Steam at 5 MPa and 400 C enters a nozzle steadily with a velocity of 80 m/s, and it leavesat 2 MPa and 300 C. The inlet area of the nozzle is 50 cm2, and heat is being lost at a rateof 120 kJ/s. Determine the following:
a) the mass flow rateof the steam.
b) the exit velocity of the steam.
c) the exitarea of the nozzle.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

a) the mass flow rate of the steam is  [tex]\mathbf{m_1 =6.92 \ kg/s}[/tex]

b) the exit velocity of the steam  is [tex]\mathbf{V_2 = 562.7 \ m/s}[/tex]

c) the exit area of the nozzle is  [tex]A_2[/tex] = 0.0015435 m²

Explanation:

Given that:

A steam with 5 MPa and 400° C enters a nozzle steadily

So;

Inlet:

[tex]P_1 =[/tex] 5 MPa

[tex]T_1[/tex] = 400° C

Velocity V = 80 m/s

Exit:

[tex]P_2 =[/tex] 2 MPa

[tex]T_2[/tex] = 300° C

From the properties of steam tables  at [tex]P_1 =[/tex] 5 MPa and [tex]T_1[/tex] = 400° C we obtain the following properties for enthalpy h and the speed v

[tex]h_1 = 3196.7 \ kJ/kg \\ \\ v_1 = 0.057838 \ m^3/kg[/tex]

From the properties of steam tables  at [tex]P_2 =[/tex] 2 MPa and [tex]T_1[/tex] = 300° C we obtain the following properties for enthalpy h and the speed v

[tex]h_2 = 3024.2 \ kJ/kg \\ \\ v_2= 0.12551 \ m^3/kg[/tex]

Inlet Area of the nozzle = 50 cm²

Heat lost Q = 120 kJ/s

We are to determine the following:

a) the mass flow rate of the steam.

From the system in a steady flow state;

[tex]m_1=m_2=m_3[/tex]

Thus

[tex]m_1 =\dfrac{V_1 \times A_1}{v_1}[/tex]

[tex]m_1 =\dfrac{80 \ m/s \times 50 \times 10 ^{-4} \ m^2}{0.057838 \ m^3/kg}[/tex]

[tex]m_1 =\dfrac{0.4 }{0.057838 }[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{m_1 =6.92 \ kg/s}[/tex]

b) the exit velocity of the steam.

Using Energy Balance equation:

[tex]\Delta E _{system} = E_{in}-E_{out}[/tex]

In a steady flow process;

[tex]\Delta E _{system} = 0[/tex]

[tex]E_{in} = E_{out}[/tex]

[tex]m(h_1 + \dfrac{V_1^2}{2})[/tex] [tex]= Q_{out} + m (h_2 + \dfrac{V_2^2}{2})[/tex]

[tex]- Q_{out} = m (h_2 - h_1 + \dfrac{V_2^2-V^2_1}{2})[/tex]

[tex]- 120 kJ/s = 6.92 \ kg/s (3024.2 -3196.7 + \dfrac{V_2^2- 80 m/s^2}{2}) \times (\dfrac{1 \ kJ/kg}{1000 \ m^2/s^2})[/tex]

[tex]- 120 kJ/s = 6.92 \ kg/s (-172.5 + \dfrac{V_2^2- 80 m/s^2}{2}) \times (\dfrac{1 \ kJ/kg}{1000 \ m^2/s^2})[/tex]

[tex]- 120 kJ/s = (-1193.7 \ kg/s + 6.92\ kg/s ( \dfrac{V_2^2- 80 m/s^2}{2}) \times (\dfrac{1 \ kJ/kg}{1000 \ m^2/s^2})[/tex]

[tex]V_2^2 = 316631.29 \ m/s[/tex]

[tex]V_2 = \sqrt{316631.29 \ m/s[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{V_2 = 562.7 \ m/s}[/tex]

c) the exit area of the nozzle.

The exit of the nozzle can be determined by using the expression:

[tex]m = \dfrac{V_2A_2}{v_2}[/tex]

making [tex]A_2[/tex] the subject of the formula ; we have:

[tex]A_2 = \dfrac{ m \times v_2}{V_2}[/tex]

[tex]A_2 = \dfrac{ 6.92 \times 0.12551}{562.7}[/tex]

[tex]A_2[/tex] = 0.0015435 m²


Related Questions

Compute the volume percent of graphite, VGr, in a 3.2 wt% C cast iron, assuming that all the carbon exists as the graphite phase. Assume densities of 7.9 and 2.3 g/cm3 for ferrite and graphite, respectively.

Answers

Answer:

The volume percentage of graphite is 10.197 per cent.

Explanation:

The volume percent of graphite is the ratio of the volume occupied by the graphite phase to the volume occupied by the graphite and ferrite phases. The weight percent in the cast iron is 3.2 wt% (graphite) and 96.8 wt% (ferrite). The volume percentage of graphite is:

[tex]\%V_{gr} = \frac{V_{gr}}{V_{gr}+V_{fe}} \times 100\,\%[/tex]

Where:

[tex]V_{gr}[/tex] - Volume occupied by the graphite phase, measured in cubic centimeters.

[tex]V_{fe}[/tex] - Volume occupied by the graphite phase, measured in cubic centimeters.

The expression is expanded by using the definition of density and subsequently simplified:

[tex]\%V_{gr} = \frac{\frac{m_{gr}}{\rho_{gr}} }{\frac{m_{gr}}{\rho_{gr}}+\frac{m_{fe}}{\rho_{fe}}}\times 100\,\%[/tex]

Where:

[tex]m_{fe}[/tex], [tex]m_{gr}[/tex] - Masses of the ferrite and graphite phases, measured in grams.

[tex]\rho_{fe}, \rho_{gr}[/tex] - Densities of the ferrite and graphite phases, measured in grams per cubic centimeter.

[tex]\%V_{gr} = \frac{1}{1+\frac{\frac{m_{fe}}{\rho_{fe}} }{\frac{m_{gr}}{\rho_{gr}} } }\times 100\,\%[/tex]

[tex]\%V_{gr} = \frac{1}{1 + \left(\frac{\rho_{gr}}{\rho_{fe}} \right)\cdot\left(\frac{m_{fe}}{m_{gr}} \right)} \times 100\,\%[/tex]

If [tex]\rho_{gr} = 2.3\,\frac{g}{cm^{3}}[/tex], [tex]\rho_{fe} = 7.9\,\frac{g}{cm^{3}}[/tex], [tex]m_{gr} = 3.2\,g[/tex] and [tex]m_{fe} = 96.8\,g[/tex], the volume percentage of graphite is:

[tex]\%V_{gr} = \frac{1}{1+\left(\frac{2.3\,\frac{g}{cm^{3}} }{7.9\,\frac{g}{cm^{3}} } \right)\cdot \left(\frac{96.8\,g}{3.2\,g} \right)} \times 100\,\%[/tex]

[tex]\%V_{gr} = 10.197\,\%V[/tex]

The volume percentage of graphite is 10.197 per cent.

