The formula A = PU/ Vd x 2 was used to determine the required cross-sectional copper wire. The safety factor for the charge controller calculation is 1.25. The system's efficiency is 71.2 percent.
Design of off-grid photovoltaic (PV) system The Faculty of engineering's estimated load is 40 kWh/day. An off-grid PV system was designed for this load. To supply the college's electrical energy demand, PV modules, batteries, a voltage regulator, an inverter, and cross-sectional copper wires are required. The cost estimate of the PV system is higher than that of the fossil fuel generator used by the college. The required cross-section copper wire is determined using the formula: A = PU/ Vd x 2, where P is the resistivity of copper wire (1.724 x 10^-8Ωm), U is the voltage, V is the maximum voltage drop (4% for both AC and DC wiring in standalone PV systems), and d is the cable length. The safety factor for the charge controller calculation is 1.25. The efficiency of the system is 71.2 percent. The ENP Sonne High Quality 180Watt, 24V monocrystalline module is chosen for this design. The peak solar intensity at the earth surface is 1KW/m2. The maximum allowable depth of discharge is 75 percent. The battery has a capacity of 325AH and a nominal voltage of 12V. The battery selected is ROLLS SERIES 4000 BATTERIES, 12MD325P. The voltage regulator selected is a controller 60A, 12/24V, with a nominal voltage of 12/24VDC and charging load/current of 60 amperes. The minimum number of days of autonomy that should be considered for even the sunniest locations on earth is 4 days. Efficiencies of 85% and 90% are used for eff. inverter and eff. wires, respectively. The Isc is 5.38 A.
An off-grid photovoltaic (PV) system was designed for the Faculty of engineering's estimated load. PV modules, batteries, a voltage regulator, an inverter, and cross-sectional copper wires are required for the college's electrical energy demand. The formula A = PU/ Vd x 2 was used to determine the required cross-sectional copper wire. The safety factor for the charge controller calculation is 1.25. The system's efficiency is 71.2 percent.
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A centrifugal compressor running at 9000 rpm. Delivers 6000 m^3/min of free air. The air is compressed from 1 bar and 20 degree c to a pressure ratio of 4 with an isentropic efficiency of 82 %. The blades are radial at outlet of the impeller and flow velocity is 62 m/s throughout the impeller. The outer diameter of impeller is twice the inner diameter and slip factor is 0.9. Find
OPTIONS 0.0963 kg/ N-h 963 kg/ N-h 9630 kg/ N-h 630 kg/ N-h
The mass flow rate of the air through the compressor is (d) 67.41 kg/s.
Explanation:
A centrifugal compressor is running at 9000 rpm and delivering 6000 m^3/min of free air. The air is compressed from 1 bar and 20 degree c to a pressure ratio of 4 with an isentropic efficiency of 82 %. The blades are radial at the outlet of the impeller, and the flow velocity is 62 m/s throughout the impeller. The outer diameter of the impeller is twice the inner diameter, and the slip factor is 0.9.
The mass flow rate is given by the formula:
Mass flow rate (m) = Density × Volume flow rate
q = m / t
where:
q = Volume flow rate = 6000 m^3/min
Density of air, ρ1 = 1.205 kg/m^3 (at 1 bar and 20-degree C)
The density of air (ρ2) at the compressor exit is calculated using the formula for the ideal gas law:
ρ1 / T1 = ρ2 / T2
where:
T1 = 293 K (20 °C)
T2 = 293 K × (4)^(0.4) = 549 K
ρ2 = (ρ1 × T1) / T2 = 0.423 kg/m^3
The slip factor is defined as:
ψ = Actual flow rate / Geometric flow rate
Geometric flow rate, qgeo = π/4 x D1^2 x V1
where:
D1 = Diameter at inlet = Inner diameter of impeller
V1 = Velocity at inlet = 62 m/s
qgeo = π/4 × (D1)^2 × V1
Actual flow rate = Volume flow rate / (1 - ψ)
6000 / (1 - 0.9) = 60,000 m^3/min
D2 = Diameter at outlet = Outer diameter of impeller
D2 = 2D1
Geometric flow rate, qgeo = π/4 × D2^2 × V2
where:
V2 = Velocity at outlet = πDN / 60
qgeo = π/4 × (2D1)^2 × V2
V2 = qgeo / [π/4 × (2D1)^2]
V2 = qgeo / (π/2 × D1^2) = 192.82 m/s.
The work done by the compressor can be calculated using the formula: W = m × Cp × (T2 - T1) / ηiso = m × Cp × T1 × [(PR)^((γ - 1)/γ) - 1] / ηiso. Here, Cp represents the specific heat at constant pressure for air, and γ is the ratio of specific heats for air. PR is the pressure ratio, and ηiso represents isentropic efficiency, which is 82% or 0.82. Substituting the given values into the formula, we get W = 346.52 m kJ/min = 5.7753 m kW.
The power required to drive the compressor is given by the formula Power = W / ηmech, where ηmech represents mechanical efficiency. As the mechanical efficiency is not given, it is assumed to be 0.9. Substituting the values, we get Power = 6.416 m kW or 6416 kW.
To find the mass flow rate, we can rearrange the formula for power and substitute values: Power = m × Cp × (T2 - T1) × γ × R × N / ηisoηmech. Here, R represents the gas constant, and N is the rotational speed of the compressor. We can calculate the outlet pressure (P2) using the formula P2 = 4 × 1 bar = 4 bar = 400 kPa. Also, T2 can be calculated using the formula T2 = T1 × PR^((γ - 1)/γ) = 293 × 4^0.286 = 436.47 K. R is equal to 287.06 J/kg K, and the shaft power supplied (W) is 6416 kW (9000 rpm = 150 rps).
Finally, we can calculate the mass flow rate (m) using the formula m = Power × ηisoηmech / (Cp × (T2 - T1)). Substituting the given values, we get m = 67.41 kg/s. Therefore, the mass flow rate of the air through the compressor is 67.41 kg/s.
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What is meant by to remodel an existing design of a
optimized wicked sintered heat pipe?
Remodeling an existing design of an optimized wicked sintered heat pipe means to modify or alter the design of an already existing heat pipe. The heat pipe design can be changed for various reasons, such as increasing efficiency, reducing weight, or improving durability.
The use of optimized wicked sintered heat pipes is popular in various applications such as aerospace, electronics, and thermal management of power electronics. The sintered heat pipe is an advanced cooling solution that can transfer high heat loads with minimum thermal resistance. This makes them an attractive solution for high-performance applications that require advanced cooling technologies. The sintered wick is typically made of a highly porous material, such as metal powder, which is sintered into a solid structure. The wick is designed to absorb the working fluid, which then travels through the heat pipe to the condenser end, where it is cooled and returned to the evaporator end. In remodeling an existing design of an optimized wicked sintered heat pipe, various factors should be considered. For instance, the sintered wick material can be changed to optimize performance.
This can be achieved through careful analysis and testing of various design parameters. It is essential to work with experts in the field to ensure that the modified design meets the specific requirements of the application.
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of a (28) Why do the pole and zero first order all pass filter's transfer function representation on the s-plane have to be at locations symmetrical. with respect to the jw axis (that is the vertical axis of s-plane)? Explain.
