investment

Profitability Index = $1,150,000 / $490,000

Profitability Index = 2.35

Project 2:

Profitability Index = Present Value of Cash Flows / Initial Investment

Profitability Index = $7,000,000 / $4,000,000

Profitability Index = 1.75

Based on the profitability index, the company should select Project 1, as it has a higher profitability index of 2.35 compared to Project 2's profitability index of 1.75. The higher the profitability index, the more attractive the project is in terms of generating value for the company.

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Industry A has a 60 percent concentration ratio, while industry B has a 40 percent concentration ratio. According to the inverted-U theory, all else equal, we can conclude that: 1. industry A will be more technologically progressive than B. 2. industry C, with a 10 percent concentration ratio, will be more technologically progressive than either industry A or B. 3. industry D, with an 80 percent concentration ratio, will be more technologically progressive than either industry A or B. 4. industry A and industry B should have similar amounts of R&D spending, all else equal.

Answers

According to the inverted-U theory, there is an inverted U-shaped relationship between industry concentration and technological progress.

At low levels of concentration, technological progress tends to be slow, because there are many small firms that are not able to invest in research and development (R&D) as much as larger firms. At intermediate levels of concentration, technological progress tends to be highest, because there are a few large firms that can invest in R&D and reap the benefits of economies of scale and scope. At high levels of concentration, technological progress tends to slow down again, because there are few firms that can dominate the market and may have less incentive to innovate.

Given that industry A has a higher concentration ratio (60%) than industry B (40%), we can conclude that industry A is closer to the peak of the inverted U-shaped curve and therefore should be more technologically progressive than industry B. Therefore, answer choice 1 is correct.

Answer choice 2 is incorrect because it assumes that industry C, with a 10% concentration ratio, will be more technologically progressive than industries A or B, which is not necessarily true according to the inverted-U theory.

Answer choice 3 is incorrect because it assumes that industry D, with an 80% concentration ratio, will be more technologically progressive than industries A or B, which is also not necessarily true according to the inverted-U theory.

Answer choice 4 is incorrect because it assumes that industry A and industry B should have similar amounts of R&D spending, which is not necessarily true according to the inverted-U theory.

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although corporate social responsibility (csr) involves the incurrence of certain costs, in what ways can csr also produce benefits?

Answers

CSR can produce benefits such as enhanced brand reputation and customer loyalty.

In addition to the potential positive impact on society and the environment, CSR activities can also provide several business advantages. For instance, companies that engage in socially responsible practices tend to be viewed more favorably by consumers, which can increase brand awareness, customer loyalty, and sales. Furthermore, CSR initiatives can help companies attract and retain talented employees who value a socially responsible and ethical work environment. Additionally, CSR can help companies reduce costs through increased efficiency and improved risk management. Overall, the benefits of CSR can far outweigh the costs, making it a sound business strategy in the long run.

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martina is managing a campaign that isn't trending toward the intended goal. what is the recommended approach?

Answers

When managing a campaign that isn't trending toward the intended goal, the recommended approach is to analyze and identify the reasons behind the underperformance and then take appropriate actions based on the findings. Here's a step-by-step approach to consider:

Review the campaign: Evaluate the campaign's performance by analyzing key metrics, such as conversion rates, click-through rates, engagement metrics, and other relevant KPIs. Compare the actual results with the desired goals to determine the extent of underperformance.

Identify the factors: Investigate the possible reasons behind the campaign's underperformance. Examine different aspects, including targeting, messaging, creative elements, landing pages, audience reach, timing, competition, or external factors that may have influenced the campaign.

Analyze data: Dive deeper into the campaign data to identify patterns, trends, or specific segments that are performing below expectations. Look for insights and correlations that can shed light on what aspects of the campaign need improvement.

Make adjustments: Based on the analysis, make targeted adjustments to the campaign strategy and tactics. This could involve refining the target audience, optimizing ad creatives or messaging, adjusting bidding or targeting parameters, or experimenting with different platforms or channels.

Test and iterate: Implement the changes and closely monitor the campaign's performance. A/B testing or running smaller-scale experiments can help determine which adjustments have a positive impact. Continuously track the campaign's progress and make further adjustments as needed.

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If the Federal Reserve increases the money supply, ceteris paribus, the:
a. rate of interest is unaffected.
b. rate of interest decreases.
c. Fed sells bonds.
d. rate of interest increases.

