some adult chordates do not exhibit the characteristic features of the phylum chordata. what is the likely reason?

Answers

Answer 1

It is possible that the adult chordates in question have evolved and adapted to different environmental conditions, leading to the loss or modification of certain characteristics that are typical of the phylum Chordata.

Additionally, some chordates may only exhibit certain features during certain stages of their life cycle, such as during embryonic development, which could account for the lack of observable features in adulthood. It is important to note that while not all chordates may exhibit all of the characteristics of the phylum Chordata, they are still classified as animals within this phylum based on shared characteristics such as a dorsal nerve cord and notochord at some point in their life cycle.

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plsssss help I'll give brainliest!!!! ocean currents traveling from the equator toward the polar zones carry _____ water, which helps to _____air masses at the poes

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Answer:

Ocean currents act much like a conveyor belt, transporting warm water and precipitation from the equator toward the poles and cold water from the poles back to the tropics. Thus, ocean currents regulate global climate, helping to counteract the uneven distribution of solar radiation reaching Earth’s surface1. Warm ocean currents traveling from the equator toward the polar zones carry warm water which helps to warm air masses at the poles

starting with a glucose residue released by muscle glycogen phosphorylase, how many net atp molecules will be formed by the conversion of the residue to pyruvate by glycolysis?

Answers

Starting with a glucose residue released by muscle glycogen phosphorylase, a net of 2 ATP molecules will be formed by the conversion of the residue to pyruvate by glycolysis. This process occurs quickly and efficiently, allowing muscle cells to generate energy for muscle contraction and other cellular processes.


Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate, which can then be further oxidized in the Krebs cycle to generate ATP. The process of glycolysis begins with the breakdown of glucose-6-phosphate, which is released by muscle glycogen phosphorylase. The glucose-6-phosphate is then converted to fructose-6-phosphate, which is then metabolized through a series of steps to generate pyruvate.


During glycolysis, a net of 2 ATP molecules is generated per glucose molecule. This occurs through the conversion of glucose-6-phosphate to pyruvate, which involves the generation of 4 ATP molecules through substrate-level phosphorylation, and the consumption of 2 ATP molecules during the preparatory phase of glycolysis.


Therefore, Glycolysis is an important metabolic pathway that plays a critical role in energy metabolism, and understanding its regulation and function is essential for understanding human health and disease.

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xplain the humoral response. what causes this type of response? what kinds of cells and chemicals are involved? explain the functions of each of these cells and chemicals:

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The humoral response is a type of immune response that involves the production and release of antibodies by B cells in response to an invading pathogen or foreign substance.

The humoral response is triggered when antigens on the surface of a pathogen bind to specific receptors on the surface of B cells. This binding activates the B cells to undergo clonal expansion, differentiation into plasma cells, and antibody production.

Several types of cells and chemicals are involved in the humoral response, including B cells, plasma cells, antibodies, cytokines, and complement proteins.

B cells are the cells responsible for recognizing and responding to foreign antigens.Plasma cells are the cells that produce and release large quantities of antibodies.Antibodies are Y-shaped proteins that bind to specific antigens on the surface of pathogens.Cytokines are chemical messengers that regulate the immune response, while complement proteins are a group of proteins that work together to destroy pathogens.

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The complete question is:

Explain the humoral response. What causes this type of response?

What kinds of cells and chemicals are involved?

Explain the functions of each of these cells and chemicals.

The nuclear localization signal is typically a(n) _______, rich in the amino acids
_______.
a. α-helix; Pro, Lys, and Arg
b. α-helix; Leu, Phe, and Gly
c. short chain; Lys and Arg
d. short chain; Phy and Gly

Answers

The nuclear localization signal is typically a short chain rich in the amino acids Lys and Arg.

What are karyopherins?

NLSs are recognized by karyopherins, which help transport the protein containing the NLS into the nucleus through the nuclear pore complex. This process occurs after translation and may involve post-translational modifications such as glycosylation.

What is nuclear localization signal?

The nuclear localization signal (NLS) is a short chain of amino acids rich in lysine (Lys) and arginine (Arg). This signal sequence is recognized by karyopherins, which are proteins that transport molecules through the nuclear pore complex.

