Pilot plus Pens is deciding when to replace its old machine. The old machine’s current salvage value is $2 million. Its current book value is $1 million. If not sold, the old machine will require maintenance costs of $400,000 at the end of the year, for the next five years. Depreciation on the old machine is $200,000 per year. At the end of five years, the old machine will have salvage value of $200,000 and a book value of $0. A replacement machine costs $3 million now and requires maintenance costs of $500,000 at the end of each year during its economic life of five years. At the end of five years, the new machine will have a salvage value of $500,000. It will be fully depreciated by the straight-line method. In five years, a replacement machine will cost $3,500,000. Pilot will need to purchase this machine regardless of what the choice it makes today. The corporate tax rate is 34% and the appropriate discount rate is 12%. The company is assumed to earn sufficient revenues to generate tax shields from depreciation. Should Pilot Plus replace the old machine now or at the end of five years? no excel and financial calculator, so please show the answer by hand written and how u get to the numbers

The company should replace the machinery now as the NPV of old machine is very less as compared to new machine.

The estimated value of an item at the end of its useful life is known as salvage value.

Old machine    Depreciation       Cash flow     PV of cash flow

0 2,200,000    

1 (845,000) 112,000  (733,000) (678,704)

2 (845,000) 112,000  (733,000) (628,429)

3 (845,000) 112,000  (733,000) (581,879)

4 (845,000) 112,000  (733,000) (538,777)

5 (845,000) 112,000 120,000 (613,000) (417,197)

Total (2,844,986)

NPV (5,044,986)

[tex]Cash\ flow\ from\ depreciation = Depreciation * Tax rate[/tex]

[tex]PV\ of\ cash\ flow = Cash\ flow / (1 + i )x^{n} , \\where\ is\ 8\% \\n\ is\ no.\ of\ year.[/tex]

[tex]Capital\ gain\ tax\ on\ the\ sale\ for\ old\ machiner\y = Total\ salvage\ value\ of\ old\ machine\ - Book\ value[/tex][tex]Capital\ gain\ tax\ on\ the\ sale\ for\ old\ machinery = 2,200,000 - 1,400,000Capita\ gain\ tax\ on\ the\ sale\ for\ old\ machinery = $800,000[/tex]

[tex]Capital\ gain\ tax = 40\% * Capital\ gain\ tax\ on\ the\ sale\ for\ old\ machineryCapital\ gain\ tax = 40\% * 800,000Capital\ gain\ tax = 0.40 * 800,000Capital\ gain\ tax = $320,000[/tex]

[tex]Effective\ investment\ outlay\ = Cost\ of\ new \machinery - Actual\ cash\ inflow\ from\ sale\ of\ old\ machineryEffective\ investment\ outlay = 4,300,000 - 1,880,000Effective\ investment\ outlay = $2,420,000[/tex]

Therefore, The company should replace the machinery now as the NPV of old machine is very less as compared to new machine.

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(D)
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Close to zero. While they are substitutes they are not close substitutes.
Negative. They are complements.
Positive. They are close substitutes.
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Negative. They are complements.
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Equipment 596,000 480,000
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Current liabilities 268,000 302,000
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Retained earnings 614,000 354,000
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Present and future value tables of $1 at 3% are presented below:

N FV $1 PV $1 FVA $1 PVA $1 FVAD $1 PVAD $1
1 1.03000 0.97087 1.0000 0.97087 1.0300 1.00000
2 1.06090 0.94260 2.0300 1.91347 2.0909 1.97087
3 1.09273 0.91514 3.0909 2.82861 3.1836 2.91347
4 1.12551 0.88849 4.1836 3.71710 4.3091 3.82861
5 1.15927 0.86261 5.3091 4.57971 5.4684 4.71710
6 1.19405 0.83748 6.4684 5.41719 6.6625 5.57971
7 1.22987 0.81309 7.6625 6.23028 7.8923 6.41719
8 1.26677 0.78941 8.8923 7.01969 9.1591 7.23028
9 1.30477 0.76642 10.1591 7.78611 10.4639 8.01969
10 1.34392 0.74409 11.4639 8.53020 11.8078 8.78611
11 1.38423 0.72242 12.8078 9.25262 13.1920 9.53020
12 1.42576 0.70138 14.1920 9.95400 14.6178 10.25262
13 1.46853 0.68095 15.6178 10.63496 16.0863 10.95400
14 1.51259 0.66112 17.0863 11.29607 17.5989 11.63496
15 1.55797 0.64186 18.5989 11.93794 19.1569 12.29607
16 1.60471 0.62317 20.1569 12.56110 20.7616 12.93794

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