Following are the solution to the given points:

[tex]\to C_{Gr} = 100\\\\ \to C_{\alpha}= 0[/tex]From [tex]Fe-F_{\frac{e}{3}} c[/tex] diagram.  

[tex]\to W_{\alpha} =\frac{C_{Gr}-C_{o}}{C_{Gr}-C_{\alpha}}[/tex]

           [tex]= \frac{100-3.6}{100-0} \\\\= \frac{100-3.6}{100} \\\\= \frac{96.4}{100} \\\\=0.964[/tex]

Calculating the weight fraction of graphite:  

[tex]\to W_{Gr}=\frac{C_0 - c_d}{C_{Gr} -c_d}[/tex]

            [tex]= \frac{3.6-0}{100-0} \\\\ = \frac{3.6}{100} \\\\= 0.036[/tex]

Calculating the volume percent of graphite:

[tex]\to V_{Gr}=\frac{\frac{W_{Gr}}{P_{Gr}}}{\frac{w_{\alpha}}{P_{\alpha}}+ \frac{W_{Gr}}{P_{Gr}}}[/tex]

           [tex]=\frac{\frac{0.036}{2.3}}{\frac{0.964}{7.9}+\frac{0.036}{2.3}}\\\\=0.11368 \times 100\%\\\\=11.368\%[/tex]

Therefore, the final answer is "0.964, 0.036, and 11.368%"

Learn more Graphite:

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By saying that the electrostatic field is conservative, we do not mean that:_______ The potential difference between any two points is zero. It is the gradient of scalar potential. Its circulation is identically zero along any path. Its curl is identically zero everywhere. The work done in moving a charge along closed path inside the field is zero.

Answers

Answer:

(a) The potential difference between any two points is zero.

Explanation:

A conservative field is;

i. a vector field that is the gradient of some function. Electrostatic field is the gradient of scalar potential, hence it is conservative.

ii. a vector field where the integral along every closed path is zero. This means that the work done in a closed cycle is zero. For an electrostatic field, the charge along closed path inside the field is zero. Hence, electrostatic field is conservative.

iii. a vector field if curl of its potential(vector product of the del operator and the potential) is zero. The curl of electrostatic field is identically zero everywhere.

iv. a vector field whose circulation is zero along any path.

v. a vector field whose potential difference between two points is independent of the path taken. The potential difference between any two points is not necessarily zero.

Other examples of conservative fields are;

i. gravitational field.

ii. magnetic field.

When we say that electrostatic field is conservative, we do not mean that the potential difference between any two points is zero.

What is a conservative field?

A conservative field refers to a form of force between the Earth and another mass whose work is determined only by the final displacement of the object acted upon.

What we mean by saying an electrostatic field is conservative includes:

It is the gradient of scalar potentialIts circulation is identically zero along any pathIts curl is identically zero everywhereThe work done in moving a charge along closed path inside the field is zero.

Hence, when we say that electrostatic field is conservative, we do not mean that the potential difference between any two points is zero.

Therefore, the Option A is correct.

Read more about conservative field

brainly.com/question/10712927

When the value of the output cannot be determined even if the value of the controllable input is known, the model is:_________

a. analog.
b. digital.
c. stochastic.
d. deterministic.

Answers

Answer:

c. stochastic.

Explanation:

A stochastic model is a tool in statistics, used to estimate the probability distributions of intended outcomes by the allowance of random variation in any number of the inputs over time. For a stochastic model, Inputs to a quantitative model are uncertain, and the value of the output from a stochastic model cannot be easily determined, even if the value of the input that can be determined is known. The distributions of the resulting outcomes of a stochastic model is usually due to the large number of simulations involved, and it is widely used as a statistical tool in the life sciences.

An AX ceramic compound has the rock salt crystal structure. If the radii of the A and X ions are 0.137 and 0.241 nm, respectively, and the respective atomic weights are 22.7 and 91.4 g/mol, what is the density (in g/cm3) of this material?
A. 0.438g/cm3
B. 0. 571g/cm3
C. 1.75g/cm3
D. 3.50g/cm3

Answers

Answer:

c) 1.75 g/cm³

Explanation:

Given that

Radii of the A ion, r(c) = 0.137 nm

Radii of the X ion, r(a) = 0.241 nm

Atomic weight of the A ion, A(c) = 22.7 g/mol

Atomic weight of the X ion, A(a) = 91.4 g/mol

Avogadro's number, N = 6.02*10^23 per mol

Solution is attached below

Commutation is the process of converting the ac voltages and currents in the rotor of a dc machine to dc voltages and currents at its terminals. True False

Answers

Answer:

false

Explanation:

the changing of a prisoner sentence or another penalty to another less severe

Anytime scaffolds are assembled or __________, a competent person must oversee the operation.

a. Drawn
b. Disassembled
c. Thought
d. Made

Answers

B because of health and safety regulations

When scaffolds are now being construct or deconstruct, a competent person must supervise the work and train everybody who'll be assisting, and the further discussion can be defined as follows:

The competent person is also responsible for proposing whether fall protection is required for each scaffold erected. In constructing a scaffold, there are specific criteria for the ground the scaffold is constructed. On the products and components used to build the scaffold, its height in relation to the foundation. It's platform's design, and whether or not high efficiency is needed to supervise the installation.

Therefore, the final answer is "Option B".

Learn more:

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. The job of applications engineer for which Maria was applying requires (a) excellent technical skills with respect to mechanical engineering, (b) a commitment to working in the area of pollution control, (c) the ability to deal well and confidently with customers who have engineering problems, (d) a willingness to travel worldwide, and (e) a very intelligent and well-balanced personality. List 10 questions you would ask when interviewing applicants for the job.

Answers

Answer:

Tell us about your self Are your confident that you are the right candidate for this positionwhy should i hire youDo you like working under supervisionHow do you like to work ( in a group or individually )What is your ultimate workplace goalwhat are your future plansWhat do you expect from the Organization when given the jobDo you like taking on critical problemsHow long can you work in this position

Explanation:

For a job of applications engineer which require excellent technical skills, commitment  to working , ability to deal well and confidently with customers a willingness to travel and very intelligent and well-balanced personality.

The ten questions you should ask Maria to determine if she is qualified for the job are :

Tell us about your self ( functions you have )Are your confident that you are the right candidate for this positionwhy should i hire youDo you like working under supervisionHow do you like to work ( in a group or individually )What is your ultimate workplace goalwhat are your future plansWhat do you expect from the Organization when given the jobDo you like taking on critical problemsHow long can you work in this position

For a fluid flowing through a pipe assuming that pressure drop per unit length of pipe (P/L) depends on the diameter of the pipe , the velocity of fluid, the density of fluid and the viscosity of the fluid. Show that = ∅ ൬ ൰

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

La vaca

El pato

Air enters the first compressor stage of a cold-air standard Brayton cycle with regeneration and intercooling at 100 kPa, 300 K, with a mass flow rate of 6 kg/s. The overall compressor pressure ratio is 10, and the pressure ratios are the same across each compressor stage. The temperature at the inlet to the second compressor stage is 300 K. The turbine inlet temperature is 1400 K. The compressor stages and turbine each have isentropic efficiencies of 80% and the regenerator effectiveness is 80%. For k = 1.4, calculate:
a. the thermal efficiency of the cycle
b. the back work ratio
c. the net power developed, in kW
d. the rates of exergy destruction in each compressor stage and the turbine stage as well as the regenerator, in kW, for T 0 = 300 K.