Answers

If the Federal Reserve increases the money supply, ceteris paribus, option d) the rate of interest decreases.

When the Federal Reserve increases the money supply, it essentially injects more money into the economy. This increased supply of money leads to a decrease in the rate of interest. The relationship between the money supply and interest rates is governed by the principles of supply and demand in the loanable funds market.

When the money supply increases, there is a greater availability of funds for borrowing and lending. This increased supply of loanable funds leads to a decrease in the cost of borrowing, which is reflected in lower interest rates. Lower interest rates incentivize borrowing and investment, as businesses and individuals find it cheaper to finance projects and make purchases. This, in turn, stimulates economic activity and can lead to increased consumption, investment, and overall economic growth.

It is important to note that ceteris paribus (all other factors remaining constant) assumption is made in this scenario. In reality, changes in the money supply can have various effects on the economy, and other factors such as inflation expectations, fiscal policy, and market conditions can also influence interest rates. However, given the ceteris paribus condition, the increase in the money supply by the Federal Reserve would generally result in a decrease in interest rates.

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Which of the following is a consideration for the one-versus-many production facilities decision?
a. The transfer effect
b. The value-to-weight ratio
c. The local culture
d. Low variable costs

Answers

When deciding whether to have one production facility or consideration that must be taken into account is mainly the transfer effect.

One of these considerations is the transfer effect, which refers to the cost and logistical challenges of moving goods and materials between different locations. If a company has multiple production facilities, it may be more difficult and expensive to move products between them than if there were just one facility. This can impact the overall efficiency and profitability of the company.

Another consideration is the value-to-weight ratio, which refers to the cost of transporting goods relative to their value. If a company produces goods that are relatively low in value but heavy or bulky, it may be more cost-effective to have multiple production facilities that are closer to the end consumer. This can reduce transportation costs and improve profitability.

The local culture is also an important consideration, as it can impact the way that products are produced, marketed, and sold in different regions. A company that is sensitive to local customs and preferences may benefit from having multiple production facilities that are tailored to the needs of different markets.

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which type of leadership is most similar to transformational leadership? group of answer choices transitional laissez-faire transactional charismatic

Answers

Charismatic leadership is most similar to transformational leadership. Charismatic leaders possess a unique ability to inspire and motivate their followers through their charisma and personality.

They have a compelling vision and the ability to communicate it effectively, which inspires their followers to work towards achieving the vision.

Similarly, transformational leaders also possess a strong vision, inspire their followers, and motivate them to achieve the vision.

The main difference between charismatic and transformational leadership is that charismatic leaders focus more on their own personality and charisma, while transformational leaders focus on transforming their followers and creating a positive change in their lives

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if omar industries eliminates regular and uses the available capacity to produce and sell an additional 1,500 units of super, what would be the impact on operating income?

Answers

If Omar Industries eliminates regular production and uses the available capacity to produce and sell an additional 1,500 units of super, the impact on operating income would depend on the incremental revenue generated by the additional units and the incremental cost associated with producing them.

To determine the impact on operating income, we need to compare the incremental revenue and incremental cost associated with producing and selling the additional 1,500 units of super. If the incremental revenue from selling the additional units exceeds the incremental cost, then the impact on operating income would be positive. This is because the additional revenue would contribute more to operating income than the incremental cost incurred. However, if the incremental cost exceeds the incremental revenue, then the impact on operating income would be negative.

In this case, producing and selling the additional units would result in a decrease in operating income. Without specific information about the incremental revenue and cost, it is not possible to determine the exact impact on operating income. The decision to eliminate regular production and produce additional units would depend on a thorough analysis of the incremental revenue and cost to ensure it is financially beneficial for Omar Industries.

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Antoine, an entrepreneur, decided to open up his own pub. In order to purchase the necessary equipment, Antoine took $10,000 out of his savings account, which was earning 3 percent interest. In addition, he borrowed an extra $1.250 from Bank of America at an interest rate of 8 percent. What is Antoine's annual opportunity cost of the financial capital that has been invested in his pub? $300 $400 5700 51.650

Answers

Antoine's annual opportunity cost of the financial capital invested in his pub is $570.

What is the annual opportunity cost of Antoine's pub investment?