Pole and zero first order all pass filter's transfer function representation on the s-plane have to be at locations symmetrical with respect to the jw axis .
Given,
Poles and zeroes of first order all pass filter .
Here,
1) All pass filter is the filter which passes all the frequency components .
2) To pass all the frequency components magnitude of all pass filter should be unity for all frequency .
3) Therefore to make unity gain of transfer function , poles and zeroes should be symmetrical , such that they will cancel out each other while taking magnitude of transfer function .
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A N 45° E back tangent line intersects a S 85° ° E forward tangent line at point "PI." The BC and the EC are located at stations 25+00, and 31+00. respectively. a) What is the stationing of the PI? b) What is the deflection angle to station 26+00? c) What is the deflection angle to station 28+50? d) What is the chord distance to station 28+50? e) What is the bearing of the long chord from BC to EC?
a) The stationing of point PI is 28+75.
b) The deflection angle to station 26+00 is 24° 19'.
c) The deflection angle to station 28+50 is 35° 08'.
d) The chord distance to station 28+50 is 1,510 feet.
e) The bearing of the long chord from BC to EC is N 81° 25' E.
To find the answers to the given questions, we need to understand the concept of tangent lines, stationing, deflection angles, and chord distance. Let's break down each question and its solution:
a) The stationing of point PI is determined by the sum of the stationing of BC (25+00) and the chord distance between BC and PI. The stationing of EC (31+00) is not needed for this calculation. By adding the chord distance of 1,750 feet (31+00 - 25+00), we get the stationing of PI as 28+75.
b) The deflection angle to station 26+00 can be calculated by subtracting the azimuth of the N 45° E back tangent line from the azimuth of the N 45° E forward tangent line. The azimuth of the N 45° E back tangent line is 135° (180° - 45°), and the azimuth of the N 45° E forward tangent line is 45°. Subtracting 45° from 135° gives us a deflection angle of 90°. Since 90° is a right angle, we need to subtract the angle of intersection of the forward tangent line (S 85° E) from the deflection angle. The intersection angle of the forward tangent line is 5° (90° - 85°). Therefore, the deflection angle to station 26+00 is 85°.
c) Similar to the previous question, we calculate the deflection angle to station 28+50 by subtracting the azimuth of the back tangent line from the azimuth of the forward tangent line. The azimuth of the forward tangent line (S 85° E) remains the same at 85°. To determine the azimuth of the back tangent line, we need to subtract 180° from 45° to get 225°. Subtracting 225° from 85° gives us a deflection angle of 140°.
d) The chord distance to station 28+50 can be found by multiplying the deflection angle to station 28+50 (35° 08') by the long chord length. Assuming the long chord length is 100 feet per degree, the chord distance is calculated as 35.133 x 100 = 3,513.3 feet. Since we are calculating the chord distance from BC to EC, we need to subtract the chord distance from BC to station 28+50 (1,750 feet) to get the actual distance to station 28+50. Therefore, the chord distance to station 28+50 is 3,513.3 - 1,750 = 1,510 feet.
e) The bearing of the long chord from BC to EC can be determined by adding the azimuth of the back tangent line (225°) to the deflection angle to station 28+50 (35° 08'). The sum of these angles is 260° 08'. Since this angle is measured clockwise from the reference direction (north), the bearing is N 81° 25' E.
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Write a verilog module that counts the number of "0"s and "1"s at a single bit input according to the input and output specifications given below. nRst: C1k: Din: active-low asynchronous reset. Clears Cnt and Cnt1 outputs. clock input; Din is valid at the rising C1k edge. data input that controls the counters. Cnte[7:0]: counter output incremented when Din is 0. Cnt1[7:0]: counter output incremented when Din is 1.
The example of a Verilog module that helps to counts the number of "0"s and "1"s at a single-bit input is given below
What is the verilog moduleA module is like a small block of computer code that does a particular job. You can put smaller parts inside bigger parts, and the bigger part can talk to the smaller parts through their entrances and exits.
So the code section has two counters that can count up to 8 bits each. One counts how many times we see "0" and the other counts how many times we see "1. " The counters go back to zero when nRst is low.
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Now we're going to design another "equalizer". Except, instead of for audio, we want to monitor engine vibrations to diagnose various problems. Suppose we have a four-cylinder engine with a single camshaft. The engine is for a generator set, and is expected to run at 3600rpm all the time. It's a 4-cycle engine, so the camshaft speed is half the crankshaft speed (or, the camshaft runs at 1800rpm). We want to measure the following things... • Vibrations caused by crankshaft imbalance. • Vibrations caused by camshaft imbalance. • Vibrations caused by the exhaust wave. The exhaust wave pulses whenever an exhaust valve opens. For our purposes, assume there is one exhaust valve per cylinder, and that each exhaust valve opens once per camshaft revolution, and that the exhaust valve timing is evenly spaced so that there are four exhaust valve events per camshaft revolution. 1. Figure out the frequency of each of the vibrations you're trying to measure. 2. Set the cutoff frequencies for each of your bandpass filters.
The frequency of the vibrations can be calculated as the number of crankshaft revolutions that occur in one second. Since the engine is a 4-cylinder, 4-cycle engine, the number of revolutions per cycle is 2.
So, the frequency of the vibrations caused by the crankshaft imbalance will be equal to the number of crankshaft revolutions per second multiplied by 2. The frequency of vibration can be calculated using the following formula:[tex]f = (number of cylinders * number of cycles per revolution * rpm) / 60f = (4 * 2 * 3600) / 60f = 480 Hz2.[/tex]
Vibrations caused by camshaft imbalance: The frequency of the vibrations caused by the camshaft imbalance will be half the frequency of the vibrations caused by the crankshaft imbalance. This is because the camshaft speed is half the crankshaft speed. Therefore, the frequency of the vibrations caused by the camshaft imbalance will be:[tex]f = 480 / 2f = 240 Hz3.[/tex]
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Machining on a Milling Machine; 75000 pieces of hot work steel material will be milled on the two surfaces (bottom and top surface) of a 400 x 280 x 100 flat piece. For this operation, pocket knife diameter D=100 mm, Cutting Hivi V= 40-60 m/d, Number of cutting blades 2 12 toothed pocket knife, Repulsion amount Sz 0.3
mm. Part Length L= 400 mm, Part Width b= 280 mm, Lu+La 4 mm, All application on the bench will be calculated for roughing and finishing. According to these given;
a) Number of Revolutions?
b) what is the feedrate?
c) Number of passes?
d) What is the table travel length?
e) Total machining time for a part?
f) 75,000. piece by piece is processed on the workbench at the same time under the same conditions. In how many days will this work be delivered with eight hours of work per day?
g) What should the processing sequence be like? Write.
h) Write down the hardware time?
Pocket knife diameter D=100 mm, Cutting Hivi V= 40-60 m/d, Number of cutting blades 2 12 toothed pocket knife, Repulsion amount Sz 0.3 mm.
Part Length L= 400 mm,
Part Width b= 280 mm
Lu+La 4 mm.owance) ÷ (Cutter diameter - Cutter repulsion)
Number of Passes = [tex](400 + 4) ÷ (100 - 0.3)[/tex]
Table travel length = (Part dimension perpendicular to cutting direction + Allowance) ÷ sin(Cutter slope angle)
Let's substitute the given values.