Answers

Answer:

a. [tex]\eta _{th}[/tex] = 77.65%

b. bwr = 6.5%

c. 3538.986 kW

d. -163.169 kJ

Explanation:

a. The given property  are;

P₂/P₁ = 10, P₂ = 10 * 100 kPa = 1000 kPa

p₄/p₁ = 10

P₂/P₁ = p₄/p₃ = √10

p₂ = 100·√10

[tex]T_{2s}[/tex] = T₁×(√10)^(0.4/1.4) = 300 × (√10)^(0.4/1.4) = 416.85 K

T₂ = T₁ + ([tex]T_{2s}[/tex] - T₁)/[tex]\eta _c[/tex] = 300 + (416.85 - 300)/0.8 = 446.0625 K

p₄ = 10×p₁ = 10×100 = 1000 kPa

p₄/p₃ = √10 =

p₃ = 100·√10

T₃ = 300 K

T₃/[tex]T_{4s}[/tex] = (P₂/P₁)^((k - 1)/k) = (√10)^(0.4/1.4)

[tex]T_{4s}[/tex] = T₃/((√10)^(0.4/1.4) ) = 300/((√10)^(0.4/1.4)) = 215.905 K

T₄ = T₃ + ([tex]T_{4s}[/tex] - T₃)/[tex]\eta _c[/tex] = 300 + (215.905- 300)/0.8 = 194.881 K

The efficiency = 1 - (T₄ - T₁)/(T₃ - T₂) = 1 - (194.881 -300)/(300 -446.0625 ) = 0.28

T₄ = 446.0625 K

T₆ = 1400 K

[tex]T_{7s}[/tex]/T₆ = (1/√10)^(0.4/1.4)

[tex]T_{7s}[/tex] = 1400×(1/√10)^(0.4/1.4)  = 1007.6 K

T₇ = T₆ - [tex]\eta _t[/tex](T₆ - [tex]T_{7s}[/tex]) = 1400 - 0.8*(1400 - 1007.6) = 1086.08 K

T₈ = 1400 K

T₉ = 1086.08 K

T₅ = T₄ + [tex]\epsilon _{regen}[/tex](T₉ - T₄) = 446.0625 +0.8*(1086.08 - 446.0625) = 958.0765 K

[tex]\eta _{th}[/tex] =(((T₆ - T₇) + (T₈ - T₉)) -((T₂ - T₁) + (T₄ - T₃)))/((T₆ - T₅) + (T₈ - T₇))

(((1400 - 1086.08) + (1400 -1086.08 ))-((446.0625 - 300)+(194.881 - 300)))/((1400 -958.0765 ) + (1400 -1086.08 )) = 0.7765

[tex]\eta _{th}[/tex] = 77.65%

b. Back work ratio, bwr = [tex]bwr = \dfrac{w_{c,in}}{w_{t,out}}[/tex]

((446.0625 - 300)+(194.881 - 300))/((1400 - 1086.08) + (1400 -1086.08 ))

40.9435/627.84 = 6.5%

c. [tex]w_{net, out} = c_p[(T_6 -T_7) + (T_8 - T_9)] - [(T_2 - T_1) + (T_4 -T_3)][/tex]

Power developed is given by the relation;

[tex]\dot m \cdot w_{net, out}[/tex]

[tex]\dot m \cdot w_{net, out}[/tex]= 6*1.005*(((1400 - 1086.08) + (1400 -1086.08 ))-((446.0625 - 300)+(194.881 - 300))) = 3538.986 kW

d. Exergy destruction = 6*(1.005*(300-446.0625 ) - 300*1.005*(-0.3966766)

-163.169 kJ

Determine whether or not it is possible to cold work steel so as to give a minimum Brinell hardness of 225 and at the same time have a ductility of at least 12%EL. Justify your decision

Answers

Answer:

First we determine the tensile strength using the equation;

Tₓ (MPa) = 3.45 × HB

{ Tₓ is tensile strength, HB is Brinell hardness = 225 }

therefore

Tₓ = 3.45 × 225

Tₓ = 775 Mpa

From Conclusions, It is stated that in order to achieve a tensile strength of 775 MPa for a steel, the percentage of the cold work should be 10

When the percentage of cold work for steel is up to 10,the ductility is 16% EL.

And 16% EL is greater than 12% EL

Therefore, it is possible to cold work steel to a given minimum Brinell hardness of 225 and at the same time a ductility of at least 12% EL

Calculate the camacitance-to-neutral in F/m and the admittance-to-neutral in S/km for the three-phase line in problem Neglect the effect of the earth plane.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is given below

Explanation:

A 60 Hz three-phase, three-wire overhead line has solid cylindrical conductors  arranged in the form of an equilateral triangle with 4 ft conductor spacing. Conductor  diameter is 0.5 in.

Given that:

The spacing between the conductors (D) = 4 ft

1 ft = 0.3048 m

D = 4 ft = 4 × 0.3048 m = 1.2192 m

The conductor diameter = 0.5 in

Radius of conductor (r) = 0.5/2 = 0.25 in = 0.00635 m

Frequency (f) = 60 Hz

The capacitance-to-neutral is given by:

[tex]C_n=\frac{2\pi \epsilon_0}{ln(\frac{D}{r} )} =\frac{2\pi *8.854*10^{-12}}{ln(1.2192/0.00635)}=1.058*10^{-11}\ F/m[/tex]

The admittance-to-neutral is given by:

[tex]Y_n=j2\pi fC_n=j*2\pi *60*1.058*10^{-11}*\frac{1000\ m}{1\ km}=j3.989*10^{-6}\ S/km[/tex]

If the contact surface between the 20-kg block and the ground is smooth, determine the power of force F when t = 4 s. Initially, the block is at rest

Answers

Answer:

115.2 W

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

As we know that

Power = F . v

[tex]F_H = F cos \theta[/tex]

[tex]F_H = 30 \frac{4}{5}[/tex]

[tex]F_H = 24N[/tex]

Now we solve for V

[tex]V = V_0 + at[/tex]            a = 24N ÷ 20Kg

But V_0 = 0          a = 1.2 m/s^2

F_H = ma             V = 0 + (1.2) (4)

a = F_H ÷ m        V = 4.8 m/s

Therefore

Power = F_Hv

= (24) (4.8)

= 115.2 W

By applying the above formuals we can get the power

Air enters the compressor of an ideal cold air-standard Brayton cycle at 100 kPa, 300 K, with a mass flow rate of 6 kg/s. The compressor pressure ratio is 10, and the turbine inlet temperature is 1400 K. For k 5 1.4, calculate (a) the thermal efficiency of the cycle. (b) the back work ratio. (c) the net power developed, in kW.