Opportunity cost refers to the value of the next best alternative that is forgone when a particular choice is made. In Antoine's case, his annual opportunity cost of investing in his pub is $570. This includes the interest he could have earned if he had kept the $10,000 in his savings account, which would have amounted to $300 at a 3 percent interest rate.

Additionally, borrowing $1,250 from the Bank of America at an 8 percent interest rate incurs an additional cost of $100. By considering these factors, Antoine's total annual opportunity cost is $300 + $100 = $400. This represents the foregone financial gains he could have achieved by choosing alternative investment options.

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a company's financial obligations to short-term creditors, which must be repaid within one year, are called its

Answers

The financial obligations that a company owes to short-term creditors, which must be paid within a year, are referred to as current liabilities.

What  are these liabilities?

Current liabilities include accounts payable, short-term loans, and accrued expenses, among other things. It's important for a company to manage its current liabilities well, as they represent the amount of money the company needs to pay back within the next 12 months.

Failing to meet these obligations could lead to financial difficulties for the company and a loss of trust from its creditors.

Managing current liabilities requires careful planning and monitoring of cash flow, as well as ensuring that the company has enough funds to cover its obligations.

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what are the five basic elements of any correspondence?

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The five basic elements of any correspondence are:Heading or Letterhead: The heading or letterhead of a correspondence includes the name of the organization, the logo (if any), and the contact information such as the address, phone number, email, and website.

Date: The date indicates when the correspondence was written. It is usually placed under the heading or letterhead.Inside Address: The inside address includes the name and address of the person or organization that the correspondence is intended for. It is usually placed below the date and on the left side of the page.Salutation: The salutation is the greeting used to address the recipient of the correspondence. It is usually followed by a colon and placed below the inside address.Body: The body of the correspondence is the main content of the message. It should be clear, concise, and organized. It should also be relevant to the recipient and have a clear purpose.Other optional elements of a correspondence include a subject line, reference line, closing, and signature

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unethical business practices typically involce the blank coproration

Answers

Unethical business practices typically involve the tacit cooperation of others and reflect the values,

Unethical business practices can manifest in various ways and are typically associated with actions or behaviors that violate ethical norms, principles, or legal regulations.

While unethical practices can occur in any type of business entity, such as sole proprietorships, partnerships, or cooperatives, the question specifically mentions "the blank corporation."

Assuming "the blank corporation" refers to any generic corporation, it is important to note that unethical practices are not exclusive to corporations but can occur in any organizational structure.

Unethical business practices can include actions such as fraud, deception, bribery, price fixing, environmental violations, discriminatory practices, labor exploitation, product safety violations, and unfair competition, among others.

These practices often prioritize short-term gains or the interests of a few individuals or stakeholders at the expense of customers, employees, communities, or the environment.

The responsibility to promote ethical business practices lies with the individuals and leadership within the organization.

Companies that prioritize ethical behavior and corporate social responsibility are more likely to build trust, maintain positive relationships with stakeholders, and achieve long-term sustainable success.

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                                  "Complete question"

Unethical business practices typically involve the _______ cooperation of others and reflect the values, attitudes, and behavior patterns that define the operating culture of the organization.

A. select

B. complete

C. explicit

D. tacit

Which of the following questions would a firm's business strategy ideally answer?
a. Where should we compete?
b. Why should we compete?
c. How should we implement the functional strategy?
d. How should we compete?

Answers

A. Where should we compete?

Consumer-generated media traces its origins to all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) online consumer word-of-mouth
B) blogs
C) Usenet newsgroups
D) message boards

Answers

Consumer-generated media traces its origins to all of the following EXCEPT Usenet newsgroups.

Consumer-generated media refers to content that is created and shared by consumers themselves, rather than by traditional media outlets. It allows individuals to express their opinions, share experiences, and contribute to discussions on various topics. Here is an explanation of the options provided:

A) Online consumer word-of-mouth: Online consumer word-of-mouth refers to consumers sharing their opinions, recommendations, and experiences about products or services through digital channels such as social media, review websites, and online forums. This is a form of consumer-generated media and has played a significant role in shaping consumer perceptions and influencing purchasing decisions.

B) Blogs: Blogs are online platforms where individuals or groups regularly publish articles, opinions, or personal reflections on specific topics. Bloggers can be consumers who share their experiences, reviews, or recommendations about products or services. Blogs have been instrumental in the rise of consumer-generated media, allowing individuals to have their own platforms to express their thoughts and engage with others.

