Suppose you want to buy a 20-year, $1,000 par value annual bond, with an annual coupon rate of 8%, and pays Interest annually. If the bond has 15 years left to maturity and it is currently selling for $989, what is the yield-to-maturity of the bond?

The present value of the firm is $86310. The correct option is b) $67310.

To calculate the value of the firm, we need to use the formula for the weighted average cost of capital (WACC). First, we need to calculate the cost of debt, which is the coupon rate multiplied by (1-tax rate). So, the cost of debt for Virginia Co. is 5.53% (7%*(1-0.21)).

The weight of debt in the WACC calculation is the book value of debt divided by the sum of the book value of debt and the market value of equity. We don't have the market value of equity, but we can calculate it by subtracting the book value of debt from the value of the firm. So, using the WACC formula, we get:

WACC = (10%*(1-0.21)*(1-0.21)) + (5.53%*(19,000/(19,000+MVE)))

where MVE is the market value of equity. We can solve for MVE by setting the WACC equal to the unlevered cost of capital and solving for MVE. This gives us a value of $67,310, which is answer B. Therefore, the value of the firm is $86,310 ($67,310+19,000).

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The firm receives free trade credit of $12,329 during the year.

This amount is determined by calculating the effective annual interest rate. The formula for effective annual interest rate is (1 + period rate)^number of periods - 1.

Trade credit terms of 2/10, net 50 is equal to a period rate of 0.2/50 = 0.004. The effective annual interest rate is (1 + 0.004)^365 - 1 = 0.1232 or 12.32%.

Therefore, the amount of free trade credit is $420,000*12.32% = $51,744. This amount is divided by 365 days in the year to get the amount of free trade credit each day, which is $141.81. Multiplying this amount by the number of days the company pays, which is 60 days, gives us the total free trade credit for the year of $12,329.

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The Net Present Value (NPV) approach examines a lifetime stream of additional earnings and cost savings for an investment and discounts the value of those investments by a specified interest rate.

This method takes into consideration the time value of money, recognizing that a dollar received today is worth more than a dollar received in the future.

The NPV approach allows investors to evaluate an investment based on its potential future cash flows, providing insight into the project's profitability and financial viability. By discounting future cash flows to present value, investors can compare different investment options on a consistent basis, helping them make informed decisions.

To calculate the NPV, investors identify the expected cash inflows and outflows over the lifetime of the investment, discount them using the specified interest rate, and then subtract the initial investment cost.

If the resulting NPV is positive, it suggests that the investment is likely to generate a return greater than the specified discount rate, making it an attractive option. Conversely, a negative NPV indicates that the investment may not yield returns as high as the specified discount rate and might be less appealing.

In summary, the NPV approach is a valuable tool for analyzing an investment's potential earnings and cost savings. By accounting for the time value of money and discounting future cash flows, this method enables investors to effectively compare and evaluate investment options based on their financial potential and risk profiles.

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This lottery is worth $71,988 today. To calculate this, you must first add up the total of all 26 payments, $3,455 x 26 = $89,430.

Then you must use a present value formula to discount the future payments to their equivalent today. The formula for present value is: PV = FV / (1 + r)^n, where FV is the total of the future payments, r is the interest rate and n is the number of periods (in this case, 26). Plugging in the numbers gives: $89,430 / (1 + 0.049)^26 = $71,988.

The present value formula is useful for calculating the current worth of an investment or asset. It takes into account the time value of money, which states that a dollar today is worth more than a dollar in the future. This is because a dollar today can be invested and earn interest over time, whereas a dollar in the future cannot. Therefore, the present value formula discounts future payments to their equivalent today.

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Based on the information provided, the company used 19,380 ounces of raw materials in production and purchased 21,400 ounces.

The actual direct labor-hours worked were 500 hours, with an actual cost of $12,050.

The actual cost of raw material purchases was $40,660.

The actual variable overhead cost for June was $3,100.

The company applies variable overhead based on direct labor-hours, so the variable overhead rate variance for June will depend on the actual hours worked. 

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The intrinsic value of this preferred stock is $66.67.