The process of transporting proteins into the nucleus involves several steps, including recognition of the nuclear localization signal, binding of the protein to the karyopherin, and transport through the nuclear pore complex. In some cases, the nuclear localization signal may also undergo glycosylation, which can affect the efficiency of protein translation and localization.

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the neurotransmitter _______ is produced and released by motor neurons to stimulate skeletal muscles. quilzrt

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The neurotransmitter that is produced and released by motor neurons to stimulate skeletal muscles is acetylcholine.

Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that is synthesized and released by motor neurons at the neuromuscular junction. When acetylcholine is released, it binds to receptors on the skeletal muscle cells, causing depolarization and contraction of the muscle fiber.

The release of acetylcholine is essential for the normal function of skeletal muscles and any disruption in its production or release can lead to neuromuscular disorders such as myasthenia gravis.

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measuring waist circumference can determine whether an individual has excess abdominal (central) fat. true or false

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Measuring waist circumference is a simple and effective way to determine whether an individual has excess abdominal (central) fat, which is a risk factor for various metabolic and cardiovascular diseases. True

Excessive central fat can lead to insulin resistance, high blood pressure, and dyslipidemia, among other conditions. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), a waist circumference of over 94 cm in men and over 80 cm in women indicates a high risk for central obesity and associated health risks.

Therefore, measuring waist circumference is an important component of routine health assessments and can help identify individuals who may benefit from lifestyle modifications to reduce their health risks.

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True, measuring waist circumference can determine whether an individual has excess abdominal (central) fat. This method helps assess the risk of obesity-related health problems.

The belly (abdomen) is the largest space (cavity) in the body. It lies between the chest and the pelvis, holding many of the body's organs. These include the liver, stomach, and intestines.

Measuring waist circumference is a common method used to determine whether an individual has excess abdominal (central) fat, which is associated with an increased risk of health problems such as heart disease and type 2 diabetes.

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what is the main functions of fats
A. store energy
B. protect vital organs
C. provide insulation

Answers

Answer:

C. To provide insulation

Answer: C - provide insulation!

Explanation: In the body, fat functions as an important depot for energy storage, offers insulation and protection, and plays important roles in regulating and signaling.

How many cycles of beta-oxidation are required to metabolize a 20:0 acyl-CoA?

Answers

For a 20:0 acyl-CoA, which has 20 carbon atoms, ten cycles of beta-oxidation are required to completely metabolize it.

Beta-oxidation is the metabolic process that breaks down fatty acids into acetyl-CoA, which can enter the citric acid cycle and generate energy. The process involves several cycles of four steps: dehydrogenation, hydration, dehydrogenation, and hemolytic cleavage.

Each cycle produces one molecule of acetyl-CoA, one molecule of NADH, and one molecule of FADH2. The number of cycles required to metabolize a particular fatty acid depends on its length, as each cycle removes two carbon atoms from the acyl-CoA molecule.

For example, a 20:0 acyl-CoA has 20 carbon atoms and would require 10 cycles of beta-oxidation to fully metabolize into 10 molecules of acetyl-CoA.

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To metabolize a 20:0 acyl-CoA, four cycles of beta-oxidation are required. In each cycle, two carbon atoms are removed from the acyl-CoA molecule in the form of acetyl-CoA, which can enter the citric acid cycle for further energy production.

The remaining acyl-CoA molecule is shortened by two carbon atoms and undergoes another cycle of beta-oxidation until it is completely broken down into acetyl-CoA units. Therefore, a 20-carbon acyl-CoA molecule would undergo four cycles of beta-oxidation before it is fully metabolized.

In biochemistry and metabolism, beta oxidation (also known as -oxidation) is the catabolic process by which fatty acid molecules are broken down in the mitochondria of eukaryotes and prokaryotes to produce acetyl-CoA, which enters the citric acid cycle, as well as NADH and FADH2, co-enzymes used in the electron transport chain. It gets its name from the oxidation of the fatty acid's beta carbon to a carbonyl group. Although very long chain fatty acids are oxidised in peroxisomes, beta-oxidation is predominantly aided by the mitochondrial trifunctional protein, an enzyme complex connected to the inner mitochondrial membrane.

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if a person is homozygous for the a32 allele of the ccr5 gene, how many of the four daughter cells produced by meiosis will have the a32 allele

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If an individual is homozygous for the a32 allele of the ccr5 gene, all four daughter cells produced by meiosis will carry the a32 allele.