Table travel length =[tex](280 + 4) ÷ sin (90° - 60°) = 288.03 ≈ 289 mm[/tex]
Total machining time for a part =[tex]{(5 × 289) ÷ 0.2244} × 60 = 3,660 minutes ≈ 61 hours[/tex]
In 1 hour, 1 part is manufactured. So, to manufacture 75000 parts;
Total time required =[tex]75000 × 61 = 4,575,000 minutes ≈ 8,438 days ≈ 23.1 years[/tex]
Given that the cutting speed = 40-60 m/d
Let's assume that the cutting speed is at the lowest range of the given data that is 40 m/d.
The diameter of the cutter = 100mm.
[tex]Cutting Time = {(400 × 5) ÷ (40 × 100)} × 60 = 30 minutes[/tex]
The non-cutting time can be calculated as,
Non-cutting time = Total machining time for a part - Cutting time
= 61 - 30 = 31 minutes.
So, the hardware time will be;
Hardware Time = Cutting time + Non-cutting time = [tex]30 + 31 = 61[/tex] minutes.
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III. Prior implementation o 5S in mechanical workshop, estimate two challenges in implementing 5S system which would affect the operation of mechanical workshop. Propose alternate solution to resolve the estimated challenges respectively. (4 marks) IV. Define the "mass production" and "just in time" concept. Identify the major difference of these two concepts based on production flow and operator skill level. (6 marks)
One challenge in implementing the 5S system in a mechanical workshop could be resistance to change from the employees. Some workers may be resistant to new procedures, organization methods, and cleaning practices associated with the 5S system.
This resistance could affect the smooth operation of the workshop and hinder the successful implementation of 5S.
Alternate Solution: Employee Training and Engagement
To address this challenge, it is important to provide thorough training and engage employees in the implementation process. Conduct workshops and training sessions to educate the employees about the benefits of the 5S system and how it can improve their work environment and efficiency. Involve them in decision-making processes and encourage their active participation. By empowering employees and addressing their concerns, you can gain their buy-in and commitment to the 5S implementation.
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Select all items below which are crucial in lost-foam casting.
(i) Expendable pattern
(ii) Parting line
(iii) Gate
(iv) Riser
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
(i) and (iii)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
(i), (ii) and (iv)
The correct answer is (i), (ii), and (iv) - (Expendable pattern, Parting line, and Riser ) In lost-foam casting, the following items are crucial:
(i) Expendable pattern: Lost-foam casting uses a pattern made from foam or other expendable materials that vaporize when the molten metal is poured, leaving behind the desired shape.
(ii) Parting line: The parting line is the line or surface where the two halves of the mold meet. It is important to properly align and seal the parting line to prevent molten metal leakage during casting.
(iii) Gate: The gate is the channel through which the molten metal enters the mold cavity. It needs to be properly designed and positioned to ensure proper filling of the mold and avoid defects.
(iv) Riser: Riser is a reservoir of molten metal that compensates for shrinkage during solidification. It helps ensure complete filling of the mold and prevents porosity in the final casting.
Therefore, the correct answer is (i), (ii), and (iv) - (Expendable pattern, Parting line, and Riser)
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A 7/16 in height x 3 in length flat key is keyed to a 2 inches diameter shaft. Determine the torque in the key if bearing stress allowable is 25 Ksi. Answer: A
A. 16,406.25 in-lb
B. 15,248.56 in-lb
C. 17.42 in-lb
D. 246.75 in-lb
We have been given the following information: Height of the flat key, h = 7/16 in Length of the flat key, l = 3 in Diameter of the shaft, d = 2 in Allowable bearing stress, τ = 25 ksi To determine the torque in the key, we can use the following formula:τ = (2T)/(hd²)where T is the torque applied to the shaft.
Height of the flat key, h = 7/16 in Length of the flat key, l = 3 in Diameter of the shaft, d = 2 in Allowable bearing stress, τ = 25 ksi Now, we know that, T = (τhd²)/2Putting the given values, we get, T = (25 × (7/16) × 3²)/2On solving this equation, we get, T = 15.24856 in-lb Therefore, the torque in the key is 15.24856 in-lb. We need to calculate the torque in the key of the given shaft. The given bearing stress is τ= 25 K si which is allowable. Thus, using the formula for the torque applied to the shaft τ= (2T)/(hd²), the answer is option B, which is 15,248.56 in-lb.
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The polymer sandwich shown in Figure Q1(b) has a width of 400 mm, a height of 200 mm and a depth of 100 mm. The bottom plate is fixed but the top plate can move because of the applied load P = 2 kN. If the top plate moves by 2 mm to the right and causes the polymer to distort, determine
Shear stress
ii.Shear strain
Given, Width of the polymer sandwich = 400 mm Height of the polymer sandwich = 200 mm Depth of the polymer sandwich = 100 mm.
Applied load, P = 2 k N Top plate moves by 2 mm to the right Shear stress , When a force is applied parallel to the surface of an object, it produces a deformation called shear stress. The stress which comes into play when the surface of one layer of material slides over an adjacent layer of material is called shear stress.
The shear stress (τ) can be calculated using the formula,
τ = F/A where,
F = Applied force
A = Area of the surface on which force is applied.
A = Height × Depth
A = 200 × 100
= 20,000 mm²
τ = 2 × 10³ / 20,000
τ = 0.1 N/mm²Shear strain.
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1. (20pts) Schedule 80 PVC pipe has an outside diameter of 1.900in and an inside diameter of 1.476in. PVC has a yield strength of 8ksi and an elastic modulus of 400ksi. You intend to make a "potato cannon." a. (5) Can this be treated as a thin walled pressure vessel based upon the criteria of the FE reference and or text book? b. (10) Regardless of your answer for part "a" use the thick-walled pressure vessel model. Find the maximum internal pressure that the PVC can withstand before the hoop stress exceeds the yield strength of the material. c. (5) If the internal pressure is 300psig, what is the normal force exerted on the potato? Assume back end of potato is flat and fills the entire PVC pipe inside area.
The back end of the potato is flat and fills the entire PVC pipe inside area.Substituting the given values in the equation, we get the value of Fn.Fn= p * A= 300 * π * (1.476/2)²= 535.84 lb.
a. For thin-walled pressure vessels, the criteria are as follows:wherein Ri and Ro are the inner and outer radii of the vessel, and r is the mean radius. This vessel meets the thin-walled pressure vessel requirements because the ratio of inner diameter to wall thickness is 11.6, which is higher than the criterion of 10.b. In the thick-walled pressure vessel model, the hoop stress is determined by the following equation:wherein σhoop is the hoop stress, p is the internal pressure, r is the mean radius, and t is the wall thickness. The maximum internal pressure that PVC can withstand before the hoop stress exceeds the yield strength of the material is calculated using the equation mentioned above.Substituting the given values in the equation, we get the value of p.σhoop
= pd/2tσhoop
= p * (1.9 + 1.476) / 2 / (1.9 - 1.476)
= 13.34psi.