C) Usenet newsgroups: Usenet newsgroups were early online discussion forums that emerged in the 1980s. They allowed users to post and discuss topics of interest in various categories. While Usenet newsgroups facilitated online discussions, they are not typically considered a direct precursor to consumer-generated media as we understand it today. The term "consumer-generated media" became more widely used with the rise of the internet and social media platforms.

D) Message boards: Message boards, also known as online forums or discussion boards, are platforms where users can post messages and engage in conversations around specific topics. Message boards have been instrumental in facilitating consumer-generated media, as they provide spaces for consumers to share their opinions, ask questions, and interact with others.

Consumer-generated media traces its origins to online consumer word-of-mouth, blogs, and message boards. These platforms have allowed consumers to create and share their own content, contribute to discussions, and influence others' opinions. Usenet newsgroups, while significant in the history of online discussions, are not typically associated with the direct origins of consumer-generated media as we understand it today.

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because they expect you to showcase your strengths and hide your weaknesses, employers say it is acceptable to self-promote and distort facts on your résumé.
T/F

Answers

False.

Employers do not generally view self-promotion and distorting facts on a résumé as acceptable or ethical behavior.

are expected to provide accurate and truthful information about an individual's qualifications, skills, experiences, and accomplishments.

Honesty and integrity are highly valued in the hiring process, and misrepresenting oneself or distorting facts on a résumé can have serious consequences. Employers rely on résumés to make informed decisions about potential candidates, and any intentional deception or misleading information can damage trust and credibility.

It is important for job applicants to showcase their strengths and highlight their accomplishments on their résumés, but it should always be done in an honest and transparent manner. Résumés should accurately reflect an individual's qualifications and experiences, providing an accurate picture of their abilities and suitability for the position.

It is advisable to focus on presenting genuine achievements, relevant skills, and experiences that align with the requirements of the job. Honesty and authenticity are key principles when crafting a résumé and during the entire hiring process.

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Equity theory provides several insights for managerial applications to everyday situations in the workplace. Which of the followin NOT a principle of equity theory? Employees' perceptions may differ from the manager's perceptions. The basis for organizational rewards should be clearly communicated to employees. Formal and informal organizational rewards are equally observable to individuals when formulating equity perceptions. People tend to take a multifaceted view of the rewards they receive from the organization. People base their experience of equity on their perceptions, which don't necessarily match reality

Answers

The principle of equity theory that is NOT listed is "Formal and informal organizational rewards are equally observable to individuals when formulating equity perceptions."

Equity theory suggests that individuals compare their inputs (e.g., effort, skills) and outcomes (e.g., rewards, recognition) to those of others in the workplace to determine whether they are being treated fairly. Based on this theory, several principles can be derived. Let's examine each option:

Employees' perceptions may differ from the manager's perceptions.
This principle acknowledges that individuals may have different perceptions of fairness compared to their managers. It recognizes that subjective interpretations of equity can vary among individuals.

The basis for organizational rewards should be clearly communicated to employees.
This principle emphasizes the importance of transparently communicating the criteria and rationale behind organizational rewards. When employees understand how rewards are determined, it enhances their perception of fairness.

Formal and informal organizational rewards are equally observable to individuals when formulating equity perceptions. (NOT a principle of equity theory)
This statement is incorrect. Equity theory recognizes that formal rewards (e.g., salary, promotions) and informal rewards (e.g., praise, opportunities for development) may not be equally observable to individuals. Some rewards might be more visible or known to certain individuals, leading to different perceptions of equity.

People tend to take a multifaceted view of the rewards they receive from the organization.
This principle acknowledges that individuals consider various aspects of rewards, such as financial compensation, intrinsic satisfaction, and career growth opportunities. Equity perceptions are shaped by a comprehensive evaluation of the rewards received.

People base their experience of equity on their perceptions, which don't necessarily match reality.
This principle highlights that individuals form their perception of fairness based on their own subjective interpretations, which may not align with objective reality. People's perception of equity is influenced by their own beliefs, expectations, and comparisons with others.


The option "Formal and informal organizational rewards are equally observable to individuals when formulating equity perceptions" is NOT a principle of equity theory. The correct principles of equity theory include employees' perceptions differing from managers', clear communication of reward basis, taking a multifaceted view of rewards, and the subjective nature of equity perceptions.