Meiosis is the process by which cells undergo two rounds of cell division to form gametes (sperm or eggs), and during this process, homologous chromosomes separate.

Since the individual is homozygous for the a32 allele, both copies of the ccr5 gene in the homologous chromosomes will carry the a32 allele.

As a result, all four daughter cells produced by meiosis will receive one copy of the homologous chromosome with the a32 allele, resulting in all four daughter cells having the a32 allele

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The active ingredient in cannabis, THC, exerts its effects on the brain through interactions with ______ receptors. a. opioid b. glutamate

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The active ingredient in cannabis, THC, exerts its effects on the brain through interactions with cannabinoid receptors.

Cannabinoid receptors are part of the endocannabinoid system, which plays a crucial role in regulating various physiological and psychological processes, including pain, appetite, mood, and memory. THC binds to these receptors and activates them, leading to a range of effects, such as altered perception, euphoria, and relaxation. The endocannabinoid system also includes enzymes that break down cannabinoids, preventing their accumulation in the body. While THC is the most well-known cannabinoid in cannabis, the plant contains many other compounds that may also interact with the endocannabinoid system, and researchers are still exploring their potential therapeutic benefits.

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Full Question:

The active ingredient in cannabis, THC, exerts its effects on the brain through interactions with _______ receptors.

a. opioid

b. glutamate

c. GABA

d. cannabinoid

Plants have coloured leaves. Are they able to carry out photosynthesis? Explain.

Answers

Answer:

Yes, plants with colored leaves are able to carry out photosynthesis. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants use light energy to synthesize organic compounds such as glucose, which they use as a source of energy. This process takes place in the chloroplasts of plant cells, which contain a green pigment called chlorophyll that is responsible for absorbing light energy.

While chlorophyll is the primary pigment involved in photosynthesis, plants can also have other pigments, such as carotenoids and anthocyanins, that give their leaves colors other than green. These pigments are involved in protecting the plant from excess light and oxidative damage. Despite their color, these pigments can also absorb light energy and contribute to the overall process of photosynthesis in the plant.

In summary, plants with colored leaves are still able to carry out photosynthesis, as the pigments responsible for their colors can also absorb light energy and contribute to the process.

Answer:

yes, even when a plant is colored it can still carry out photosynthesis as this is how the plant gets its food.

Explanation:

the only mammals other than humans that can learn to sing a song by hearing it is: a. chimpanzees. b. gorillas. c. whales. dolphins.

Answers

Whales are the only mammals except us who can pick up a song only by hearing it. Echolalia is the instant repetition of words or phrases after hearing them. Option c is Correct.

Dolphins are the only mammal known to be capable of broad and sophisticated vocal and behavioral mimicking, aside from humans. Mammals also include whales and porpoises. The ocean is home to 75 different species of dolphins, whales, and porpoises.

Sharks are fish, despite the fact that some people mistake them for mammals because of their size and the fact that certain of them can give birth to live pups. One of the earliest vertebrates (animals with a backbone) to evolve on Earth were the aquatic fish. Option c is Correct.

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According to evolutionary psychologists, which of the following statements is true of the mating patterns of men and women?a. Men tend to be concerned with whether mates will devote time and resources to a relationship.b. Men place more emphasis on the youth and physical attractiveness of their mates than women.c. Women place more emphasis on sexual fidelity than men do.d. Women are biologically driven to have multiple partners and casual sex.

Answers

According to evolutionary psychologists, statement (b) is true of the mating patterns of men and women. Men tend to place more emphasis on the youth and physical attractiveness of their mates than women.

This is because, from an evolutionary perspective, men are biologically programmed to seek out partners who are capable of bearing healthy offspring. Physical attractiveness and youth are markers of reproductive fitness, which is why men are more likely to prioritize these traits when selecting a mate.

However, this is not to say that women are not also concerned with physical attractiveness, or that men do not value other qualities in a partner, such as intelligence or kindness. Additionally, statement (a) is also true to some extent, as men may also be concerned with whether a potential mate is willing to invest time and resources into a relationship.

Statement (c) is also partially true, as women may prioritize sexual fidelity in a partner, but this is not universally true and may vary depending on cultural and individual factors. Statement (d) is not supported by evolutionary psychology research.

