stroke volumes(SV) is equal to __ minus ___

Answers

Answer 1

Stroke volume (SV) is equal to end-diastolic volume (EDV) minus end-systolic volume (ESV).

Stroke volume is an important term in cardiovascular physiology, as it represents the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle of the heart during each contraction or systole. In other words, it measures the effectiveness of the heart in pumping blood throughout the body.

Here's a step-by-step explanation:


1. End-diastolic volume (EDV) is the volume of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole, or relaxation phase, just before the heart contracts.


2. End-systolic volume (ESV) is the volume of blood remaining in the left ventricle at the end of systole, or contraction phase.


3. To find stroke volume, you simply subtract end-systolic volume (ESV) from end-diastolic volume (EDV): SV = EDV - ESV.

In summary, stroke volume (SV) is determined by the difference between end-diastolic volume (EDV) and end-systolic volume (ESV), providing an indication of the heart's pumping efficiency during each cardiac cycle.

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Related Questions

a scientist is studying how sea slugs respond to predators. which hierarchical level of ecology does this represent?

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The sea slugs react to predators is the subject of scientific research. This represents the ecology's community hierarchical level.

Ecosystem. It is a collection of all biotic and abiotic elements that are present and interacting in a certain space. The environment's living and nonliving elements are in contact with one another. Organism, Population, Community, and Biome are the four levels of biological structure with which ecology is primarily concerned.

Community ecologists are curious about the mechanisms underlying these interactions and the results. The struggle between individuals of the same species for a scarce resource is frequently the subject of questions regarding conspecific interactions. The cell is a living thing's lowest unit of organization. The tiniest living things, cells carry out all of an organism's metabolic functions.

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the er signal sequence on a growing polypeptide chain is recognized by a signal-recognition particle (srp) in the cytosol. what does this interaction accomplish?

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The interaction between the ER signal sequence on a growing polypeptide chain and the Signal Recognition Particle (SRP) in the cytosol serves to target the nascent polypeptide to the Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) membrane for further processing, folding, and modification.

The SRP is a ribonucleoprotein complex that recognizes the signal sequence on the nascent polypeptide chain as it emerges from the ribosome. The binding of the SRP to the signal sequence temporarily halts translation and directs the ribosome-nascent polypeptide complex to the ER membrane, where the SRP receptor on the membrane recognizes the SRP and facilitates the transfer of the nascent polypeptide chain to the translocon, a protein channel that allows the polypeptide to enter the ER lumen.Once inside the ER lumen, the polypeptide chain can undergo post-translational modifications, such as glycosylation or disulfide bond formation, and/or fold into its final conformation. The SRP-mediated targeting of nascent polypeptides to the ER is essential for proper protein biogenesis and function in eukaryotic cells.

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The most common cause of vaginal bleeding in the 1st trimester is which one of the following?
a. placenta previa
b. subchorionic hemorrhage
c. ectopic pregnancy
d. missed abortion

Answers

Answer:

My best guess would be subchorionic hemorrhage, although this is just my opinion and there are many other answers that would be sufficient but are not listed.

Explanation:

researchers are conducting gene knockout studies in a bacterium. the knockout technique does not work correctly, and some supposed knockouts do not eliminate the expression of the target gene. what is most likely to result? some essential genes are deemed non-essential. some non-essential genes are deemed essential. the pan genome appears smaller than it is. the core genome appears larger than it is. the pan genome appears larger than it is.

Answers

If the knockout technique does not work correctly and some supposed knockouts do not eliminate the expression of the target gene in bacterium, it is most likely that some non-essential genes are deemed essential.

This is because the knockout technique involves the disruption of a specific gene, which should result in the loss of the function of that gene. However, if the knockout technique is not effective, some of the genes that were supposed to be knocked out may still be functional, leading to the wrong conclusion that they are essential.
This can have significant implications for research in the field of microbiology. Misidentification of essential and non-essential genes can lead to incorrect assumptions about the function of genes, as well as their importance in bacterial growth and survival. In turn, this can affect the development of antibiotics and other treatments that target specific genes.
Therefore, it is crucial for researchers to ensure that their knockout techniques are working correctly before drawing any conclusions about the essentiality of genes. This may involve using different techniques or verifying results through additional experiments. By doing so, researchers can ensure the accuracy of their findings and avoid misidentifying essential and non-essential genes.