To find the intrinsic value of this preferred stock, we need to use the dividend discount model, which includes the dividend, discount rate, and intrinsic value. Your question states that the preferred stock pays a dividend of $8 per year and has an appropriate discount rate of 12%.

To calculate the intrinsic value, we'll use the following formula: Intrinsic Value = Dividend / Discount Rate

Step 1: Identify the dividend and discount rate.
Dividend = $8
Discount Rate = 0.12 (or 12%)

Step 2: Plug the values into the formula.
Intrinsic Value = $8 / 0.12

Step 3: Calculate the intrinsic value.
Intrinsic Value = $66.67 (rounded to two decimal places)

Therefore, the intrinsic value of this preferred stock is $66.67.

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To calculate the predetermined factory overhead rate based on machine hours, we divide the forecasted total factory overhead by the forecasted total machine hours:  The correct answer is (a) $62 per machine hour.

$15,500,000 ÷ 250,000 machine hours = $62 per machine hour

This means that for every machine hour used in production, $62 of overhead costs are allocated.

Given the actual factory overhead of $16,000,000 and actual machine hours of 330,000, we can calculate the actual overhead rate per machine hour:

$16,000,000 ÷ 330,000 machine hours = $48.48 per machine hour

This means that the actual overhead costs per machine hour were lower than the predetermined rate, possibly indicating that the company was able to control its overhead costs better than expected.

Therefore the correct answer is a. $62 per machine hour.

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If you are the writer of a call option C, you are obligated to buy the underlying asset at the strike price of the option if the call holder chooses to exercise their right.

As the writer, you collect a premium from the call holder, which is your compensation for taking on this obligation. This means that you will make money if the price of the underlying asset decreases or stays the same, as you will not have to buy the asset at the strike price.

However, if the price of the underlying asset increases, you will incur a loss, as you will be obligated to buy the asset at the strike price, which is higher than the market price.

Therefore, correct option is C.

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Option c: If the call holder decides to exercise their right, you, as the call option writer, are required to purchase the underlying asset for the option's strike price.

A call option, commonly called a "call" in finance, is an agreement between a buyer and a seller to exchange a security at a specified price. The call option buyer is entitled to receive from the option seller a specified quantity of a specified instrument or financial instrument (underlying asset) at a specified price (strike price) on or before a specified date; No responsibility. Please check the date (expiration date) before purchasing. The owner currently has a long position in the offered asset. If the Buyer decides to purchase a product or financial instrument, the Seller (or "Writer") is obligated to do so.

As a result, the seller now has her position short of the specified asset. Buyers must pay a fee (called a premium) for this right. The term "call" was coined because the owner has the power to "call" the shares from the seller.

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The given statement "small gatherings of deliberately selected people who participate in planned discussions that are intended to secure consumer perceptions about particular topics are called focus group." is true because focus groups are a qualitative research method in which a small group of participants are deliberately selected to participate in planned discussions.

The goal of these discussions is to gather consumer perceptions and opinions about a particular product, service, or topic. Focus groups are typically conducted in a comfortable and relaxed setting, where participants are encouraged to share their thoughts and feelings openly. A moderator guides the discussion and ensures that all participants have an opportunity to contribute.

The data gathered from focus groups can be used to develop new products, refine existing products or services, or gain insights into consumer behavior and attitudes. Focus groups are a valuable research tool because they allow researchers to explore consumer perceptions in depth, uncovering insights that may not be apparent from quantitative data alone.

Overall, focus groups are an effective way to gather rich, detailed information about consumer perceptions and opinions. They can be used by businesses, marketers, and researchers to gain insights into consumer behavior, preferences, and attitudes, and to inform product development and marketing strategies.

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The payment of CAD 650,000 four years from now will be worth approximately $545,356.92 in U.S. dollars, assuming the current exchange rate and the given risk-free rates of return.