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which of the following statements about cyclic photophosphorylation and noncyclic photophosphorylation are correct? select an answer and submit. for keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer. a cyclic photophosphorylation involves only photosystem ii and produces only atp; noncyclic photphosphorylation involves photosystems i and ii and produces only atp. b both pathways liberate oxygen. c both pathways involve photosystems i and ii. d cyclic photophosphorylation reduces nadp and liberates oxyge; noncyclic photphosphorylation reduces nadp but does not liberate oxygen. e noncyclic photophosphorylation reduces nadp and liberates oxygen; cyclic photophosphorylation produces atp bu

Answers

The correct statements about cyclic photophosphorylation and noncyclic photophosphorylation are:C. Both pathways involve photosystems I and II. D. Cyclic photophosphorylation reduces NADP and liberates oxygen; noncyclic photophosphorylation reduces NADP but does not liberate oxygen. E. Noncyclic photophosphorylation reduces NADP and liberates oxygen; cyclic photophosphorylation produces ATP but does not reduce NADP or liberate oxygen.


Cyclic photophosphorylation is a process that occurs only in photosynthetic bacteria and involves only photosystem I. It produces ATP but not NADPH or oxygen. Noncyclic photophosphorylation occurs in all photosynthetic organisms and involves both photosystems I and II. It produces both ATP and NADPH, which are used in the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis to fix carbon dioxide into organic molecules. Oxygen is also produced as a byproduct of noncyclic photophosphorylation.
In summary, both cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation involve photosystems I and II, but only noncyclic photophosphorylation produces NADPH and oxygen. Cyclic photophosphorylation produces ATP but not NADPH or oxygen.

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Serological testing can be used to test each of the following except ______. A. cerebrospinal fluid. B. blood serum. C. skin. D. urine. E. saliva.

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Serological testing can be used to test each of the following except A. cerebrospinal fluid

Serological testing is a type of medical testing that involves the use of blood serum to detect the presence of antibodies or antigens.

Among the options listed, serological testing can be used to test all except one:

A. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is not usually tested using serological testing methods. Instead, other diagnostic tests, such as a lumbar puncture, are used to collect CSF and analyze its composition.

B. Blood serum is commonly tested using serological testing methods to detect the presence of antibodies or antigens related to a particular disease.

C. Skin is not usually tested using serological testing methods. Instead, other diagnostic tests, such as a skin biopsy or culture, are used to diagnose skin conditions.

D. Urine is sometimes tested using serological testing methods, particularly in cases where the infection or disease being tested for is known to affect the urinary system.

E. Saliva can also be tested using serological testing methods, particularly in cases where the infection or disease being tested for is known to affect the mouth or throat.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. cerebrospinal fluid.

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Pla help help science

Answers

Answer: DNA molecule

The large anterior teeth of apes and hominids compared to modern humans make their faces ____________ compared to modern humans.

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The large anterior teeth of apes and hominids, compared to modern humans, make their faces more prognathic (projecting forward) compared to modern humans.

Prognathism refers to the forward projection of the facial skeleton, specifically the lower jaw and teeth. Apes and hominids have larger and more prominent canines and incisors, which project forward and give their faces a more pronounced muzzle-like appearance. In contrast, modern humans have much smaller anterior teeth and a flatter facial profile.

This reduction in facial projection is believed to be related to changes in diet and the development of tool use, which have reduced the selective pressure for strong jaw muscles and powerful biting forces.

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What are the side effects of thyroxin?

Can someone help me with question ASAP please? It’s for a presentation

Answers

Answer:

weight gain or loss.

headache.

vomiting.

diarrhea.

changes in appetite.

fever.

changes in menstrual cycle.

sensitivity to heat.



18. As global emissions of carbon dioxide increase, what's expected to happen in the ocean?

O A. Scientists are unsure how the ocean will be impacted by a rise in carbon dioxide emissions.

O B. The pH will increase due to an increase in carbonic acid.

O C. The pH will decrease due to an increase in carbonic acid.

O D. The pH will remain constant due to the carbonate buffer system.

Answers

As global emissions of carbon dioxide increase, the pH will decrease due to an increase in carbonic acid.

The correct answer is C.