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which outcome is anticipated as a result of histamine2 receptor blockers obstructing histamine2 receptors in the parietal cells in the stomach?

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Histamine2 receptor blockers are a kind of drug used to treat illnesses including Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and peptic ulcer disease by reducing the production of stomach acid.

These medications act by blocking the histamine2 receptors in the parietal cells of the stomach, which lowers the production of acid. The lowering of stomach acid production is the expected result of histamine2 receptor blockers inhibiting histamine2 receptors in the parietal cells of the stomach.

This is so because inhibiting the histamine2 receptors reduces the impact of histamine, which drives the creation of acid by these cells. Histamine2 receptor blockers thereby alleviate GERD and peptic ulcer disease symptoms as heartburn, acid regurgitation, and stomach discomfort.

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Correct Question:

Explain the type of outcome that is anticipated as a result of histamine receptor blockers obstructing histamine2 receptors in the parietal cells in the stomach?

the tough, white, fibrous capsule around the testis is the: select an answer and submit. for keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer. a tunica vaginalis. b testicular septum. c tunica albuginea. d testicular lobule.

Answers

Option c is correct. The tough, white, fibrous capsule around the testis is the tunica albuginea.

The tunica albuginea is the name for the hard, fibrous, white capsule that surrounds the testis. The testis is encased in a thick, fibrous layer of tissue that serves as protection.

The testis is divided into compartments known as testicular lobules by a number of septa, or connective tissue partitions, that are produced by the tunica albuginea.

One to four tightly coiled seminiferous tubules, which are where sperm are produced, can be seen in each lobule. A serous membrane known as the tunica vaginalis lines the inner wall of the scrotum and covers the testis.

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the area involved with interpreting what we read and hear is

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The language center, which is typically found in the left hemisphere of the brain, is the part of the brain that interprets what we read and hear.

In order to process language, a vast network of different locations makes up the language center. Wernicke's area, which is in the temporal lobe, is engaged in language comprehension, whereas Broca's area, which is in the frontal lobe, is involved in language production.

Language processing also involves other regions of the brain, including the supramarginal gyrus and the angular gyrus, both of which are found in the parietal lobe. These regions are involved in activities like reading aloud and comprehending the meaning of sentences.

The language center is involved in language-related tasks like naming objects, repeating words or phrases, and comprehending grammar and syntax in addition to helping us grasp what we read and hear.

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The area involved with interpreting what we read and hear is known as comprehension. This involves not only understanding the literal meaning of the words, but also being able to make inferences, draw conclusions, and analyze the information presented.

Comprehension is a complex cognitive process that involves the activation of multiple areas of the brain, including the prefrontal cortex, temporal lobes, and parietal lobes. It is a critical skill for academic success and everyday life, as it allows us to effectively communicate, solve problems, and make informed decisions.

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the trunk muscle whose primary function is compression of abdominal contents is the

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The trunk muscle whose primary function is compression of abdominal contents is the rectus abdominis.

The rectus abdominis is a paired muscle that runs vertically on either side of the anterior abdominal wall. It originates from the pubic symphysis and the pubic crest and inserts into the xiphoid process and the costal cartilages of ribs 5-7. The rectus abdominis muscle is primarily responsible for flexing the trunk, as well as compressing the abdominal contents.

It is often referred to as the "six-pack" muscle because of its appearance when well-developed. In addition to its primary functions, the rectus abdominis also assists with forced expiration, lateral flexion, and rotation of the trunk. Strengthening the rectus abdominis muscle can improve posture, core stability, and athletic performance, and may also help prevent lower back pain.

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The complete question is:

Fill in the blanks:

The trunk muscle whose primary function is compression of abdominal contents is the _________

Arterial baroreceptors are located in the aorta and carotid arteries so that pressure (and flow) to the __________ can be closely monitored.
brain, systemic circuit, and heart
brain and systemic circuit
pulmonary circuit
systemic circuit
heart
brain
Choose matching definition
Ans. all answers are correct
Ans. flow rate
Ans. increases; decreases; brain; heart
Ans. brain and systemic circuit

Answers

The aorta and carotid arteries include arterial baroreceptors that allow for close monitoring of the pressure (and flow) to the brain and systemic circuit. Hence (b) is the correct opton.