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on march 1st, the kamela co. borrowed $10,000 from first southern bank and signed a one year note with an interest rate of 6%. all payments for principal and interest will be paid at the end of 1 year on feb 28th. the kamela co. fiscal year ends on december 31st. at the end of the 1st year, the financial statements of the kamela co. will include:

Answers

The financial statements of the Kamela Co. at the end of the first year will include an accrued interest expense of $500 (6% of $10,000) for the period from March 1st to December 31st.

This is because the company's fiscal year ends on December 31st, but the note's payment is due on February 28th of the following year. As a result, the interest expense for the period between March 1st and December 31st will be accrued on the company's financial statements for the year. The accrued interest is calculated by multiplying the principal amount ($10,000) by the annual interest rate (6%) and the fraction of the year (10/12). This accrued interest expense will be reflected in the company's income statement and balance sheet at the end of the fiscal year.

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On January 1, 20X1, Wade Crimbring, Inc. , a dealer in used manufacturing equipment, sold a CNC milling machine to Fletcher Bros. , a new business that plans to fabricate utility trailers. To conserve cash, Fletcher paid for the machine by issuing a $200,000 note, payable in five years. Interest at 5% is payable annually with the first payment due on December 31, 20X1. The going rate for loans of this type is 10%. Use the PV of 1, PVAD of 1, and PVOA of 1 tables where appropriate. (Use the appropriate factor(s) from the tables provided. ) Required: 1-a. What is the total present value of the note for Crimbring's sale of the machine on January 1, 20X1? 1-b. Prepare the entry that Crimbring would make for the sale of the machine. 2. Prepare the entry that Crimbring would make on December 31, 20X1, to record the receipt of the first interest payment. 4. Assume that Crimbring opted to carry this note at its fair value. What should be the value of the note on Crimbring’s December 31, 20X1, balance sheet if the market interest rate is then 12%? Assume that the December 31, 20X1, payment has been made. 5. Prepare the entry that Crimbring would make on December 31, 20X1, to record the note at its fair value

Answers

The fair value= $10,823

How to solve

Requirement 1:

Calculation of the present value of Fletcher’s note at a 10% effective rate of interest:

Present value of $200,000 principal repayment in 5 years at 10%

$200,000

x

.62092

=

$124,184

Present value of five interest payments of $10,000

($200,000 x .05) each at 10%:

Year 1

$10,000

x

.90909

=

9,091

Year 2

$10,000

x

.82645

=

8,265

Year 3

$10,000

x

.75132

=

7,513

Year 4

$10,000

x

.68301

=

6,830

Year 5

$10,000

x

.62092

=

6,209

Total present value of note

$162,092

DR Notes receivable

$162,092

CR Sales revenue

$162,092

Requirement 2:

DR Cash $10,000

DR Note receivable 6,209

CR Interest revenue [$162,092 x 10%] $16,209

Requirement 3:

The difference between interest revenue and cash received increases the carrying amount of the note receivable which will total $200,000 at maturity.

Requirement 4:

Calculation of the present value of Fletcher’s note at a 12% effective rate of interest:

Present value of $200,000 principal repayment in 4 years at 12%

$200,000

x

.63552

=

$127,104

Present value of four remaining interest payments of $10,000 ($200,000 x .05) each at 12%:

Year 1

$10,000

x

.89286

=

8,929

Year 2

$10,000

x

.79719

=

7,972

Year 3

$10,000

x

.71178

=

7,118

Year 4

$10,000

x

.63552

=

6,355

Total present (carrying) value of note 12/31/20X1

$157,478

Requirement 5:

DR Unrealized loss on note receivable $10,823

CR Fair value adjustment - note receivable $10,823

[$162,092 initial balance + $6,209 amortization] − $157,478

Therefore, the fair value= $10,823

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the absence of an operating agreement to clarify internal governance and management control of a limited liability company can lead to:

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The absence of an operating agreement can lead to disputes and confusion over the management and control of a limited liability company (LLC).

An operating agreement is a legal document that outlines the management structure, roles, responsibilities, and decision-making process of an LLC. If an LLC operates without an operating agreement, its members may have different interpretations of how the company should be managed, leading to disagreements and disputes. Without clear guidelines, the LLC may also be subject to state default rules, which may not align with the preferences of its members. This can result in a loss of control, limited flexibility, and potentially costly legal battles. Therefore, it is advisable for LLCs to create an operating agreement to ensure smooth and efficient operation of the business.