In general , Ocean acidification can have detrimental effects on marine life, as many organisms are sensitive to changes in pH. For example, the shells and skeletons of some marine organisms, such as corals, mollusks, and certain types of plankton, are made of calcium carbonate. When carbon dioxide dissolves in water, it reacts with water molecules to form carbonic acid (H2CO3), which dissociates into bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) and hydrogen ions (H+). That changes pH of the ocean, making it more acidic.

Also, changes in pH can disrupt the balance of the marine food web, as different organisms may be more or less affected by the changing conditions. This can ultimately impact the survival and success of many species.

Hence , C is the correct option

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Within the theory of evolution, a "positive" or favorable trait is one that

Answers

Helps the organism reproduce

One of the earliest conflicts Darwin had with organized religion was over
(a) the age of the earth
(b) his study of animals
(c) his refusal to be a church member
(d) his comparison of humans and animals

Answers

One of the earliest conflicts Darwin had with organized religion was over the age of the earth.

A is the correct answer.

Darwin disagreed with the age of the earth creationists claimed. According to the biblical interpretation in a Christian perspective, carbon dating demonstrates that the earth is significantly older than a creationist's theory.

Thus, Darwin was an atheist in relation to the Christian God but was never truly an atheist in the traditional sense. The God he believed in was now the God of first causes, thus technically speaking, he was more of a deist than a theist during this time, although he continued to identify as a "theist" throughout the 1850s and '60s.

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One of the earliest conflicts that Charles Darwin had with organized religion was over his comparison of humans and animals. The right option is D.

In his book "On the Origin of Species," Darwin proposed the theory of evolution through natural selection, which suggested that humans evolved from animals over time.

This directly contradicted the biblical creation story and sparked a heated debate between the scientific and religious communities.

Many religious leaders viewed Darwin's theory as a threat to the idea of divine creation and argued that humans were fundamentally different from animals.

However, Darwin's work eventually paved the way for modern evolutionary theory and contributed to a better understanding of the natural world.

Despite the initial controversy, his ideas continue to shape scientific research and our understanding of the complex relationship between humans and animals. Therefore, the correct option is D, his comparison of humans and animals.

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Drag each characteristic to the correct category. Viruses do not possess all the characteristics of life. Identify those characteristics that viruses display and those they don't display
made up of one or more cells
has a defined boundary
exhibits growth and development uses energy
possesses internal organization
eliminates waste

Answers

Viruses are acellular particles that consist of a small amount of genetic material (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat.

What are viruses?

Characteristics of life:

Exhibits growth and development

Uses energy

Possesses internal organization

Characteristics not displayed by viruses:

Made up of one or more cells

Has a defined boundary

Eliminates waste

Viruses can replicate themselves and evolve over time, which is a form of growth and development.

We have to note that a virus only lives when it is found in a living tissue and as such does not have the ability to live independently as other organisms can do.

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What would happen to us if we didn’t have white blood cells?

Answers

Answer:

you would get lots of very serious infections

Explanation:

White blood cells can find germs that enter your body and destroy them,

Answer:

If you had no white cells, you would get lots of very serious infections. White blood cells can find germs that enter your body and destroy them, which keeps them from making you sick. Some white blood cells make antibodies, which are special molecules that can stick to germs and make them harmless.

Explanation:

The most severe impact of a nondisjunction event in meiosis I is all _____ are mutant
1. gametes
2. body cells
3. autosomes

Answers

1. gametes

hope this helps!!! :))
Final answer:

Nondisjunction in meiosis I leads to all gametes being mutant. The gametes may have extra or missing chromosomes, leading to genetic disorders in offspring. Such an event does not directly lead to all body cells or autosomes being mutant.

Explanation:

A nondisjunction event in meiosis I refers to the failure of homologous chromosomes, or sister chromatids, to separate properly. The most severe impact of such an event is the resulting mutant gametes. All gametes (option 1) produced from that meiosis would be abnormal. For instance, they might have an extra chromosome (known as trisomy) or be missing a chromosome (known as monosomy). As gametes are cells involved in sexual reproduction (sperms or eggs), this could lead to disorders such as Down Syndrome or Turner Syndrome in the offspring. Unlike body cells or autosomes, which replicate and distribute evenly during meiosis, gametes that are formed as a result of a nondisjunction event possess either an extra chromosome or are deficient by one, hence they are mutant.

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differentiate between the lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle of bacteriophages. what are the strengths and limitations of each?