Baroreceptors, also known as pressoreceptors or baroreceptors, are sensors found in the aortic arch and carotid sinus (at the junction of the external and internal carotid arteries). So that a healthy blood pressure may be maintained, they sense the blood pressure and transmit the information to the brain. Mechanoreceptors and baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus react to changes in blood vessel pressure or stretch. They can react in part to variations in blood pH and certain metabolites.

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Arterial baroreceptors are located in the aorta and carotid arteries so that pressure (and flow) to the __________ can be closely monitored.

a. brain, systemic circuit, and heart

b. brain and systemic circuit

c. pulmonary circuit

d. systemic circuit

e. heart

f. brain

in men, resolution is followed by a _____ period, lasting anywhere from 10 minutes to a few hours, in which it is usually impossible to attain another erection and orgasm.

Answers

The period following resolution in men is known as the refractory period.

The refractory period is a physiological response that occurs after orgasm in males. During this period, it is difficult or impossible for a man to achieve another erection or orgasm. This period can last anywhere from a few minutes to several hours, depending on various factors such as age, health, and sexual arousal.

The refractory period is thought to be caused by the release of neurotransmitters and hormones that promote a sense of relaxation and decreased sexual arousal, making it more difficult to achieve or sustain an erection. The length of the refractory period varies from person to person and can also be influenced by factors such as stress, fatigue, and certain medications or health conditions.

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In men, resolution is followed by a refractory period, lasting anywhere from 10 minutes to a few hours, in which it is usually impossible to attain another erection and orgasm.

This is due to the physiological changes that occur in the male reproductive system during resolution, including the release of hormones and the return of blood flow to the rest of the body. These changes need time to reset before another orgasm and erection can occur, as the body needs to restore the necessary energy and resources for another sexual encounter. This refractory period is a natural part of the sexual response cycle in male organisms.

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A cell containing 8 chromatids at metaphase of mitosis would, at its completion, produce two nuclei containing how many chromosomes?
8
16
4
24

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A cell containing 8 chromatids at metaphase of mitosis would, at its completion, produce two nuclei contains 8 chromosomes.

During metaphase of mitosis, the chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the cell and each chromosome is composed of two sister chromatids joined at the centromere.

At the completion of mitosis, the cell has divided into two daughter cells, each containing a complete set of chromosomes. In this case, the cell had 8 chromosomes at metaphase, which means that there were 4 pairs of sister chromatids.

During anaphase, each sister chromatid would separate and move to opposite poles of the cell, resulting in 8 individual chromosomes. Therefore, each daughter cell would receive 8 chromosomes, for a total of 16 chromosomes in the two daughter cells.

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Imagine that you're a researcher in a neurology lab looking at functioning neurons with an advanced microscope. You notice that there is a lack of signaling between a particular set of neurons.
Which of the following best describes why these particular neurons may not be functioning properly?

Choose 1 answer:

(Choice A) The neurons' cell bodies are producing neural impulses that are too strong.

(Choice B) The neurons' cell bodies are producing neural impulses that are too weak

(Choice C) The neural impulses are not properly traveling through the axons and cannot be transmitted from one neuron to another.

(Choice D) The neurons are receiving signals that cause resting potential changes, producing an electrical impulse called an action potential.

Answers

The neuronal impulses are not adequately passing through the axons and cannot be passed from one neuron to another, as stated in Option C.

What occurs if neurons don't work properly?

Because they are brittle, neurons are susceptible to tearing, cutting, and pressure. A damaged neuron can stop impulses from entering and exiting the brain, affecting muscle control or causing numbness in the affected area. Peripheral nerves, the spinal cord, and the brain can all be affected by nerve injury.

Why might this neuron not operate properly?

It would be impossible for this neuron to receive impulses. The signal could not be recharged by this neuron. It would be impossible for this neuron to combine data from several synapses.

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Answer:

choice c

Explanation:

The neuronal impulses are not adequately passing through the axons and cannot be passed from one neuron to another

Scientists can induce____and organ development, creating an entire new plant, by controlling cytokinin and auxin concentrations in a growth medium.