To calculate the value of CAD 650,000 in U.S. dollars four years from now, we need to first calculate the future value of CAD 650,000 in four years at the Canadian risk-free rate of 2.10 percent. Using the formula FV = PV x (1 + r)^n, where FV is the future value, PV is the present value, r is the interest rate, and n is the number of periods, we get:

FV = CAD 650,000 x (1 + 0.0210)^4
FV = CAD 738,303.31

Next, we need to convert this future value from Canadian dollars to U.S. dollars using the current exchange rate of CAD1 = $0.74. Therefore, we get:

FV in USD = CAD 738,303.31 x $0.74
FV in USD = $545,356.92
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The after-tax cost of debt is the cost of debt adjusted for the tax savings due to the tax-deductibility of interest payments. The after-tax cost of debt is 4.41%.

The formula for after-tax cost of debt is: After-tax cost of debt = pre-tax cost of debt × (1 - tax rate). First, we need to calculate the pre-tax cost of debt, which can be found using the bond pricing formula:

Bond price = [tex](C × [1 - (1 + r)^(-n)] / r) + (M / (1 + r)^n)[/tex] Where: C = coupon payment, r = semi-annual yield to maturity, n = number of semi-annual periods, M = par value of the bond, Substituting the given values into the formula, we get: $1213.55 = [tex]($45 × [1 - (1 + r)^(-40)] / r) + ($1000 / (1 + r)^40)[/tex]

Solving for r using a financial calculator or spreadsheet software, we get a semi-annual yield to maturity of 3.50%. Next, we can calculate the pre-tax cost of debt: Pre-tax cost of debt = semi-annual yield to maturity × 2, Pre-tax cost of debt = 3.50% × 2 = 7.00%

Finally, we can calculate the after-tax cost of debt: After-tax cost of debt = pre-tax cost of debt × (1 - tax rate) After-tax cost of debt = 7.00% × (1 - 0.37) = 4.41%. Therefore, the after-tax cost of debt is 4.41%.

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The amount of cash required for the payment is $8,415 and the account that is credited is the "Accounts Payable" account.

a. First, let's calculate the net purchase amount by subtracting the returned merchandise value from the total purchase amount:
$10,900 (purchase amount) - $2,400 (returned merchandise) = $8,500 (net purchase amount)

Now, we need to determine the discount for paying within the 1/10 discount period. The discount is calculated as 1% of the net purchase amount:
$8,500 * 0.01 = $85 (discount)

Now, subtract the discount from the net purchase amount to find the cash required for payment:
$8,500 (net purchase amount) - $85 (discount) = $8,415

If Nieman Company pays the invoice within the discount period, the amount of cash required for the payment is $8,415 (rounded to the nearest dollar).

b. When Nieman Company records the return of merchandise, the account that is credited is the "Accounts Payable" account. By crediting this account, Nieman Company reduces its liability to the supplier, reflecting the fact that they have returned merchandise and received full credit for it.

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The price of a 0.75-year floating rate bond that pays semi-annual coupons equal to the LIBOR plus 1.0% spread is 100.0911.

To calculate this, follow these steps:
1. Determine the discount factors for each cash flow. Using the given zero-coupon bond prices: (I) DF1 = 99.9 / 100 = 0.999 and (II) DF2 = 99.6 / 100 = 0.996.
2. Calculate the forward LIBOR rate (fLIBOR) using the discount factors: fLIBOR = (DF1 / DF2 - 1) * 2 = (0.999 / 0.996 - 1) * 2 = 0.006012.
3. Calculate the cash flows of the floating rate bond: (IV) Coupon = (4% + 1%) / 2 = 2.5%, (III) Principal repayment = 100.8945.
4. Discount the cash flows using the discount factors: PV(Coupon) = 2.5 * DF1 = 2.5 * 0.999 = 2.4975, PV(Principal) = 100.8945 * DF2 = 100.8945 * 0.996 = 100.4936.
5. Sum the present values to find the bond price: 2.4975 + 100.4936 = 100.0911.

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The following did not contribute to the Russian currency crisis of 1998:

c. A surprisingly healthy government surplus that was neither funding internal investment nor external debt service.

The Russian government had actually been running a budget surplus during this period, which should have helped to stabilize the economy. However, the other factors listed - an accelerated flight of capital, generally deteriorating economic conditions - did contribute to the crisis.