Answers

Answer:

(a) 48.2 %

(b) 0.4137

(c) 2385.9 kW

Explanation:

The given values are:

Initial pressure,

p₁ = 100 kPa

Initial temperature,

T₁ = 300 K

Mass,

M = 6 kg/s

Pressure ration,

r = 10

Inlent temperature,

T₃ = 1400 K

Specific heat ratio,

k = 1.4

At T₁ and p₁,

⇒  [tex]c_{p}=1.005 \ KJ/Kg.K[/tex]

Process 1-2 in isentropic compression, we get

⇒  [tex]\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}}=(\frac{p_{2}}{p_{1}})^{\frac{k-1}{k}}[/tex]

    [tex]T_{2}=(\frac{p_{2}}{p_{1}})^{\frac{k-1}{k}}. T_{1}[/tex]

On putting the estimated values, we get

         [tex]=(10)^{\frac{1.4-1}{1.4}}(300)[/tex]

         [tex]=579.2 \ K[/tex]

Process 3-4,

⇒  [tex]\frac{T_{4}}{T_{3}}=(\frac{p_{4}}{p_{3}})^{\frac{k-1}{k}}[/tex]

    [tex]T_{4}=(\frac{1}{10})^{\frac{1.4-1}{1.4}}(1400)[/tex]

         [tex]=725.13 \ K[/tex]

(a)...

The thermal efficiency will be:

⇒  [tex]\eta =\frac{\dot{W_{t}}-\dot{W_{e}}}{\dot{Q_{in}}}[/tex]

    [tex]\eta=1-\frac{\dot{Q_{out}}}{\dot{Q_{in}}}[/tex]

⇒  [tex]\dot{Q_{in}}=\dot{m}(h_{1}-h_{2})[/tex]

           [tex]=\dot{mc_{p}}(T_{3}-T_{2})[/tex]

           [tex]=6\times 1005\times (1400-579.2)[/tex]

           [tex]=4949.4 \ kJ/s[/tex]

⇒  [tex]\dot{Q_{out}}=\dot{m}(h_{4}-h_{1})[/tex]

             [tex]=6\times 1.005\times (725.13-300)[/tex]

             [tex]=2563.5 \ KJ/S[/tex]

As we know,

⇒  [tex]\eta=1-\frac{\dot{Q_{out}}}{\dot{Q_{in}}}[/tex]

On putting the values, we get

       [tex]=1-\frac{2563.5}{4949.4}[/tex]

       [tex]=0.482 \ i.e., \ 48.2 \ Percent[/tex]

(b)...

Back work ratio will be:

⇒  [tex]bwr=\frac{\dot{W_{e}}}{\dot{W_{t}}}[/tex]

Now,

⇒  [tex]\dot{W_{e}}=\dot{mc_{p}}(T_{2}-T_{1})[/tex]

On putting values, we get

          [tex]=6\times 1.005\times (579.2-300)[/tex]

          [tex]=1683.6 \ kJ/s[/tex]

⇒  [tex]\dot{W_{t}}=\dot{mc_{p}}(T_{3}-T_{4})[/tex]

          [tex]=6\times 1.005\times (1400-725.13)[/tex]

          [tex]=4069.5 \ kJ/s[/tex]

So that,

⇒  [tex]bwr=\frac{1683.6}{4069.5}=0.4137[/tex]

(c)...

Net power is equivalent to,

⇒  [tex]\dot{W}_{eyele}=\dot{W_{t}}-\dot{W_{e}}[/tex]

On substituting the values, we get

               [tex]= 4069.5-1683.6[/tex]

               [tex]=2385.9 \ kW[/tex]

Following are the solution to the  given points:

Given :  

Initial pressure [tex]p_1 = 100\ kPa \\\\[/tex]

Initial temperature [tex]T_1 = 300\ K \\\\[/tex]

Mass flow rate of air [tex]m= 6\ \frac{kg}{s}\\\\[/tex]  

Compressor pressure ratio [tex]r =10\\\\[/tex]

Turbine inlet temperature [tex]T_3 = 1400\ K\\\\[/tex]

Specific heat ratio [tex]k=1.4\\\\[/tex]

Temperature [tex]\ T_1 = 300\ K[/tex]

pressure [tex]p_1 = 100\ kPa\\\\[/tex]

[tex]\to c_p=1.005\ \frac{kJ}{kg\cdot K}\\\\[/tex]

Process 1-2 is isen tropic compression  

[tex]\to \frac{T_2}{T_1}=(\frac{P_2}{P_1})^{\frac{k-1}{k}} \\\\[/tex]

[tex]\to T_2=(\frac{P_2}{P_1})^{\frac{k-1}{k}} \ T_1 \\\\[/tex]

         [tex]=(10)^{\frac{1.4-1}{1.4}} (300)\\\\ =(10)^{\frac{0.4}{1.4}} (300) \\\\[/tex]

[tex]\to T_2 = 579.2\ K \\\\[/tex]

Process 3-4 is isen tropic expansion  

[tex]\to \frac{T_4}{T_3}=(\frac{P_4}{P_3})^{\frac{k-1}{k}}\\\\ \to T_4=(\frac{1}{10})^{\frac{1.4-1}{1.4}} (1400)\\\\\to T_4= 725.13\ K \\\\[/tex]

For point a:

The thermal efficiency of the cycle:

[tex]\to \eta = \frac{W_i-W_e}{Q_{in}} \\\\\to \eta = \frac{Q_{in}- Q_{out}}{Q_{in}}\\\\\to \eta =1 - \frac{Q_{out}}{Q_{in}} \\\\\to Q_{in}= m(h_3-h_1) = mc_p (T_4-T_1) =(6)(1.005)(725.13-300) = 2563 \ \frac{kJ}{S}\\\\\to \eta =1- \frac{Q_{out}}{Q_{in}}\\\\[/tex]

       [tex]=1-\frac{2563.5}{4949.4}\\\\ = 0.482\\\\[/tex]

 [tex]\eta = 48.2\%\\\\[/tex]

  For point b:  

The back work ratio  

[tex]\to bwr =\frac{W_e}{W_t}[/tex]

Now

[tex]\to W_e =mc_p (T_2 -T_1)[/tex]

          [tex]=(6) (1.005)(579.2 -300)\\\\ =1683.6 \ \frac{kJ}{S}\\\\[/tex]

[tex]\to W_t=mc_p(T_3-T_4)[/tex]

         [tex]=(6)(1.005)(1400 - 725.13)\\\\ = 4069.5 \frac{KJ}{s}[/tex]

[tex]\to bwr =\frac{W_s}{W_t}= \frac{1683.6}{4069.5}=0.4137[/tex]

   For point c:

The net power developed is equal to

 [tex]\to W_{cycle} = W_t-W_e \\\\[/tex]

                [tex]= ( 4069.5-1683.6)\\\\ = 2385.9 \ kW\\[/tex]

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The closed feedwater heater of a regenerative Rankine cycle is to heat 7000 kPa feedwater from 2608C to a saturated liquid. The turbine supplies bleed steam at 6000 kPa and 3258C to this unit. This steam is condensed to a saturated liquid before entering the pump. Calculate the amount of bleed steam required to heat 1 kg of feedwater in this unit.