Answers

Scientists can induce cell differentiation and organ development, creating an entire new plant, by controlling cytokinin and auxin concentrations in a growth medium.

Scientists can induce cell division and organ development, creating an entire new plant, by controlling cytokinin and auxin concentrations in a growth medium. These two plant hormones work together to stimulate cell growth and differentiation, with cytokinins promoting cell division and auxins promoting elongation and differentiation. By manipulating the balance between these two hormones, scientists can create customized growth conditions that encourage the development of specific organs or tissues. This technique, known as tissue culture or micropropagation, is widely used in plant breeding and biotechnology to produce large numbers of identical plants with desirable traits.

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Scientists can induce differentiation and organ development, creating an entirely new plant, by controlling cytokinin and auxin concentrations in a growth medium.

Role of plant hormones on growth and development:

The plant hormones play crucial roles in plant growth and development, with auxin influencing cell elongation and cytokinin promoting cell division. By adjusting the concentrations of these hormones in the growth medium, scientists can guide the differentiation process, leading to the formation of a new, complete plant.

Hormone-mediated growth and Organ development:

Scientists can induce hormone-mediated growth and organ development, creating an entirely new plant, by controlling cytokinin and auxin concentrations in a growth medium. This process involves the use of specific hormones to trigger the differentiation of plant cells and stimulate growth and development, while the growth medium provides the necessary nutrients and support for the new plant to grow. By carefully manipulating these factors, scientists can produce a wide variety of plants with unique characteristics and traits, opening up new possibilities for agriculture, horticulture, and scientific research.

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a record of the potential differences generated by the heart and conducted via body fluids to the surface, where it is detected by electrodes, is called a(n) recording.

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The record of the potential differences generated by the heart and conducted via body fluids to the surface, where it is detected by electrodes, is called an: electrocardiogram (ECG) recording.

An electrocardiogram is a recording of the electrical activity of the heart. Electrodes are placed on the skin to detect the electrical impulses generated by the heart and transmit them to a machine, which records the data as a graph.

The ECG is a useful tool for diagnosing various heart conditions, such as arrhythmias, conduction abnormalities, and ischemia, and is often performed as a part of routine medical checkups, during cardiac procedures, or in emergency situations.

The recorded data can provide valuable information about the heart's structure and function, helping healthcare providers to identify and manage heart-related issues.

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12.the mutation resulting in sickle cell disease changes one base pair of dna so that a codon now codes for a different amino acid, making it an example of a

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The mutation resulting in sickle cell disease is an example of a point mutation. Specifically, it is a type of substitution mutation where a single nucleotide base is replaced with another base in the DNA sequence, resulting in a change in the corresponding codon.

What is sickle cell disease?

Sickle cell disease is a genetic blood disorder that affects hemoglobin, a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. People with sickle cell disease have abnormal hemoglobin molecules due to a mutation in the HBB gene, which provides instructions for making the beta-globin subunit of hemoglobin.

Normally, red blood cells are round and flexible, allowing them to move easily through blood vessels. However, in sickle cell disease, the abnormal hemoglobin molecules cause red blood cells to become stiff and shaped like crescent moons, or sickles. These sickled cells can get stuck in small blood vessels, causing a variety of health problems.

In the case of sickle cell disease, the substitution of one nucleotide base in the beta-globin gene results in the replacement of the amino acid glutamic acid with valine, leading to the production of abnormal hemoglobin proteins and the characteristic sickle-shaped red blood cells.

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harry uses a pulley to put up a bucket of water from a well. which of the following energy transformations also occurs as the bucket rises from the bottom of the well?

Answers

Explanation:

As Harry uses a pulley to put up a bucket of water from a well, the following energy transformations occur:

1. Mechanical energy (Harry's physical effort) is transformed into potential energy as the bucket is lifted against gravity.

2. The potential energy of the lifted bucket is transformed into gravitational potential energy as it rises to a higher altitude.

Therefore, the energy transformation that also occurs as the bucket rises from the bottom of the well is the transformation of mechanical energy into gravitational potential energy.