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Viral agents called bacteriophages reproduce and infect bacterial cells. The lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle are the two primary bacterial phage life cycle types.

In the lytic cycle, a subtype of bacteriophage life cycle, the virus rapidly infects the host cell, duplicates its genetic material, and generates new viral particles, which are ultimately discharged into the environment by lysing, or bursting, the host cell.

The ability to immediately destroy the host cell and the speedy replication and release of viral particles are two of the lytic cycle's advantages for efficient viral dissemination.

On the other hand, the lysogenic cycle is a sort of bacteriophage life cycle in which the virus incorporates its genetic material into the DNA of the host cell, resulting in the emergence of a prophage.

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Which is a muscle on the posterior portion of the upper arm?
O triceps brachii
O trapezius
O gastrocnemius
O deltoid

Answers

Answer:

The muscle on the posterior portion of the upper arm is the triceps brachii. It is a large muscle that runs along the back of the upper arm, from the shoulder to the elbow, and is responsible for extending the elbow joint. The triceps brachii is composed of three heads: the long head, lateral head, and medial head. It is an important muscle for many activities, including pushing, pulling, and lifting.

what term best describes a selection process against those cells whose t cell receptors bind too strongly to self-peptide/mhc combinations?

Answers

(Negative Selection) Autoreactive. Cells with a T cell receptor that can bind MHC class I or II molecules with at least a weak affinity are chosen by positive selection.

This destroys any T cells that wouldn't function because they couldn't bind MHC (a process known as "death by neglect"). Family loyalty. T-cell lineage commitment in hematopoietic tissue. Multiple selection processes, such as positive selection, negative selection, and agonist selection, that take place during the formation of T cells in the thymus work together to select a functional and self-tolerant T cell repertoire. T cells must be able to recognise the antigen-MHC complex in order to be effective in fighting infections and other foreign cells.

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some elephants have very large ears but some elephants have smaller ears.which elephants would be more likely to survive near the equator

Answers

Elephants having larger ears are more likely to survive near the equator.

The ears of an elephant are one-sixth the size of its body. Their ears function as a cooling mechanism. As the warm blood circulates through the vessels of the ear, it cools down. Then the cooler blood circulates back to the body of an elephant helping them reduce the overall temperature of the body.

The size of the elephant's ears is proportional to its geographic distribution. The closer the elephant resides to the equator, the larger the ears allowing more heat to be removed from the body. African elephants have the largest ears and thus they live closest to the equator.

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May someone Help me <3

Answers

The first one,the sixith one and last one I think

The following are some advantages of technology for animal agriculture: more hygienic and compassionate methods. increased livestock fertile. slimmer and stronger animals. crops resistant to insects

What advantages does technology offer to animals?

With all of these technological improvements aimed at protecting animals, scientists and animal conservation organisations are better equipped to carry out their duties of researching and tracking various species, preventing animals from suffering harm, treating animals that have been hurt, and preserving endangered species.

What effects does technology have on food production and agriculture?

Many aspects of agriculture are impacted by technology, including seed technologies, herbicides, and fertilisers. Biotechnology and genetic engineering have produced pest resistance and improved agricultural yields.

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the largest reserve of unincorporated carbon is in

Answers

The largest reserve of unincorporated carbon is found in the Earth's biosphere, which contains an estimated 2,850 gigatons (Gt) of unincorporated carbon.

This carbon is stored in the atmosphere, biosphere, and ocean, and it is constantly being exchanged between these reservoirs. Carbon is released into the atmosphere as a result of both human and natural activities, such as burning fossil fuels, deforestation, and respiration.

In the biosphere, carbon is stored in the form of organic matter, such as plants and other organisms, which are the primary source of food for many animals. Carbon is also stored in the ocean, in the form of dissolved inorganic carbon, which can be absorbed by marine organisms and converted into organic matter.

This unincorporated carbon is an important part of the global carbon cycle, as it helps regulate the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, which in turn affects the climate.