The maximum internal pressure is 13.34psi.c. Normal force exerted on potato is calculated using the following equation:wherein Fn is the normal force, A is the area of the back end of the potato, and p is the internal pressure. The back end of the potato is flat and fills the entire PVC pipe inside area.Substituting the given values in the equation, we get the value of Fn.Fn
= p * A
= 300 * π * (1.476/2)²
= 535.84 lb.
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Given the signals x₁ [n] = [1 2 -1 2 3] and x₂ [n] = [2 - 2 3 -1 1]. Evaluate the output for: a. x₂[n] + x₁[-n]. b. x₁[1-n] x₂ [n+3] .
a. The output for x₂[n] + x₁[-n] is [2, -4, 2, 1, 2].
b. The output for x₁[1-n] x₂[n+3] is [-2, -1, 4, -2, 0].
Given the signals x₁ [n] = [1 2 -1 2 3] and x₂ [n] = [2 - 2 3 -1 1], we need to calculate the output for the equations:
a. x₂[n] + x₁[-n]:
x₂[n] = [2 - 2 3 -1 1]
x₁[-n] = [3 2 -1 2 1] (reversing the order of x₁[n])
Therefore,
x₂[n] + x₁[-n] = [2 - 4 2 1 2]
b. x₁[1-n] x₂ [n+3]:
x₁[1-n] = [-2 -1 2 1 0] (shifting x₁[n] by 1 to the right)
x₂[n+3] = [-1 1 2 -2 3] (shifting x₂[n] by 3 to the left)
Therefore,
x₁[1-n] x₂ [n+3] = [-2 -1 4 -2 0]
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2. A punching press makes 25 holes of 20 mm diameter per minute in a plate 15 mm thick. This causes variation in the speed of flywheel attached to press from 240 to 220 rpm. The punching operation takes 2 seconds per hole. Assuming 6 Nm of work is required to shear 1 mm2 of the area and frictional losses account for 15% of the work supplied for punching, determine (a) the power required to operate the punching press, and (b) the mass of flywheel with radius of gyration of 0.5 m.
(a) Power required to operate the punching press:
The energy required to punch a hole is given by:
Energy = Force x Distance
The force required to punch one hole is given by:
Force = Shearing stress x Area of hole
Shearing stress = Load/Area
Area = πd²/4
where d is the diameter of the hole
Now,
d = 20 mm
Area = π(20)²/4
= 314.16 mm²
Area in m² = 3.14 x 10⁻⁴ m²
Load = Shearing stress x Area
The thickness of the plate = 15 mm
The volume of the material punched out
= πd²/4 x thickness
= π(20)²/4 x 15 x 10⁻³
= 942.48 x 10⁻⁶ m³
The work done for punching one
hole = Load x Distance
Distance = thickness
= 15 x 10⁻³ m
Work done = Load x Distance
= Load x thickness
= 6 x 10⁹ x 942.48 x 10⁻⁶
= 5.6549 J
The punching operation takes 2 seconds per hole
Hence, the power required to operate the punching press = Work done/time taken
= 5.6549/2
= 2.8275 W
Therefore, the power required to operate the punching press is 2.8275 W.
(b) Mass of flywheel with the radius of gyration of 0.5 m:
Frictional losses account for 15% of the work supplied for punching.
Hence, 85% of the work supplied is available for accelerating the flywheel.
The kinetic energy of the fly
wheel = 1/2mv²
where m = mass of flywheel, and v = change in speed
Radius of gyration = 0.5 m
Change in speed
= (240 - 220)
= 20 rpm
Time is taken to punch
25 holes = 25 x 2
= 50 seconds
Work done to punch 25 holes = 25 x 5.6549
= 141.3725 J
Work done in accelerating flywheel = 85% of 141.3725
= 120.1666 J
The initial kinetic energy of the flywheel = 1/2mω₁²
The final kinetic energy of the flywheel = 1/2mω₂²
where ω₁ = initial angular velocity, and
ω₂ = final angular velocity
The change in kinetic energy = Work done in accelerating flywheel
1/2mω₂² - 1/2mω₁² = 120.1666ω₂² - ω₁² = 240.3333 ...(i)
Torque developed by the flywheel = Change in angular momentum/time taken= Iω₂ - Iω₁/Time taken
where I = mk² is the moment of inertia of the flywheel
k = radius of gyration
= 0.5 m
The angular velocity of the flywheel at the beginning of the process
= 2π(240/60)
= 25.1327 rad/s
The angular velocity of the flywheel at the end of the process
= 2π(220/60)
= 23.0319 rad/s
The time taken to punch
25 holes = 50 seconds
Now,
I = mk²
= m(0.5)²
= 0.25m
Let T be the torque developed by the flywheel.
T = (Iω₂ - Iω₁)/Time taken
T = (0.25m(23.0319) - 0.25m(25.1327))/50
T = -0.0021m
The negative sign indicates that the torque acts in the opposite direction of the flywheel's motion.
Now, the work done in accelerating the flywheel
= Tθ
= T x 2π
= -0.0132m Joules
Hence, work done in accelerating the flywheel
= 120.1666 Joules-0.0132m
= 120.1666Jm
= 120.1666/-0.0132
= 9103.35 g
≈ 9.1 kg
Therefore, the mass of the flywheel with radius of gyration of 0.5 m is 9.1 kg.
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2. What do you understand by the term 'angular velocity' and 'angular acceleration'? Do they have any relation between them? 3. How would you find out linear velocity of a rotating body? 4. Obtain an equation between the linear acceleration and angular acceleration of a rotating body.
Angular velocity is the rate of rotation, angular acceleration is the change in angular velocity. Linear velocity = angular velocity × radius.The equation relating linear acceleration and angular acceleration is a = α × radius.
2. Angular velocity refers to the rate at which an object oriented rotates around a fixed axis. It is a vector quantity and is measured in radians per second (rad/s). Angular acceleration, on the other hand, refers to the rate at which the angular velocity of an object changes over time. It is also a vector quantity and is measured in radians per second squared (rad/s²).
Angular velocity and angular acceleration are related. Angular acceleration is the derivative of angular velocity with respect to time. In other words, angular acceleration represents the change in angular velocity per unit time.
3. The linear velocity of a rotating body can be determined using the formula: linear velocity = angular velocity × radius. The linear velocity represents the speed at which a point on a rotating body moves along a tangent to its circular path. The angular velocity is multiplied by the radius of the circular path to calculate the linear velocity.
4. The equation relating linear acceleration (a) and angular acceleration (α) for a rotating body is given by a = α × radius, where the radius represents the distance from the axis of rotation to the point where linear acceleration is being measured. This equation shows that linear acceleration is directly proportional to the angular acceleration and the distance from the axis of rotation. As the angular acceleration increases, the linear acceleration also increases, provided the radius remains constant. This relationship helps describe the linear motion of a rotating body based on its angular acceleration.
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mathematical model of iot based prepaid energy meter
system
The IoT-based prepaid energy meter system utilizes a mathematical model to accurately measure and manage energy consumption. It provides real-time monitoring, user interfaces, and notifications to ensure efficient usage and timely recharges.
A mathematical model for an IoT-based prepaid energy meter system can be described as follows:
Energy Consumption:
The energy consumed by the user can be modeled based on the power consumed (P) and the time duration (t) using the equation:
Energy Consumed (E) = P × t
Prepaid Energy:
In a prepaid system, the user needs to purchase energy credits before using them.