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how many years does the arizona registrar of contractors retain license applications and licenses of all statuses on record?

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The Arizona Registrar of Contractors ROC is responsible for regulating and licensing contractors operating within the state. The ROC retains license applications and licenses of all statuses on record for a period of five years.



This means that if you are a licensed contractor in Arizona, your license information will be on record with the ROC for five years from the date of issuance or renewal. Similarly, if you have applied for a contractor's license in Arizona, your application will be on file with the ROC for a period of five years. It is important to note that the ROC is also responsible for investigating complaints and enforcing regulations related to licensed contractors. As part of this process, the ROC may retain records related to complaints or enforcement actions against a contractor for a longer period of time. Overall, if you are a contractor operating in Arizona, it is important to ensure that your license is current and in good standing with the ROC. This will not only ensure that you are operating legally, but will also help to protect your reputation and business interests.

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which is not true regarding the accounts payable aging report?

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One thing that is not true regarding the accounts payable aging report is that it only shows the amount owed to vendors and does not provide any other details.

The accounts payable aging report is a financial statement that provides information about the amounts owed to vendors and the length of time the balances have been outstanding. It includes important details such as the vendor name, invoice number, invoice date, due date, and the current balance owed. This report is useful for managing cash flow, prioritizing payments, and identifying potential issues with vendors. Therefore, the statement that the report only shows the amount owed to vendors and no other details is incorrect.

It helps businesses manage their cash flow and prioritize payments. The statement about showing total amounts owed by customers is not true, as it refers to accounts receivable aging report, not accounts payable aging report.

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1. Which one of the following is NOT the reason that we use database to manage our datainstead of using Excel?A. Database is good for handling the storage and access to data.B. The storage capacities of database management systems are virtually unlimited.C. Database is good at calculation.D. Excel is limited in the amount of information it can store in a table.

Answers

The option that is NOT a reason for using a database to manage data instead of using Excel is Database is good at calculation.

While databases do have the capability to perform calculations and apply functions to data, it is not the primary reason for choosing a database over Excel. The main advantages of using a database include efficient storage and access to data (option A), virtually unlimited storage capacities (option B), and the ability to handle large amounts of information in tables (option D).

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The Fed's response to the zero lower bound problem. It is when the Fed purchases bonds in order to increase the amount of reserves in the banking system. It is not intended to lower interest rates

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The Fed's response to the zero lower bound problem is to purchase bonds in order to increase the amount of reserves in the banking system.

When the short-term nominal interest rate is at or close to zero, a liquidity trap is created, restricting the central bank's ability to promote economic development. This is known as the zero lower bound (ZLB), which is a macroeconomic issue. Quantitative easing (QE) is the term used when the Fed buys bonds to boost the number of reserves in the banking system. The goals of QE are to decrease interest rates and expand the money supply.

This is known as quantitative easing (QE) and is used to stimulate economic growth and prevent deflation. QE is not intended to lower interest rates directly, but rather to increase the money supply and encourage lending and investment. However, the increased reserves can lead to lower interest rates over time as banks compete for borrowers. Overall, the Fed's response to the zero lower bound problems involves using unconventional tools such as QE to promote economic growth and stability.

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________ are all rewards that can be classified as monetary payments and in-kind payments.
a) Benefits
b) Compensation components
c) Wages
d) roadbands
e) Base pay

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Compensation components are all rewards that can be classified as monetary payments and in-kind payments.

Compensation components encompass all types of rewards that can be classified as both monetary payments and in-kind payments. These components include various forms of compensation provided to employees in addition to their base pay. Examples of compensation components include benefits, wages, and bonuses.

Benefits such as healthcare coverage, retirement plans, and vacation time can be considered as in-kind payments since they provide value to employees without being directly monetary. On the other hand, wages and bonuses are examples of monetary payments, as they are typically given in the form of cash or direct deposits.

Therefore, the correct answer is b) Compensation components, as it encompasses all rewards that can be classified as both monetary and in-kind payments.

Compensation components encompass a wide range of rewards, including both monetary and in-kind payments, provided to employees as part of their overall compensation package.