Answers

Answer:

the amount of bleed steam required to heat 1 kg of feedwater in this unit is 0.078 kg/s

Explanation:

Given that:

Pressure of the feed water = 7000 kPa

Temperature of the closed feedwater heater = 260 ° C

Pressure of of the turbine = 6000 kPa

Temperature of the turbine = 325 ° C

The  objective is to calculate the amount of bleed steam required to heat 1 kg of feedwater in this unit.

From the table A-4 of saturated water temperature table at temperature  260° C at state 1 ;

Enthalpies:

[tex]h_1 = h_f = 1134.8 \ kJ/kg[/tex]

From table A-6 superheated water at state 3 ; the value of the enthalpy relating to the pressure of the turbine at 6000 kPa and temperature of 325° C  is obtained by the interpolating the temperature between 300 ° C and 350 ° C

At 300° C; enthalpy = 2885.6 kJ/kg

At 325° C. enthalpy = 3043.9 kJ/kg

Thus;

[tex]\dfrac{325-300}{350-300}=\dfrac{h_{325^0}-{h_{300^0}}}{{h_{350^0}}- {h_{300^0}}}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{325-300}{350-300}=\dfrac{h_{325^0}-2885.6}{3043.9-2885.6 }}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{25}{50}=\dfrac{h_{325^0}-2885.6}{3043.9-2885.6 }}[/tex]

[tex]h_{325^0} = 2885.6 + \dfrac{25}{50}({3043.9-2885.6 )[/tex]

[tex]h_{325^0} = 2885.6 + 0.5({3043.9-2885.6 )[/tex]

[tex]h_{325^0} =2964.75 \ kJ/kg[/tex]

At pressure  of 7000 kPa at state 6; we obtain the enthalpies corresponding to the pressure at table A-5 of the saturated water pressure tables.

[tex]h_6 = h_f = 1267.5 \ kJ/kg[/tex]

From state 4 ;we obtain the specific volume corresponding to the pressure of 6000 kPa at table A-5 of the saturated water pressure tables.

[tex]v_4 = v_f = 0.001319\ m^3 /kg[/tex]

However; the specific work pump can be determined by using the formula;

[tex]W_p = v_4 (P_5-P_4)[/tex]

where;

[tex]P_4[/tex] = pressure at state 4

[tex]P_5[/tex] = pressure at state 5

[tex]W_p = 0.001319 (7000-6000)[/tex]

[tex]W_p = 0.001319 (1000)[/tex]

[tex]W_p =1.319 \ kJ/kg[/tex]

Using the energy balance equation of the closed feedwater heater to calculate the amount of bleed steam required to heat 1 kg of feed water ; we have:

[tex]E_{in} = E_{out} \\ \\ m_1h_1 +m_3h_3 + m_3W_p = (m_1+m_3)h_6[/tex]

where;

[tex]m_1 = 1 \ kg[/tex]

Replacing our other value as derived above into the energy balance equation ; we have:

[tex]1 \times 1134.8 +m_3 \times 2964.75 + m_3 \times 1.319 = (1+m_3)\times 1267.5[/tex]

[tex]1134.8 + 2966.069 \ m_3 = 1267.5 + 1267.5m_3[/tex]

Collect like terms

[tex]2966.069 \ m_3- 1267.5m_3 = 1267.5-1134.8[/tex]

[tex]1698.569 \ m_3 =132.7[/tex]

[tex]\ m_3 = \dfrac{132.7}{1698.569}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{ m_3 = 0.078 \ kg/s}[/tex]

Hence; the amount of bleed steam required to heat 1 kg of feedwater in this unit is 0.078 kg/s

An example of a transient analysis involving the 1st law of thermodynamics and conservation of mass is the filling of a compressed air tank. Assume that an air tank is being filled using a compressor to a pressure of 5 atm, and that it is being fed with air at a temperature of 25°C and 1 atm pressure. The compression process is adiabatic. Will the temperature of the air in the tank when it is done being filled i.e. once the pressure in the tank reaches 5 atm), be greater than, equal to, or less that the temperature of the 25°C air feeding the compressor?
A. Greater than 25°C
B. Unable to determine
C. Same as 25°C
D. Less than 25°C

Answers

Answer:

The temperature will be greater than 25°C

Explanation:

In an adiabatic process, heat is not transferred to or from the boundary of the system. The gain or loss of internal heat energy is solely from the work done on the system, or work done by the system. The work done on the system by the environment adds heat to the system, and work done by the system on its environment takes away heat from the system.

mathematically

Change in the internal energy of a system ΔU = ΔQ + ΔW

in an adiabatic process, ΔQ = 0

therefore

ΔU = ΔW

where ΔQ is the change in heat into the system

ΔW is the work done by or done on the system

when work is done on the system, it is conventionally negative, and vice versa.

also W = pΔv

where p is the pressure, and

Δv = change in volume of the system.

In this case, work is done on the gas by compressing it from an initial volume to the new volume of the cylinder. The result is that the temperature of the gas will rise above the initial temperature of 25°C

After impact testing a sample at -100oC you realize that the fracture surface is very dull and fibrous. Is the sample behaving in a ductile of brittle manner at this temperature

Answers

Answer:

Ductile

Explanation:

So, from the question, we have the following information or parameters or data which is going to help us in solving this particular problem or question;

=> " impact testing a sample = -100oC shows that the fracture surface is very DULL AND FIBROUS"

TAKE NOTE: DULL AND FIBROUS.

IMPACT TESTING is used by engineers in the configuration of a sample or object.

In order to determine whether a specimen is ductile or brittle, it can be shown from its appearance for instance;

A DUCTILE SAMPLE will be DULL AND FIBROUS thus, our answer!

But a brittle sample will have a crystal shape.

why is the peak value of the rectified output less than the peak value of the ac input and by how much g

Answers

Answer:

The Peak value of the output voltage is less or lower than that of the peak value of the input voltage by 0.6V reason been that the voltage is tend to drop across the diode.

Explanation:

This is what we called HALF WAVE RECTIFIER in which the Peak value of the output voltage is less or lower than that of the peak value of the input voltage by 0.6V reason been that the voltage is tend to drop across the diode.