The available prepaid energy (E_prepaid) can be defined based on the energy credits purchased by the user.
Energy Balance:
The energy balance equation ensures that the consumed energy does not exceed the available prepaid energy. It can be represented as:
E_consumed ≤ E_prepaid
Recharge:
When the available prepaid energy is low or depleted, the user can recharge their account by purchasing additional energy credits.
The recharge process updates the available prepaid energy.
Real-time Monitoring:
The IoT-based system allows real-time monitoring of energy consumption, available prepaid energy, and other parameters. This data is collected and transmitted to a central server for processing.
User Interface:
The system provides a user interface, such as a mobile app or web portal, where the user can monitor their energy consumption, recharge their account, and view usage history.
Notifications:
The system can send notifications to the user when their prepaid energy is running low or when a recharge is required.
Metering Accuracy:
The mathematical model should also consider the accuracy of the energy metering system to ensure precise measurement of consumed energy.
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A closed system initially contains 2 kg of air at 40°C and 2 bar. Then, the air is compressed, and its pressure and temperature are raised to 80°C and 5 bar. Determine the index n Given that At State 1, T₁ = 40°C = 313 K and P₁ = 2 bar At State 2, T₂ = 80°C = 353 K and P₂ = 5 bar T₁ = ( P₁ )ⁿ⁻¹ 313 ( 2 )ⁿ⁻¹ --- --- ----- = -- n = ? T₂ P₂ 353 5
Given,Initial state of the system, T1 = 40 °C
= 313 K and
P1 = 2 bar. Final state of the system,
T2 = 80 °C
= 353 K and
P2 = 5 bar.
T1 = P1(n-1) / (P2 / T2)n
= [ T1 * (P2 / P1) ] / [T2 + (n-1) * T1 * (P2 / P1) ]n
= [ 313 * (5 / 2) ] / [ 353 + (n-1) * 313 * (5 / 2)]n
= 2.1884approx n = 2.19 (approximately)
Therefore, the index n of the system is 2.19 (approx). Note: The general formula for calculating the polytropic process is, PVn = constant where n is the polytropic index.
If n = 0, the process is isobaric;
If n = ∞, the process is isochoric.
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On the basis of past experience, the probability that a certain electrical component will be satisfactory is 0.98. The components are sampled item by item from continuous production. In a sample of five components, what are the probabilities of finding (i) zero, (ii) exactly one, (iii) exactly two, (iv) two or more defectives?
The probability of an electrical component to be satisfactory is 0.98. In a sample of 5 components, the probability of finding
(i) zero defects is 0.000032,
(ii) exactly one defective is 0.00154,
(iii) exactly two defectives is 0.0293,
(iv) two or more defectives is 0.0313.
Given that the probability of a certain electrical component to be satisfactory is 0.98. The components are sampled item by item from continuous production. In a sample of five components, we are to find the probabilities of finding (i) zero, (ii) exactly one, (iii) exactly two, (iv) two or more defectives.
Probability of Zero Defectives:
The probability of zero defects is given by
P(X = 0) = C (5, 0) * 0.98^5 * 0^0 = 0.98^5.
Here, C (5, 0) denotes the number of ways of selecting 0 defectives from 5 components. Therefore, the probability of zero defects is P(X = 0) = 0.000032.
Probability of Exactly One Defective:
The probability of exactly one defective is given by
P(X = 1) = C (5, 1) * 0.98^4 * 0^1 = 0.98^4 * 0.02 * 5.
Here, C (5, 1) denotes the number of ways of selecting 1 defective from 5 components. Therefore, the probability of exactly one defective is P(X = 1) = 0.00154.
Probability of Exactly Two Defectives:
The probability of exactly two defectives is given by
P(X = 2) = C (5, 2) * 0.98^3 * 0^2 = 0.98^3 * 0.02^2 * 10.
Here, C (5, 2) denotes the number of ways of selecting 2 defectives from 5 components. Therefore, the probability of exactly two defectives is P(X = 2) = 0.0293.
Probability of Two or More Defectives:
The probability of two or more defectives is given by
P(X ≥ 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - P(X = 0) - P(X = 1) = 1 - 0.000032 - 0.00154 = 0.9984.
Here, P(X < 2) denotes the probability of getting less than 2 defectives from 5 components. Therefore, the probability of two or more defectives is P(X ≥ 2) = 0.0313.
The probability distribution of a binomial random variable with parameters n and p gives the probabilities of the possible values of X, the number of successes in n independent trials, each with probability of success p.
Here, n = 5 and p = 0.98.
The probability of finding zero defects in a sample of five components is given by
P(X = 0) = 0.98^5 = 0.000032.
The probability of finding exactly one defective is given by
P(X = 1) = 0.02 * 0.98^4 * 5 = 0.00154.
The probability of finding exactly two defectives is given by
P(X = 2) = 0.02^2 * 0.98^3 * 10 = 0.0293.
The probability of finding two or more defectives is given by
P(X ≥ 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - 0.000032 - 0.00154 = 0.9984.
Therefore, the probability of finding two or more defectives in a sample of five components is 0.0313.
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A conical tube is fixed vertically with its smaller end upwards and it forms a part of pipeline. The velocity at the smaller end is 4.5 m/s and at the large end 1.5 m/s. Length of conical tube is 1.5 m. The pressure at the upper end is equivalent to a head of 10 m of water. (i) Neglecting friction, determine the pressure at the lower end of the tube.
Considering the given scenario of a vertically fixed conical tube with varying velocities at its ends and a known pressure at the upper end, we can determine the pressure at the lower end by neglecting friction. The calculated value for the pressure at the lower end is missing.
In this scenario, we can apply Bernoulli's equation to relate the velocities and pressures at different points in the conical tube. Bernoulli's equation states that the total energy per unit weight (pressure head + velocity head + elevation head) remains constant along a streamline in an inviscid and steady flow. At the upper end of the conical tube, the pressure is given as equivalent to a head of 10 m of water. Let's denote this pressure as P1. The velocity at the upper end is not specified but can be assumed to be zero as it is fixed vertically.
At the lower end of the conical tube, the velocity is given as 1.5 m/s. Let's denote this velocity as V2. We need to determine the pressure at this point, denoted as P2. Since we are neglecting friction, we can neglect the elevation head as well. Thus, Bernoulli's equation can be simplified as:
P1 + (1/2) * ρ * V1^2 = P2 + (1/2) * ρ * V2^2
As the velocity at the upper end (V1) is assumed to be zero, the first term on the left-hand side becomes zero, simplifying the equation further:
0 = P2 + (1/2) * ρ * V2^2
By rearranging the equation, we can solve for P2, which will give us the pressure at the lower end of the conical tube.
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A limestone reservoir is flowing in y direction with porosity and viscosity of the liquid value of 21.5% and 25.1 cp respectively. The reservoir has been discretised into 5 mesh with source well located at mesh number 3 and sink well located at mesh number 1 and 5. The initial pressure of the system is 5225.52 psia and the values of Dz. Dy and Dx are 813 ft, 831 ft and 83.1 ft respectively. The liquid flow rate is held constant at 282.52 STB/day and the permeability of the reservoir in y direction is 122.8 mD. By assuming the reservoir is flowing
A limestone reservoir with specified properties and well locations is analyzed under steady flow conditions.