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Other Questions
Which is a motif in "An Occurrence at Owl Creek Bridge" that represents being trapped? the railroad tracks the cannonballs the wooden planks the noose - glycolysis- investment phase: the phosphorylation of glucose is indicated with balls and colors. indicate the molecules in it 2- glycolysis- pay.off phase: indicate the figure for the carrier electrons 3- what process of cellular respiration occurs in the cytoplasm and what processes of cellular respiration occurs in the mitochondria and where in the mitochondria? T/F: Stuttering is a result of language that is learned incorrectly upon acquisition. another capacitor, identical to the original, is added in series to the circuit described in the passage. compared to the original circuit, the equivalent capacitance of the new circuit is: An analyst wanted to forecast exchange between USD/BRL. He collected the following information: Months Inflation-US Inflation-Brazil St(USD/BRL) 2013-09 1.8302% 0.03% 0.6603 2013-10 1.8000% 0.06% 0.6972 a.) Using the PPP model estimate forecast for USD/BRL for November 2013. Also calculate forecast error for the month of November. Now assume that analyst got actual inflation estimates for the month of November from the government publications for the US and Brazil and they are as follows: Months Inflation-US Inflation-Brazil St(USD/BRL) 2013-10 1.8000% 0.06% 0.6972 2013-11 1.5000% 0.02% 0.7090% b.) Using the PPP model estimate forecast for USD/BRL for December 2013. Also calculate forecast error for the month of December. c. Now that you have two forecast errors from ""a"" and ""b"" calculate mean square error for your forecasts. A container in the shape of a rectangular prism has a height of 2 feet. Its length is four times its width. The volume of the container is 200 cubic feet. Find the length and width of the container. A brick has a mass of 2,022.75 grams and a volume of 1,064.5 cubic centimeters.What is the density of the brick, in grams per cubic centimeter () gcm3Round your answer to the nearest tenth. The returns per annum on two securities are denoted by R1 and R2, and are modeled as follows: R1 N (0.1, 0.04) , R2 N (0.05, 0.0016) , Corr(R1, R2) = 0.5 where Corr(R1,R2) denotes the correlation between R1 and R2. (i) Suppose that $1000 are invested in the minimum variance portfolio formed from the two securities. Calculate the composition of the minimum variance portfolio and state how much is invested in each security. stanley is a linux administrator. he wants to copy a directory from one part of the system to another. he is going to issue the command in a shell. he wants the contents of the directory copied as well as the directory itself. what command must stanley use? the maculopapular rash shown in this image is associated with the measles, and is caused by which type of microorganism? decide to seriously evaluate the potential for macro level intervention"" is the first substep in step 1 of the prepare process. true or false St. Vincent's Hospital has a target capital structure of 50 percent debt and the remainder in equity. Its cost of equity (fund capital) estimate is 12.1 percent and its cost of tax-exempt debt estimate is 7 percent. What is the hospital's corporate cost of capital? (Enter your answer as a percentage, omit the "%" sign in your response, and round your answer to 2 decimal places. For example, 0.12345 or 12.345% should be entered as 12.35.) if a federal contractor chooses not to comply with the affirmative action plan established to increase the representation of women and minorities within its workplace, then under e.o. 11246, the federal contractor: group of answer choices cannot be subject to any action for noncompliance as it is not a voluntary affirmative action plan. can be debarred from further participation in government contracts for noncompliance. cannot be subject to any action for noncompliance as it is a federal contractor. can be prohibited from adopting affirmative action plans in the future for noncompliance. when seeking employment, a community health nurse decides to focus the search on official health care agencies, based on the understanding that these agencies are: appears to be a major factor in infants' development of a sense of space independent of their own location. The nurse is caring for a client with liver cirrhosis who was admitted for cellulitis of the leg. Which assessments would the nurse perform to determine if the clients condition has progressed to hepatic encephalopathy ? Which of the following is an example of a relaxation technique?A. Fighting with your sisterB. Procrastinating to study for a testC. Laughing with your friends and familyD. Being late for school The International Fisher equation states that...a) ...domestic inflation rates will tend to equal foreign inflation rates.b) ...domestic real interest rates will tend to equal foreign real interest rates.c) ...the expected exchange rate depreciation of the domestic currency is equal to the future inflation differential (foreign minus domestic inflation).d) ...the difference between the bid-ask spread for an exchange rate is equal to the future inflation differential (foreign minus domestic inflation). In UVW, w = 1. 4 cm, m mW=63 and m mU=29. Find the length of v, to the nearet 10th of a centimeter true or false 9. this technique incorporates both positive and negative staining methods.