Therefore this is the formula for Half wave rectifier

Vrms = Vm/2 and Vdc

= Vm/π:

Where,

Vrms = rms value of input

Vdc = Average value of input

Vm = peak value of output

Hence, half wave rectifier is a rectifier which allows one half-cycle of an AC voltage waveform to pass which inturn block the other half-cycle which is why this type of rectifiers are often been used to help convert AC voltage to a DC voltage, because they only require a single diode to inorder to construct.

Consider a double-pipe counter-flow heat exchanger. In order to enhance its heat transfer, the length of the heat exchanger is doubled. Will the effectiveness of the exchanger double?

Answers

Answer:

effectiveness of the heat exchanger will not be double when the length of the heat exchanger is doubled.

Because effectiveness depends on NTU and not necessarily the length of the heat exchanger

The temperature of water is 45 what does the measurement represent

Answers

Answer:

degree of hotness of coldness of a substance

The column is constructed from high-strength concrete and eight A992 steel reinforcing bars. If the column is subjected to an axial force of 200 kip.
a) Determine the average normal stress in the concrete and in each bar. Each bar has a diameter of 1 in.
b) Determine the required diameter of each bar so that 60% of the axial force is carried by concrete.

Answers

Answer:

d= 2.80inch

Explanation:

Given:

Axial force= 30kip

d= 1inch

CHECK THE ATTACHMENT FOR DETAILED EXPLANATION

A) The average normal stress in the concrete and in each bar are; σ_st = 15.52 kpi ; σ_con = 2.25 kpi

B) The required diameter of each bar so that 60% of the axial force is carried by concrete is; 0.94 inches

Concrete Column Design

We are told that;

Column has eight A992 steel reinforcing bars.

Column is subjected to an axial force of 200 kip.

A) Diameter of each bar is 1 inch.

Using equations of equilibrium, we have;

∑fy = 0;

8P_st + P_con = 200      ------(eq 1)

Using compatibility concept, we know from the image attached that;

δ_st = δ_con

where δ_st is change in length of steel and δ_con is change in length of concrete.

Thus;

δ_st = (P_st * L)/(A_st * E_st)

where;

P_st is tensile force of steel

L is length of steel = 3 ft = 36 inches

A_st is area of steel = π/4 * 1² = 0.7854 in²

E_st is young's modulus of steel = 29000 ksi

Similarly;

δ_con = (P_con * L)/(A_con * E_con)

where;

P_con is tensile force of concrete

L is length of concrete = 3 ft = 36 inches

E_con is young's modulus of concrete = 4200 ksi

A_con is area of concrete with diameter of 8 inches = (π/4 * 8²) - 6(π/4 * 1²) = 45.5531 in²

Thus;

From δ_st = δ_con;

(P_st * 36)/(0.7854 * 29000) = (P_con * 36)/(45.5531 * 4200)

Solving this gives;

P_st = 0.119P_con    -----(eq 2)

Put 0.119P_con for P_st in eq 1 to get;

8(0.119P_con) + P_con = 200  

1.952P_con = 200

P_con = 102.459 kip

Thus; P_st = 12.193 kip

Thus, average normal stress is;

Steel; σ_st = P_st/A_st

σ_st = 12.193/0.7854

σ_st = 15.52 kpi

Concrete; σ_con = P_con/A_con

σ_con = 102.459/45.5531

σ_con = 2.25 kpi

B) Since 60% of the axial force is carried by the concrete. Then it means that 40% will be carried by the steel.

Thus;

P_con = 60% * 200 = 120 kip

P_st = 40% * 200 = 80 kip

Using compatibility again;

δ_st = δ_con

Thus;

(P_st * L)/(A_st * E_st) = (P_con * L)/(A_con * E_con)

6(π/4 * d²)) = (80 * ((π/4 * 8²) - 6(π/4 * d²)) * 4200)/(120 * 29000)

⇒ 4.712d² = 0.09655(50.2655 - 4.712d²)

⇒ 4.712d²/0.09655 = 50.2655 - 4.712d²

⇒ 48.8037d² = 50.2655 - 4.712d²

Solving this gives;

d = 0.94 inches

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Before you attempt to change a tire yourself, you should _____.
A. put on a pair of gloves
B. read your vehicle owner's manual for any special directions or warnings.
C. always call for emergency assistance first
D. let the remaining air out of the flat tire

Answers

Answer: read your vehicle owner's manual for any special directions or warnings.

Answer:

B. read your vehicle owner's manual for any special directions or warnings.

Explanation:

Identify the advantages of using 6 tube passes instead of just 2 of the same diameter in shell-and-tube heat exchanger.What are the advantages and disadvantages of using 6 tube passes instead of just 2 of the same diameter?

Answers

Answer:

Please check explanation for answer

Explanation:

Here, we are concerned with stating the advantages and disadvantages  of using a 6 tube passes instead of a 2 tube passes of the same diameter:

Advantages

* By using a 6 tube passes diameter, we are increasing the surface area of the heat transfer surface

* As a result of increasing the heat transfer surface area, the rate of heat transfer automatically increases too

            Thus, from the above, we can conclude that the heat transfer rate of a 6 tube passes is higher than that of a 2 tube passes of the same diameter.

Disadvantages

* They are larger in size and in weight when compared to a 2 tube passes of the same diameter and therefore does not find use in applications where space conservation is quite necessary.

* They are more expensive than the 2 tube passes of the same diameter and thus are primarily undesirable in terms of  manufacturing costs

which solution causes cells to shrink

Answers

Answer: Hypertonic

Explain: a hypertonic solution has increased solute and a net movement of water outside causing the cell to shrink. A hypotonic has decreased solute concentration, and a net movement of water inside the cell, causing swelling or breakage.

It is to be noted that a hypertonic solution have the capacity to make cells to shrink.

What happens in a hypertonic solution?

In a hypertonic solution, the concentration of solutes (e.g., salts, sugars) outside the cell is higher than inside the cell.

As a result, water moves out of the cell through osmosis, trying to equalize the concentration, causing the cell to lose water and shrink.

This process is commonly observed in biology when examining the effect of different solutions on cells, such as in red blood cells or plant cells.