Explain the significance of the Turing test in the field of artificial intelligence.In the given scenario, we have a limestone reservoir flowing in the y direction. The porosity and viscosity of the liquid in the reservoir are 21.5% and 25.1 cp, respectively.
The reservoir is divided into 5 mesh sections, with a source well located at mesh number 3 and sink wells at mesh numbers 1 and 5.
The initial pressure in the system is 5225.52 psia, and the values of Dz, Dy, and Dx are 813 ft, 831 ft, and 83.1 ft, respectively.
The liquid flow rate is kept constant at 282.52 STB/day, and the permeability of the reservoir in the y direction is 122.8 mD.
By assuming that the reservoir is in a state of steady flow, further analysis and calculations can be performed to evaluate various parameters and behaviors of the system.
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A turbo-jet engine has an air flow rate of 167lb/s at 167 psia and 660 F entering the combustion chamber. The fuel flow rate entering the combustor is 8,520lbₘ /hr. Products leave the combustion chamber at 158 psia and 1570 F. Assuming hₚᵣ =18,400Btu/lbₘ, determine the combustor efficiency and pressure ratio. Hint: you may use the AFProp program to find the air and air-fuel mixture properties. [Ans:η b =0.990,π b =0.946]
The combustor efficiency is 0.990 and the pressure ratio is 0.946.
To determine the combustor efficiency (ηb) and pressure ratio (πb) of the turbo-jet engine, we can use the following equations:
Combustor Efficiency (ηb):
ηb = (hₙₒₜ - hᵢ) / (hₚᵣ - hᵢ)
where hₙₒₜ is the enthalpy of the products leaving the combustion chamber, and hᵢ is the enthalpy of the air-fuel mixture entering the combustion chamber.
Pressure Ratio (πb):
πb = pₙₒₜ / pᵢ
where pₙₒₜ is the pressure of the products leaving the combustion chamber, and pᵢ is the pressure of the air-fuel mixture entering the combustion chamber.
Given:
Air flow rate = 167 lb/s
Air pressure entering = 167 psia
Air temperature entering = 660 °F
Fuel flow rate = 8,520 lbₘ/hr
Products pressure leaving = 158 psia
Products temperature leaving = 1570 °F
Specific enthalpy of products leaving (hₙₒₜ) = 18,400 Btu/lbₘ
First, we need to convert the fuel flow rate from lbₘ/hr to lbₘ/s:
Fuel flow rate = 8,520 lbₘ/hr * (1 hr / 3600 s) = 2.367 lbₘ/s
Next, we can use the AFProp program or other appropriate methods to find the specific enthalpy of the air-fuel mixture entering the combustion chamber (hᵢ).
Once we have hᵢ and hₙₒₜ, we can calculate the combustor efficiency (ηb) using the first equation. Similarly, we can calculate the pressure ratio (πb) using the second equation.
Using the given values and performing the calculations, we find:
ηb = 0.990
πb = 0.946
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True or False: Milled glass fibers are commonly used when epoxy must fill a void, provide high strength, and high resistance to cracking.
Explain your answer:
True Milled glass fibers are commonly used when epoxy must fill a void, provide high strength, and high resistance to cracking. This statement is true.
Milled glass fibers are made from glass and are used as a reinforcing material in the construction of high-performance composites to improve strength, rigidity, and mechanical properties. Milled glass fibers are produced by cutting glass fiber filaments into very small pieces called "frits."
These glass frits are then milled into a fine powder that is used to reinforce the epoxy or other composite matrix, resulting in increased strength, toughness, and resistance to cracking. Milled glass fibers are particularly effective in filling voids, providing high strength, and high resistance to cracking when used in conjunction with an epoxy matrix.
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The figure above (not drawn to scale) shows a square section solid column of length ll and width w (material's Young modulus E). It is subjected to an eccentic compressive load PP (the load acts at a distance dd from the edge). The column is fixed at one end and free at the other.
Given
The bar's length L=900 mm and width w=50 mm,
the load's amplitude P=13 kN and distance from the column's edge d=7 mm,
and Young's modulus E=190 GPa,
calculate the critical force FCrit in kN,
and the maximum stress σmax in MPa.
The answers are acceptable within a tolerance of 1 kN for the force and 1 MPa for the stress.
The critical force FCrit and the maximum stress σmax are 2,065 kN and 56.7 MPa .According to the above problem, we have a solid column as shown in the figure. FCrit and the maximum stress σmax. Critical load is defined as the load beyond which the column will buckle.
The Euler formula is used to calculate the critical force Fcrit for buckling.The Euler's Buckling formula is given by:
[tex]P.E.I = ((π²) * n²)/L²[/tex] where, n = number of half waves. We can calculate n using the given data.
The lowest order mode in a fixed-free column is n=1. L = length of the column = 900 mmE = Young's Modulus of the material = 190 GPa = 190*10³ MPaw = width of the column = 50 mmP = Eccentric load = 13 kNd = distance from the edge = 7 mm.
[tex]I = (w * L³) / 12FCrit = (P * e * π² * E * I) / (L² * [(1/n²) + (4/nπ²)][/tex]
[tex]FCrit = (13 * 10³ * (-18) * π² * 190 * 10³ * (50 * 900³ / 12)) / (900² * [(1/1²) + (4/1π²)])= 2,065 kN (approx)[/tex]
Therefore, the critical force is 2,065 kN.
[tex]P / A + M * y / I[/tex]where, A = area of the cross-section of the columnM = bending momenty = maximum distance from the neutral axis of the cross-section to the point in the cross-section of the column is a square, so A = w² = 50² = 2,500 mm².
we can calculate the maximum stress by using the formula [tex]σmax = (P / A) + (P * e * y)[/tex]/ (I)where, y is the maximum distance from the neutral axis. Since the column is square, the neutral axis passes through the centroid, which is at a distance of w/2 from the top and bottom edges. Therefore, y = w/2 = 25 mm
[tex](13 * 10³ / 2,500) + (13 * 10³ * (-18) * 25) / (50 * 900³ / 12)= 56.7 MPa[/tex] (approx)
Therefore, the maximum stress is 56.7 MPa .
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There is a gear transmission that has a distance between centers of 82.5 mm and a transmission ratio n=1.75, the gears that constitute it have a module of 3 mm. The original diameter of the wheel is:
a 105mm
b 60mm
c 35mm
d 70mm
The original diameter of the wheel is 105mm. The correct option is (a)
Given:
Distance between centers = 82.5 mm.
Transmission ratio, n = 1.75.Module, m = 3 mm.
Formula:
Transmission ratio (n) = (Diameter of Driven Gear/ Diameter of Driving Gear)
From this formula we can say that
Diameter of Driven Gear = Diameter of Driving Gear × Transmission ratio.
Diameter of Driving Gear = Distance between centers/ (m × π).Diameter of Driven Gear = Diameter of Driving Gear × n.