The plasma membrane of some white blood cells contain ________ that bind with proteins of cells such as bacteria that have invaded the human body. These special proteins tell the white blood cells those bacterial cells do not belong to that particular human and to phagocytize (eat) them.
a. channel proteins
c. diffusion proteins
b. receptor proteins
d. carrier proteins

Answers

Answer:

b.) receptor proteins

Explanation:

each of our cells needs glucose in order to be able to conduct cellular respiration. through what structures do you think glucose could travel to enter into cells?

Answers

Glucose can enter cells through several structures, including transport proteins and channels, such as the glucose transporter (GLUT) family of proteins.

These transporters and channels are embedded in the plasma membrane of the cell, allowing glucose to move from areas of high concentration (such as the bloodstream) to areas of low concentration (inside the cell).

In addition to GLUTs, some cells can also take up glucose through other transporters, such as the sodium-glucose cotransporter (SGLT) family, which uses the energy from the movement of sodium ions to transport glucose into the cell. Once inside the cell, glucose can be used in cellular respiration to produce energy in the form of ATP.

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according to this figure, at what time in the evolutionary history of plants did vascular systems likely first evolve?

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According to the figure (which is not provided, but I will assume it is a timeline of plant evolution), vascular systems likely first evolved in the early Silurian period, around 420 million years ago. This development marked the emergence of vascular plants, which allowed for more efficient transport of water and nutrients throughout the plant.

Based on the figure provided, vascular systems likely first evolved in the Silurian period, around 430 million years ago. This can be seen in the appearance of the first vascular plants, such as the Rhyniophytes and Zosterophyllophytes, during this time period. These early plants had simple vascular systems consisting of only xylem and lacked leaves, roots, and true lignin. Over time, more complex vascular systems and plant structures evolved, leading to the diverse range of plants we see today.

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Construct a hypothesis to explain how the genes inherited by an individual can affect an individual’s health and/or cause certain genetic disorders.

Answers

A possible hypothesis to explain how inherited genes can affect an individual's health and/or cause certain genetic disorders is:

"Genetic disorders and health conditions can be caused by mutations or variations in specific genes that are inherited from parents. These mutations can alter the function or expression of proteins, enzymes, or other molecules involved in various physiological processes, leading to abnormal development, metabolism, or immune responses. The severity and manifestation of these disorders may depend on the type, location, and frequency of the mutations, as well as the interactions with other genetic or environmental factors. Therefore, understanding the genetic basis of these disorders and identifying the underlying mutations can help in diagnosing, preventing, or treating these conditions."

herpes simplex virus can only be spread by symptomatic patients. group of answer choices true false

Answers

The statement "herpes simplex virus can only be spread by symptomatic patients" is false.

Herpes simplex virus can be spread by both symptomatic and asymptomatic patients. Asymptomatic patients may not show visible symptoms, but they can still transmit the virus to others through viral shedding.

HSV is a highly contagious virus that can be transmitted through direct contact with infected body fluids, such as saliva, genital secretions, or lesions caused by the virus.

The virus can be passed even during times when there are no visible symptoms, which is why it is essential to practice safe sex and take appropriate precautions to prevent the spread of the virus.

It is also important to note that there are two types of herpes simplex virus: HSV-1 and HSV-2. While HSV-1 is typically associated with oral herpes (cold sores) and HSV-2 is associated with genital herpes, both types can infect either location.

Additionally, HSV-1 can be spread to the genitals through oral sex, and HSV-2 can be spread to the mouth through genital-to-oral contact.

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What factors in your area make wildfires either a problem or unlikely? Explain your answer.
Under what circumstances would a controlled burn be a good idea? Explain your answer.
Fire requires fuel, heat, and oxygen. In the case of a wildfire, which is easiest to eliminate? Explain your answer.
What would motivate someone to commit arson in a forest? What do you think can be done to reduce arson in forests?
The unit mentions that the timber industry was devastated by chestnut blight. What other industries might be harmed by this infestation? Explain.

Answers

Answer:

hope this helps :D

Explanation:

1. Factors that make wildfires a problem or unlikely in an area depend on several factors, such as the climate, weather patterns, vegetation types, topography, and human activities. For example, areas with dry, hot summers and strong winds are more likely to experience wildfires. Conversely, areas with wetter climates, frequent rainfall, and less flammable vegetation are less prone to wildfires.