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Aggregate blend composed of 65% coarse aggregate (SG 2.701), 35% fine aggregate (SG 2.625)
Compacted specimen weight in air = 1257.9 g, submerged weight = 740.0 g, SSD weight = 1258.7 g
Compacted specimen contains 5.0% asphalt by total weight of the mix with Gb = 1.030
Theoretical maximum specific gravity = 2.511
Bulk specific gravity of the aggregate __________
Bulk specific gravity of the compacted specimen__________
Percent stone __________
Effective specific gravity of the stone__________
Percent voids in total mix__________
Percent voids in mineral aggregate__________
Percent voids filled with asphalt__________

Answers

Answer:

2.6742.42891.695%2.5923.305%11.786%78.1%

Explanation:

coarse aggregate (ca) = 65%,   SG = 2.701

Fine aggregate = 35%,    SG = 2.625

A) Bulk specific gravity of aggregate

   = [tex]\frac{65*2.701 + 35*2.625}{100} = 2.674[/tex]

B) Wm = 1257.9 g { weight in air }

    Ww = 740 g { submerged weight }

   therefore Bulk specific gravity of compacted specimen

   = [tex]\frac{Wm}{Wm-Ww}[/tex]  =  [tex]\frac{1257.9}{1257.9 - 740 }[/tex]  =  2.428

   Theoretical specific gravity = 2.511

Percent stone

= 100 - asphalt content - Vv

= 100 - 5 - 3.305 = 91.695%

c) percent of void

= [tex]\frac{9.511-2.428}{2.511} * 100[/tex]    Vv = 3.305%

d) let effective specific gravity in stone

     = [tex]\frac{91.695*unstone+ 5 *1.030 }{96.695} = 2.511[/tex]

    = Instone = 2.592 effective specific gravity of stone

e) Vv = 3.305%

f ) volume filled with asphalt (Vb) = [tex]\frac{\frac{Wb}{lnb} }{\frac{Wm}{Inm} } * 100[/tex]

           Vb = [tex]\frac{5 * 2.428}{1.030 * 100} * 100[/tex]

          Vb = 11.786 %

Volume of mineral aggregate = Vb + Vv

              VMA = 11.786 + 3.305 = 15.091

g) percent void filled with alphalt

     = Vb / VMA * 100

    VMA = 11.786 + 3.305 = 15.091

   percent void filled with alphalt

     = Vb / VMA * 100 = (11.786 / 15.091) * 100 = 78.1%

 

The first choice for how to reduce or eliminate a hazard is: a) Engineering controls b) Workplace controls c) Personal protective equipment d) Administrative controls

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer would be a) Engineering Controls.

Explanation:

If the controls are handled correctly, you can reduce and eliminate hazards so no one gets hurt. Engineering controls are absolutely necessary to prevent hazards.

Hope this helped! :)

Personal  protective equipment (PPE) is appropriate for controlling hazards

PPE are used for exposure to hazards when safe work practices and other forms of administrative controls cannot provide sufficient additional protection, a supplementary method of control is the use of protective clothing or equipment. PPE may also be appropriate for controlling hazards  while engineering and work practice controls are being installed.

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For this given problem, if the yield strength is now 45 ksi, using Distortion Energy Theory the material will _______ and using the Maximum Shear Stress Theory the material will __________
a. fail / not fail
b. fail /fail
c. not fail/fail
d. not fail/not fail

Answers

Answer:

Option A - fail/ not fail

Explanation:

For this given problem, if the yield strength is now 45 ksi, using Distortion Energy Theory the material will _fail______ and using the Maximum Shear Stress Theory the material will ___not fail_______

A 10-ft-long simply supported laminated wood beam consists of eight 1.5-in. by 6-in. planks glued together to form a section 6 in. wide by 12 in. deep. The beam carries a 9-kip concentrated load at midspan. Which point has the largest Q value at section a–a?

Answers

Answer:

point B where [tex]Q_B = 101.25 \ in^3[/tex]  has the largest Q value at section a–a

Explanation:

The missing diagram that is suppose to be attached to this question can be found in the attached file below.

So from the given information ;we are to determine the  point that  has the largest Q value at section a–a

In order to do that; we will work hand in hand with the image attached below.

From the image attached ; we will realize that there are 8 blocks aligned on top on another in the R.H.S of the image with the total of 12 in; meaning that each block contains 1.5 in each.

We also have block partitioned into different point segments . i,e A,B,C, D

For point A ;

Let Q be the moment of the Area A;

SO ; [tex]Q_A = Area \times y_1[/tex]

where ;

[tex]y_1 = (6 - \dfrac{1.5}{2})[/tex]

[tex]y_1 = (6- 0.75)[/tex]

[tex]y_1 = 5.25 \ in[/tex]

[tex]Q_A =(L \times B) \times y_1[/tex]

[tex]Q_A =(6 \times 1.5) \times 5.25[/tex]

[tex]Q_A =47.25 \ in^3[/tex]

For point B ;

Let Q be the moment of the Area B;

SO ; [tex]Q_B = Area \times y_2[/tex]

where ;

[tex]y_2 = (6 - \dfrac{1.5 \times 3}{2})[/tex]

[tex]y_2= (6 - \dfrac{4.5}{2}})[/tex]

[tex]y_2 = (6 -2.25})[/tex]

[tex]y_2 = 3.75 \ in[/tex]

[tex]Q_B =(L \times B) \times y_1[/tex]

[tex]Q_B=(6 \times 4.5) \times 3.75[/tex]

[tex]Q_B = 101.25 \ in^3[/tex]

For point C ;

Let Q be the moment of the Area C;

SO ; [tex]Q_C = Area \times y_3[/tex]

where ;

[tex]y_3 = (6 - \dfrac{1.5 \times 2}{2})[/tex]

[tex]y_3 = (6 - 1.5})[/tex]

[tex]y_3= 4.5 \ in[/tex]

[tex]Q_C =(L \times B) \times y_1[/tex]

[tex]Q_C =(6 \times 3) \times 4.5[/tex]

[tex]Q_C=81 \ in^3[/tex]

For point D ;

Let Q be the moment of the Area D;

SO ; [tex]Q_D = Area \times y_4[/tex]

since there is no area about point D

Area = 0

[tex]Q_D =0 \times y_4[/tex]

[tex]Q_D = 0[/tex]

Thus; from the foregoing ; point B where [tex]Q_B = 101.25 \ in^3[/tex]  has the largest Q value at section a–a

A 15.00 mL sample of a solution of H2SO4 of unknown concentration was titrated with 0.3200M NaOH. the titration required 21.30 mL of the base. Assuming complete neutralization of the acid,
1) What was the normality of the acid solution?
2) What was the molarity of the acid solution?

Answers

Answer:

a. 0.4544 N

b. [tex]5.112 \times 10^{-5 M}[/tex]

Explanation:

For computing the normality and molarity of the acid solution first we need to do the following calculations

The balanced reaction

[tex]H_2SO_4 + 2NaOH = Na_2SO_4 + 2H_2O[/tex]

[tex]NaOH\ Mass = Normality \times equivalent\ weight \times\ volume[/tex]

[tex]= 0.3200 \times 40 g \times 21.30 mL \times 1L/1000mL[/tex]

= 0.27264 g

[tex]NaOH\ mass = \frac{mass}{molecular\ weight}[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{0.27264\ g}{40g/mol}[/tex]

= 0.006816 mol

Now

Moles of [tex]H_2SO_4[/tex] needed  is

[tex]= \frac{0.006816}{2}[/tex]

= 0.003408 mol

[tex]Mass\ of\ H_2SO_4 = moles \times molecular\ weight[/tex]

[tex]= 0.003408\ mol \times 98g/mol[/tex]

= 0.333984 g

Now based on the above calculation

a. Normality of acid is

[tex]= \frac{acid\ mass}{equivalent\ weight \times volume}[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{0.333984 g}{49 \times 0.015}[/tex]

= 0.4544 N

b. And, the acid solution molarity is

[tex]= \frac{moles}{Volume}[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{0.003408 mol}{15\ mL \times 1L/1000\ mL}[/tex]

= 0.00005112

=[tex]5.112 \times 10^{-5 M}[/tex]

We simply applied the above formulas

The volume of the 0.3200 M, NaOH required to neutralize the H₂SO₄, is

21.30 mL, which gives the following acid solution approximate values;

1) Normality of the acid solution is 0.4544 N

2) The molarity of the acid is 0.2272

How can the normality, molarity of the solution be found?