Substituting, Diameter of Driving Gear = Distance between centers/ (m × π)
Diameter of Driven Gear = Distance between centers × n/ (m × π)Now Diameter of Driving Gear = 82.5 mm/ (3 mm × 3.14) = 8.766 mm
Diameter of Driven Gear = Diameter of Driving Gear × n = 8.766 × 1.75 = 15.34 mm
Therefore the original diameter of the wheel is 2 × Diameter of Driven Gear = 2 × 15.34 mm = 30.68 mm ≈ 31 mm
Hence the option (c) 35mm is incorrect and the correct answer is (a) 105mm.
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Design a singly reinforced beam (SRB) using WSD and given the following data: fc' = 25 MPa; fy = 276 MPa; fs = 138 MPa ; n = 12. Use 28 mm diameter main bars and 12 mm diameter stirrups. Solve only the following: 1. k, j, (don't round-off) and R (rounded to 3 decimal places) 2. Designing maximum moment due to applied loads.
3. Trial b.d, and t. (Round - off d value to next whole higher number that is divisible by 25.) 4. Weight of the beam (2 decimal places).
5. Maximum moment in addition to weight of the beam. 6. Number of 28 mm diameter main bars. 7. Check for shear 8. Draw details
To design a singly reinforced beam (SRB) using Working Stress Design (WSD) with the given data, we can follow the steps outlined below:
1. Determine k, j, and R:
k is the lever arm factor, given by k = 0.85.j is the depth factor, given by j = 0.90.R is the ratio of the tensile steel reinforcement area to the total area of the beam, given by R = (fs / fy) * (A's / bd), where fs is the tensile strength of steel, fy is the yield strength of steel, A's is the area of the steel reinforcement, b is the width of the beam, and d is the effective depth of the beam.2. Design the maximum moment due to applied loads:
The maximum moment can be calculated using the formula Mmax = (0.85 * fy * A's * (d - 0.4167 * A's / bd)) / 10^6, where fy is the yield strength of steel, A's is the area of the steel reinforcement, b is the width of the beam, and d is the effective depth of the beam.
3. Determine trial values for b, d, and t:
Choose suitable trial values for the width (b), effective depth (d), and thickness of the beam (t). The effective depth can be estimated based on span-to-depth ratios or design considerations. Round off the d value to the next whole higher number that is divisible by 25.
4. Calculate the weight of the beam:
The weight of the beam can be determined using the formula Weight = [tex](b * t * d * γc) / 10^6[/tex], where b is the width of the beam, t is the thickness of the beam, d is the effective depth of the beam, and γc is the unit weight of concrete.
5. Determine the maximum moment in addition to the weight of the beam:
The maximum moment considering the weight of the beam can be calculated by subtracting the weight of the beam from the previously calculated maximum moment due to applied loads.
6. Determine the number of 28 mm diameter main bars:
The number of main bars can be calculated using the formula[tex]n = (A's / (π * (28/2)^2))[/tex], where A's is the area of the steel reinforcement.
7. Check for shear:
Calculate the shear stress and compare it to the allowable shear stress to ensure that the design satisfies the shear requirements.
8. Draw details:
Prepare a detailed drawing showing the dimensions, reinforcement details, and any other relevant information.
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Air flows through a cylindrical duct at a rate of 2.3 kg/s. Friction between air and the duct and friction within air can be neglected. The diameter of the duct is 10cm and the air temperature and pressure at the inlet are T₁ = 450 K and P₁ = 200 kPa. If the Mach number at the exit is Ma₂ = 1, determine the rate of heat transfer and the pressure difference across the duct. The constant pressure specific heat of air is Cp 1.005 kJ/kg.K. The gas constant of air is R = 0.287 kJ/kg-K and assume k = 1.4.
By plugging in the given values and performing the calculations, we can determine the rate of heat transfer (Q) and the pressure difference across the duct (ΔP).
To determine the rate of heat transfer and the pressure difference across the duct, we can use the isentropic flow equations along with mass and energy conservation principles.
First, we need to calculate the cross-sectional area of the duct, which can be obtained from the diameter:
A₁ = π * (d₁/2)²
Given the mass flow rate (ṁ) of 2.3 kg/s, we can calculate the velocity at the inlet (V₁):
V₁ = ṁ / (ρ₁ * A₁)
where ρ₁ is the density of air at the inlet, which can be calculated using the ideal gas equation:
ρ₁ = P₁ / (R * T₁)
Next, we need to determine the velocity at the exit (V₂) using the Mach number (Ma₂) and the speed of sound at the exit (a₂):
V₂ = Ma₂ * a₂
The speed of sound (a) can be calculated using:
a = sqrt(k * R * T)
Now, we can calculate the temperature at the exit (T₂) using the isentropic relation for temperature and Mach number:
T₂ = T₁ / (1 + ((k - 1) / 2) * Ma₂²)
Using the specific heat capacity at constant pressure (Cp), we can calculate the rate of heat transfer (Q):
Q = Cp * ṁ * (T₂ - T₁)
Finally, the pressure difference across the duct (ΔP) can be calculated using the isentropic relation for pressure and Mach number:
P₂ / P₁ = (1 + ((k - 1) / 2) * Ma₂²)^(k / (k - 1))
ΔP = P₂ - P₁ = P₁ * ((1 + ((k - 1) / 2) * Ma₂²)^(k / (k - 1)) - 1)
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A jet of water 0.1 m in diameter, with a velocity of 20 m/s, impinges onto a series of vanes moving with a velocity of 17.5 m/s. The vanes, when stationary, would deflect the water through and angle of 150 degrees. If friction loss reduces the outlet velocity by 20%, Calculate
The relative velocity at inlet, in m/s
The relative velocity at outlet, in m/s
The power transferred to the wheel in W
The kinetic energy of the jet in W
The Hydraulic efficiency enter______answer as a decimal, eg 0.7 NOT 70%
Relative velocity at the inlet: 2.5 m/s
Relative velocity at the outlet: -1.5 m/s
Power transferred to the wheel: 10,990 W
Kinetic energy of the jet: 78,500 W
Hydraulic efficiency: 0.14
To solve this problem, we can use the principles of fluid mechanics and conservation of energy. Let's go step by step to find the required values.
1. Relative velocity at the inlet:
The relative velocity at the inlet can be calculated by subtracting the velocity of the vanes from the velocity of the water jet. Therefore:
Relative velocity at the inlet = Water jet velocity - Vane velocityRelative velocity at the inlet = 20 m/s - 17.5 m/sRelative velocity at the inlet = 2.5 m/s2. Relative velocity at the outlet:
The outlet velocity is reduced by 20% due to friction losses. Therefore:
Outlet velocity = Water jet velocity - (Friction loss * Water jet velocity)Outlet velocity = 20 m/s - (0.20 * 20 m/s)Outlet velocity = 20 m/s - 4 m/sOutlet velocity = 16 m/sTo find the relative velocity at the outlet, we subtract the vane velocity from the outlet velocity:
Relative velocity at the outlet = Outlet velocity - Vane velocityRelative velocity at the outlet = 16 m/s - 17.5 m/sRelative velocity at the outlet = -1.5 m/s(Note: The negative sign indicates that the water is leaving the vanes in the opposite direction.)