2. Controlled burns can be a good idea in some circumstances. These controlled fires can help reduce the buildup of dead plant material that can fuel more severe wildfires. They can also help promote the growth of new plants and improve the overall health of an ecosystem. Controlled burns are often used by land managers to reduce the risk of more destructive wildfires and to restore natural habitats.

3. In the case of a wildfire, it is easiest to eliminate the fuel source. This can be done by clearing vegetation, creating fire breaks, and reducing the amount of dead plant material on the forest floor. However, this is often difficult to do in practice, especially in remote or rugged areas.

4. Motivations for arson in a forest can vary widely, ranging from revenge, financial gain, or mental illness. To reduce arson in forests, a multi-pronged approach is needed, including education and outreach programs, stronger enforcement measures, and increased public awareness about the dangers of wildfires.

5. The chestnut blight epidemic devastated the timber industry, but other industries could also be affected by similar infestations. For example, the maple syrup industry could be impacted by invasive insects that attack maple trees, and the citrus industry could be harmed by diseases that affect citrus crops. These infestations could have far-reaching economic impacts, including job losses and reduced revenue for local communities.

hair on mammals can be used for all but which of the following? group of answer choices camouflage defense sensory functions insulation all of the above

Answers

The correct answer is "e) all of the above". Hair on mammals can be used for camouflage, defense, sensory functions, and insulation.

What four purposes do mammals' hair serve?

Hair is used by modern mammals to protect, signal, hide, insulate, and detect their immediate environment. Insulation protects against excessive heat as well as serves to conserve heat, as it does for nocturnal desert animals like the camel.

What purposes do animals' hair serve?

Many goods use animal hair. Brushes and stringed instrument bows both use horse hair. Hog bristle, ox hair, and Siberian weasel hair are all used.

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the auxin with the acronym was believed to be the only naturally occurring active auxin until paa, iba, and 4-chlorolaa were found.

Answers

The auxin with the acronym IAA was believed to be the only naturally occurring active auxin until PAA, IBA, and 4-chlorolAA were found.

IAA, or Indole-3-acetic acid, is a naturally occurring plant hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating plant growth and development. It promotes cell elongation and division, regulates apical dominance, and helps to control the direction of plant growth. However, it was later discovered that other compounds, such as PAA (phenylacetic acid), IBA (indole-3-butyric acid), and 4-chlorolAA (4-chloroindole-3-acetic acid), also have auxin-like activity.

These compounds have different chemical structures and physiological effects than IAA, but they can still act as growth regulators in plants. The discovery of these additional active auxin has expanded our understanding of the complex mechanisms that control plant growth and development.

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The complete question is:

Fill in the blanks:

The auxin with the acronym __________ was believed to be the only naturally occurring active auxin until PAA, IBA, and 4-chlorolAA were found.

which is true of the molecule shown below? choose one or more: it is found in the membranes of virtually all living cells. it is a lipid. it is amphipathic. it makes the bilayer less fluid. it is a phospholipid. it makes the bilayer more permeable.

Answers

It is a lipid. It is amphipathic. It makes the bilayer less fluid. It is a phospholipid is true of the molecule Therefore the correct option is  C.

It is a lipid that consists of two fatty acid tails and a hydrophilic head group. The structure of the phospholipid makes it amphipathic, meaning it has both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions. This allows the phospholipids to form a bilayer when they come together, with the non-polar tails on the inside and the polar heads on the outside.

This bilayer acts as a barrier within the cell membrane to separate whatever is inside from whatever is outside, while still allowing some substances to pass through due to its permeability.

The presence of these phospholipids also makes membranes less fluid overall, as the tails can interact with each other and limit motion along the center of the bilayer.

Hence the correct option is C.

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a marine scientist is studying the salinity and amount of dissolved oxygen and nutrients in the ocean. what kind of marine scientist might they be classified as?

Answers

A marine scientist studying the salinity, dissolved oxygen, and nutrient levels in the ocean may be classified as an oceanographer or a marine biogeochemist.

Oceanographers study the physical, chemical, and biological aspects of the ocean, including its circulation, tides, waves, and the interaction between the ocean and the atmosphere. Marine biogeochemists study the cycling of nutrients and chemicals in the ocean and how they impact the growth and distribution of marine life.