Molarity of the NaOH = 0.3200 M

Volume of NaOH required = 21.30 mL

1) The normality of the acid solution is found as follows;

The chemical reaction is presented as follows;

H₂SO₄(aq) + 2NaOH (aq) → Na₂SO₄ (aq) + H₂O

Number of moles of NaOH in the reaction is found as follows;

[tex]n = \dfrac{21.30}{1,000} \times 0.3200 \, M = \mathbf{0.006816 \, M}[/tex]

Therefore;

The number of moles of H₂SO₄ = 0.006816 M ÷ 2 = 0.003408 M

[tex]Normality = \mathbf{ \dfrac{Mass \ of \, Acid \ in \ reaction}{Equivalent \ mass \times Volume \ of \ soltute}}[/tex]

Which gives;

[tex]Normality = \dfrac{ 98 \times 0.003408 }{49 \times 0.015} = \mathbf{0.4544}[/tex]

The normality of the acid solution, H₂SO₄(aq), N ≈ 0.4544

2) The molarity is found as follows;

[tex]Molarity = \dfrac{0.003408 \, moles}{0.015 \, L} = \mathbf{0.2272 \, M}[/tex]

The molarity of the acid solution is 0.2272 M

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The effectiveness of a heat exchanger is defined as the ratio of the maximum possible heat transfer rate to the actual heat transfer rate.

a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

False

Explanation:

Because

The effectiveness (ϵ) of a heat exchanger is defined as the ratio of the actual heat transfer to the maximum possible heat transfer.

Solid solution strengthening is achieved byGroup of answer choicesstrain hardening restricting the dislocation motion increasing the dislocation motion increasing the grain boundary g

Answers

Answer:

B. restricting the dislocation motion

Explanation:

Solid solution strengthening is a type of alloying that is carried out by the addition of the atoms of the element used for the alloying to the crystallized lattice structure of the base metal, which the metal that would be strengthened. The purpose of this act is to increase the strength of metals. It actually works by impeding or restricting the motion in the crystal lattice structure of metals thus making them more difficult to deform.

The solute atoms used for strengthening could be interstitial or substitutional. The interstitial solute atoms work by moving in between the space in the atoms of the base metal while the substitutional solute atoms make a replacement with the solvent atoms in the base metal.

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A successful answer here almost certainly would define and apply the concept of "perennation" or "perennating organ." What is the square root of 64y16?4y44y88y48y8 Dos hermanos , Juan de 12 aos y Rafael de 15, reciben como herencia de su padre un terreno de cultivo de 36 hectreas (ha).Si la reparticin fue de forma proporcional a sus edades , Cuantas hectreas le tocar a cada uno? A rectangular park is 8 miles long and 6 miles wide. How long is a pedestrian route that runs diagonally across the park? In circle P, diameter QS measures 20 centimeters. Circle P is shown. Line segment Q S is a diameter. Line segment R P is a radius. Angle R P S is 123 degrees. What is the approximate length of arc QR? Round to the nearest tenth of a centim . What principle was the basis for many of the laws in Hammurabis code? What are two things that the pyramids symbolized for ancient Egyptians? The calculated cost of trade credit for a firm that buys on terms of 2/10, net 30, is lower (other things held constant) if the firm plans to pay in 40 days than in 30 days.A. True B. False An obligation is an act or duty that someone is morally or legally bound to do. Which of the following is not anobligation of a good citizen?O voting in every local, primary, and general electionO paying taxes according to the law where you liveO serving in the armed forces if drafted during wartimeO following traffic laws and speed limits at all times Select the correct answer and then click Done4. What is an example of the South African policy of apartheid?Whites and blacks could not eat at the same restaurants.6 Whites and blacks went to the same schools.Blacks and whites could marry each other.d Blacks and whites could stay at the same hotels. Suppose you want to use the cross training program to train for a particular sport. Which sports could the program most benefit and why? Which sports might the program least benefit? Hegemony is not a household word in the United States. How would you explain what the term means to your roommate What kind of graph is characterized by presenting values as coordinate points without any connecting element? a. bar graph b. line graph c. scatter plot d. histogram a) digits and letters can be repeated b) digits and letters cannot be repeated Question: 2 letters followed by 6 digits a. a) 67,600.000 b) 78,936,000 b. a) 676,000,000 b) 98,280,000 c. a) 98,280,000 b) 676,000,000 d. a) 78,936,000 b) 67,600,000 Assume that the following data characterize the hypothetical economy of Trance: money supply = $200 billion; quantity of money demanded for transactions = $160 billion; quantity of money demanded as an asset = $10 billion at 12 percent interest, increasing by $10 billion for each 2-percentage-point fall in the interest rate. a. What is the equilibrium interest rate in Trance? _____ percent.b. At the equilibrium interest rate, what is the quantity of money supplied, the money demanded, the amount of money demanded for transaction, and the amount of money demanded as an asset in trace?Quantity of money supplied = $ _____ billionQuantity of money demanded = $ _____ billionAmount of money demanded for transactions = $ _____ billionAmount of money demanded as an asset = $_____ billion Many biochemical reactions that occur in the cell are nonspontaneous when measured at the biochemical standard state, but are spontaneous inside of the cell. What is the most likely explanation for this difference in spontaneity for the same reaction measured under different conditions which statement about the cold war arms race between the soviet union and the united states is the most accurate? A. Neither superpower was able to develop a system to warn of nuclear attacks B. Neither superpower had "second-strike" capability during this period C. Both superpower built networks of underground silos to store nuclear weapons D. Both superpowers had approximately the same number of nuclear weapons Owners of a local restaurant are concerned about their ability to provide quality service as they continue to grow and attract more customers. They have collected data from Friday and Saturday nights, their busiest times of the week. During these time periods about 106 customers arrive per hour for service. Given number of tables and chairs, and the typical time it takes to serve a customer, they the owners estimate they can serve on average about 162 customers per hour. Use Exhibit 5.6.During these nights, are they in the zone of service, the critical zone, or the zone of nonservice?Critical zoneZone of serviceZone of nonservice What factor determines how much linoleic acid can twist and bend its shape?A. The weight of the moleculeB. The number of carbon-hydrogen bondsC. The length of the moleculeD. The number of carbon-carbon double bonds