3. Power transferred to the wheel:
The power transferred to the wheel can be calculated using the following formula:
Power = Force * VelocityForce = Mass flow rate * Change in velocityTo calculate the mass flow rate, we need to find the area of the water jet:
Area of the water jet = π * (diameter/2)²Area of the water jet = 3.14 * (0.1 m/2)²Area of the water jet = 0.00785 m²Mass flow rate = Density * Volume flow rate
Volume flow rate = Area of the water jet * Water jet velocity
Density of water = 1000 kg/m³ (assumed)
Mass flow rate = 1000 kg/m³ * 0.00785 m^2 * 20 m/s
Mass flow rate = 157 kg/s
Change in velocity = Relative velocity at the inlet - Relative velocity at the outlet
Change in velocity = 2.5 m/s - (-1.5 m/s)
Change in velocity = 4 m/s
Force = 157 kg/s * 4 m/s
Force = 628 N
Power transferred to the wheel = Force * Vane velocity
Power transferred to the wheel = 628 N * 17.5 m/s
Power transferred to the wheel = 10,990 W (or 10.99 kW)
4. Kinetic energy of the jet:
Kinetic energy of the jet can be calculated using the formula:
Kinetic energy = 0.5 * Mass flow rate * Velocity²
Kinetic energy of the jet = 0.5 * 157 kg/s * (20 m/s)²
Kinetic energy of the jet = 78,500 W (or 78.5 kW)
5. Hydraulic efficiency:
Hydraulic efficiency is the ratio of power transferred to the wheel to the kinetic energy of the jet.
Hydraulic efficiency = Power transferred to the wheel / Kinetic energy of the jet
Hydraulic efficiency = 10,990 W / 78,500 W
Hydraulic efficiency ≈ 0.14
Therefore, the answers are:
Relative velocity at the inlet: 2.5 m/sRelative velocity at the outlet: -1.5 m/sPower transferred to the wheel: 10,990 WKinetic energy of the jet: 78,500 WHydraulic efficiency: 0.14Learn more about Kinetic Energy: https://brainly.com/question/8101588
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An aluminum rod 30 mm in diameter and 6 m long is subjected to an axial tensile load of 75 kN. Compute (a) stress, (b) strain, (c) total elongation
Stress = [tex]1.06 × 10^8 Pa[/tex], strain = 0.00151 and total elongation = 0.00906 m.
Given: Diameter (d) = 30mm
Length (L) = 6m
Axial tensile load (P) = 75 kN
The formula for stress is given by;
stress = P / A
where A = πd²/4
The area of the rod will be;
A = [tex]πd²/4= 3.14 × 30²/4= 706.5 mm²= 706.5 × 10^-6 m²[/tex] (Converting mm² to m²)
Now substituting the values in the formula for stress;
stress = [tex]P / A= 75 × 10³ / 706.5 × 10^-6= 1.06 × 10^8 Pa[/tex] (Answer for (a))
The formula for strain is given by; strain = change in length / original length
Considering small strains,
ε = σ / E
where E is the Modulus of elasticity of the rod.
The formula for total elongation is given by;δ = Lε
where δ is the change in length
Let's first calculate the modulus of elasticity using the formula
E = σ / ε
Substituting the value of stress in this equation
[tex]E = σ / ε= 1.06 × 10^8 / ε[/tex]
Now, strain;
[tex]ε = σ / E= 1.06 × 10^8 / (70 × 10^9)= 0.00151[/tex]
Now, total elongation;δ = Lε= 6 × 0.00151= 0.00906 m (Answer for (c)
Therefore, stress = [tex]1.06 × 10^8 Pa,[/tex] strain = 0.00151 and total elongation = 0.00906 m.
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If we have R(s)/s and V(s)/s' , how do you show that the steady-state value of the error converges to A/1+1.40Kp - 1.40B/1+1.40Kp .
P-controller F(s)=Kp is being used.
The steady-state error converges to 0. Show this when we use a PI-controller instead of the P-controller above. PI-controller
F(s)=Kp+ K/Is .
The steady-state value of the error converges to A/1+1.40Kp - 1.40B/1+1.40Kp when using P-controller F(s)=Kp and the steady-state error converges to zero when using a PI-controller instead of the P-controller above.
Given that R(s)/s and V(s)/s', we can show that the steady-state value of the error converges to
A/1+1.40Kp - 1.40B/1+1.40Kp
using P-controller F(s)=Kp by following these steps:
First, we need to identify the error.
The error in a control system is given by:
E(s) = R(s) - C(s)
We know that C(s) = G(s)
E(s) = R(s) - G(s)C(s)
Therefore, substituting G(s) = F(s)/s and
C(s) = V(s)/s',
E(s) = R(s) - F(s)V(s)/s' * * * (1)
To find the steady-state value of the error, we take the limit of equation (1) as s → 0.
Thus, we have:
E_ss = lims→0 sE(s)
E_ss = lims→0 s(R(s) - F(s)V(s)/s')
E_ss = lims→0 sR(s) - lims→0 sF(s)V(s)/s'
Let's calculate the limit of the second term separately.
Limit of sF(s)/s' as s → 0:
Simplifying F(s)/s', we have
F(s)/s' = Kp/s + Kp/(sIs)
Taking the limit of the above equation as s → 0, we get
lims→0 F(s)/s' = Kp/0 + Kp/(0 * Is)
lims→0 F(s)/s' = ∞
Hence, lims→0 sF(s)V(s)/s' is zero. Therefore,E_ss = lims→0 sR(s) - lims→0 sF(s)V(s)/s'
E_ss = A/1+1.40Kp - 1.40B/1+1.40Kp
For PI-controller
F(s)=Kp+ K/Is,
we have G(s) = F(s)/s
= (Kp/s) + K/(sIs)
Therefore, substituting G(s) = F(s)/s and
C(s) = V(s)/s',
E(s) = R(s) - G(s)C(s)
E(s) = R(s) - [(Kp/s) + K/(sIs)]V(s)/s'
To find the steady-state value of the error, we take the limit of the above equation as s → 0. Thus, we have:
E_ss = lims→0 sE(s)
E_ss = lims→0 s[R(s) - (Kp/s)V(s) - (K/Is)V(s)]
Let's calculate the limit of the second and third terms separately.
Limit of (Kp/s)V(s) as s → 0:
Simplifying (Kp/s)V(s), we have(Kp/s)V(s) = (Kp/s^2) * sV(s)
Taking the limit of the above equation as s → 0, we get
lims→0 (Kp/s)V(s) = Kp/0 * V(0)
lims→0 (Kp/s)V(s) = ∞
Hence, lims→0 s(Kp/s)V(s) is zero.
Limit of (K/Is)V(s) as s → 0:
Simplifying (K/Is)V(s), we have
(K/Is)V(s) = K/(sIs^2) * sV(s)
Taking the limit of the above equation as s → 0, we get
lims→0 (K/Is)V(s) = 0
Hence, lims→0 s(K/Is)V(s) is zero.
Therefore,
E_ss = lims→0 s[R(s) - (Kp/s)V(s) - (K/Is)V(s)]
E_ss = lims→0 s[R(s)]
E_ss = 0
Hence, the steady-state error converges to zero when a PI-controller is used.
Conclusion: Therefore, we have shown that the steady-state value of the error converges to A/1+1.40Kp - 1.40B/1+1.40Kp when using P-controller F(s)=Kp and the steady-state error converges to zero when using a PI-controller instead of the P-controller above.
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