Both of these types of marine scientists would be interested in studying the salinity, dissolved oxygen, and nutrient levels in the ocean, as they are important factors affecting the health of marine ecosystems. Understanding these parameters can help scientists better understand the interactions between the ocean and the atmosphere and how changes in these parameters can impact marine life, fisheries, and human communities that rely on the ocean for their livelihoods.

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a mutation in the gene encoding map kkk results in a protein that is always active, and causes an increase in cell division. based on this, the mutated gene encoding map kkk is best described as:

Answers

The mutated gene encoding map kkk is best described as an oncogene.

A mutant gene that has the potential to cause cancer is known as an oncogene. Proto-oncogenes, which are oncogenes before they undergo mutations, control healthy cell division.

Mutations that boost a proto-oncogene's expression level or activity give rise to oncogenes. The following are underlying genetic pathways linked to oncogene activation: point mutations, deletions, or insertions that result in a gene product with a high level of activity.

They also control the cell cycle and apoptosis, as well as cell development, differentiation, and proliferation. Growth factors, growth factor receptors, signal transducers, transcription factors, apoptotic regulators, and chromatin remodelers are some of the byproducts of oncogenes.

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the unnatual and human-induced change that destroys the resilience and biological potential of an arid and semi-arid ecosystem, and that has been quite common in the sahel region for the last several decades, is called .

Answers

Desertification is the degradation of arid and semi-arid ecosystems due to human-induced changes. It is a serious ecological problem that has been occurring in the Sahel region for the last several decades.

Desertification results in the loss of biodiversity, soil erosion, decreased agricultural productivity, and an overall decrease in the resilience of the ecosystem. Human activities such as overgrazing, deforestation, and unsustainable agricultural practices are the primary causes of desertification.

These activities lead to an increase in soil salinity and a decrease in the water-holding capacity of the soil, both of which reduce the amount of available arable land. Additionally, desertification affects the hydrological cycle, resulting in an increase in the frequency and intensity of droughts. These changes cause significant harm to the local human and animal populations, leading to further degradation of the environment. Ultimately, desertification is a major environmental issue that needs to be addressed in order to protect the Sahel's biodiversity and to ensure a sustainable future for its people.

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the size of a blood clot forming in an area of damaged vessel wall is limited only by the radius of the blood vessel injured.

Answers

Yes, that is correct. The size of a blood clot that forms in an area of damaged vessel wall is limited by the radius of the blood vessel that was injured.

This is because the clotting process occurs locally and can only extend to the immediate area around the injury site. The larger the vessel, the more blood flow it carries and the more quickly the clotting process is triggered, so the clot is limited by the radius of the injured vessel.

It is important to note that if the clot grows too large, it can block blood flow and cause serious health problems, such as a stroke or heart attack.

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the rates charged by independent practice association hmo physicians are prenegotiated on a ________ basis.

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The rates charged by independent practice association (IPA) HMO (Health Maintenance Organization) physicians are pre-negotiated on a "fee-for-service" basis.

In an independent practice association (IPA) HMO, physicians and other healthcare providers maintain their own independent practices, but contract with the HMO to provide services to its members. These contracts typically involve pre-negotiated payment rates, which are determined on a "fee-for-service" basis.

In a fee-for-service arrangement, healthcare providers are paid a predetermined fee for each service they provide to patients. This fee is negotiated between the IPA and the HMO, and it may vary depending on the specific service rendered. This means that the rates charged by IPA HMO physicians are agreed upon in advance and are not typically subject to negotiation on a case-by-case basis. This allows for standardized payment rates and facilitates streamlined billing and reimbursement processes between the IPA and the HMO.

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The rates charged by independent practice association HMO physicians are prenegotiated on a contractual basis.

This means that the physicians and the HMO have an agreement in place that outlines the payment rates for the services provided by the physician.

These rates are pre-determined before any services are rendered and are based on a number of factors such as the physician's specialty, experience, and the complexity of the services provided.

Prenegotiated rates provide a level of predictability and consistency for both the physician and the HMO, which can help to ensure that patients receive high-quality care at a fair and reasonable cost.

Additionally, these rates can also help to control healthcare costs and improve access to care by encouraging physicians to participate in HMO networks.

Overall, prenegotiated rates are an important aspect of the healthcare system and help to ensure that patients receive high-quality care at an affordable price.

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