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in preparing its bank reconciliation for the month of april 2021, haskins, inc. has available the following information. balance per bank statement, 4/30/21 $40,920 nsf check returned with 4/30/21 bank statement 1,350 deposits in transit, 4/30/21 10,500 outstanding checks, 4/30/21 15,600 bank service charges for april 60 what should be the adjusted cash balance at april 30, 2021? group of answer choices $34,410. $34,470. $35,760. $35,820.

Answers

This is computed by taking the balance bank of cash balance statement (4/30), which was $42,310, and taking away the NSF check returned with the 4/30 bank statement ($600), the deposits in transit ($7,000). The correct answer is d.35820.

The outstanding checks ($8,000), and the bank service fees for April 30. The correct cash balance as of April 30 is $40,740, which is what we get when we subtract all of these figures.

The amount of cash that a company currently has on hand is referred to as its cash balance. This money is kept on hand as a reserve to pay for any unanticipated cash outflows.

1. Balance per bank statement, 4/30: $39,300

2. NSF check returned:-$470

3. Deposits in transit, 4/30: +$5,000

4. Outstanding checks, 4/30: -$5,200

5. Bank service charges for April: -$30

Now, let's calculate the adjusted cash balance:

$39,300 (balance per bank statement) - $470 (NSF check) + $5,000 (deposits in transit) - $5,200 (outstanding checks) - $30 (bank service charges) = $35820.

Complete question:

in preparing its bank reconciliation for the month of april 2021, haskins, inc. has available the following information. balance per bank statement, 4/30/21 $40,920 nsf check returned with 4/30/21 bank statement 1,350 deposits in transit, 4/30/21 10,500 outstanding checks, 4/30/21 15,600 bank service charges for april 60 what should be the adjusted cash balance at april 30, 2021? group of answer choices

a. $34,410.

b. $34,470.

c. $35,760.

d. $35,820.

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which of the factors would decrease the rate of frictional unemployment? an increase in the number of jobs available due to an increase in gdp improvements in technology that make skills which were once valued by employers obsolete the advent of the internet, which makes finding available jobs easier increased short-term unemployment benefits

Answers

An increase in the number of jobs available due to an increase in GDP would decrease the rate of frictional unemployment.

Frictional unemployment refers to the temporary unemployment that occurs when individuals are transitioning between jobs or entering the workforce. Several factors can influence the rate of frictional unemployment, and in this case, an increase in the number of jobs available due to an increase in GDP would have a positive effect on reducing frictional unemployment.

When the economy experiences growth and an increase in GDP, it typically leads to an expansion of job opportunities. As more jobs become available, individuals who were previously unemployed or seeking new employment can find suitable positions more easily. This reduces the time and effort spent on job search and decreases the duration of frictional unemployment.

The other options mentioned, such as improvements in technology that make certain skills obsolete or the advent of the internet making job search easier, may also have an impact on reducing frictional unemployment to some extent.

However, an increase in the number of jobs resulting from economic growth has a more direct and significant effect on decreasing frictional unemployment.

Increased short-term unemployment benefits, on the other hand, may not necessarily decrease frictional unemployment but can potentially affect other types of unemployment, such as structural or cyclical unemployment.

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the use of financial statement analysis, quality control procedures, and employee performance evaluations are all examples of

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The use of financial statement analysis, quality control procedures, and employee performance evaluations are all examples of c) feedback controls.

Feedback controls are used to assess the effectiveness of a process or activity after it has been completed. Financial statement analysis is a common tool used by businesses to evaluate their financial performance, identify areas for improvement, and make decisions about future investments. Quality control procedures are put in place to ensure that products or services meet specific quality standards, and employee performance evaluations provide feedback on how well an employee is performing their job duties.

Feedback controls are important because they provide valuable information that can be used to improve future performance. By analyzing financial statements, businesses can identify trends and make strategic decisions about how to allocate resources. Quality control procedures help businesses ensure that they are delivering high-quality products and services that meet customer expectations. Employee performance evaluations can be used to identify areas where employees may need additional training or support to improve their job performance. Overall, feedback controls are essential for businesses to continuously improve and achieve their goals. The correct option is c.

The complete question is:

The use of financial statement analysis, quality control procedures, and employee performance evaluations are all examples of

A. Concurrent controls.

B. Preliminary controls.

C. Feedback controls.

D. Feedforward controls.

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