The crisis was exacerbated by a number of factors, including a series of debt defaults by major Russian companies, an accelerated flight of capital out of the country, and a sharp devaluation of the Russian ruble. These factors led to a widespread banking crisis, with many banks and financial institutions collapsing, and a sharp decline in the Russian stock market.

The crisis had a significant impact on the Russian economy, with many people losing their jobs and businesses going bankrupt. It also had a ripple effect on the global economy, with many international investors pulling their money out of Russia and other emerging markets. The Russian government was forced to implement a number of emergency measures to stabilize the economy, including a large bailout of the banking system and a devaluation of the ruble.

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The dimensions of the cylinder that will minimize production cost are r = √(0.07/0.03)/2 and h = 2√(0.07/0.03).

To find the dimensions that will minimize production cost, we need to use optimization techniques. Let's first start by defining the variables we need.

Let r be the radius of the cylinder, and h be the height of the cylinder.

We know that the volume of the cylinder is given by V = πr^2h.

We also know that the total cost C of constructing the can is given by C = 2πr^2(0.07) + 2πrh(0.03).

Now, we can use calculus to find the critical points of the cost function.

We differentiate with respect to r and set it equal to zero:

dC/dr = 4πr(0.07) + 2πh(0.03) = 0

Simplifying, we get:

r = h/2

Next, we differentiate with respect to h and set it equal to zero:

dC/dh = 2πr(0.03) + 2π(0.07) = 0

Simplifying, we get:

r = √(0.07/0.03)

Substituting r = h/2 from the first equation, we get:

h = 2√(0.07/0.03)

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9.46% is the predicted growth rate, in line with Restex's current market value.

The interest tax shield for Restex is worth $8 million (rounded to the nearest million).

a. To determine the expected future growth rate, we can use the Gordon growth model:

Market value = Free cash flow / (Cost of equity - Growth rate)

Rearranging the equation, we get:

Growth rate = Cost of equity - Free cash flow / Market value

Substituting the given values, we get:

Growth rate = 15% - $10 million / $185 million

Growth rate = 9.46%

Therefore, the expected future growth rate consistent with Restex's current market value is 9.46%.

b. The value of Restex's interest tax shield can be calculated using the formula:

Value of interest tax shield = Debt * Cost of debt * (1 - Tax rate)

Substituting the given values, we get:

Value of interest tax shield = 0.72 * $185 million * 8% * (1 - 38%)

Value of interest tax shield = $8.16 million

Therefore, the value of Restex's interest tax shield is $8 million (rounded to the nearest million).

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A. You will make a donation of approximately $3,192.47 to your Alma Mater in year 12.

B. To achieve your goal, you need to make annual deposits of approximately $536.59 for the next 12 years.

A. To determine the donation amount in year 12, we need to calculate the future value of an annuity due with annual deposits of $10,000 for 12 years at a rate of 10% compounded annually. Using the formula for future value of an annuity due, we get:

FV = A x [((1+r)^n - 1)/r] x (1+r)

where A = annual deposit, r = interest rate, n = number of years

FV = $10,000 x [((1+0.1)^12 - 1)/0.1] x 1.1

FV = $3,192.47

Therefore, you will make a donation of approximately $3,192.47 to your Alma Mater in year 12.

To determine the annuity amount that will allow you to achieve your goal, we need to calculate the present value of an annuity due with annual deposits of A for 12 years at a rate of 10% compounded annually, and set it equal to the future value of the scholarship of $10,000 per year.

Using the formula for present value of an annuity due, we get:

PV = A x [1 - (1+r)^-n]/r x (1+r)

where A = annual deposit, r = interest rate, n = number of years

PV = $10,000 x [1 - (1+0.1)^-12]/0.1 x (1+0.1)

PV = $62,418.16

Therefore, you need to make annual deposits of approximately $536.59 for the next 12 years to achieve your goal.

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The size of the monthly payments is $1,221.94.

a. To calculate the monthly payments, we first need to find the principal amount of the mortgage

The down payment was 20% of the house value, which is:

$320,000 x 0.20 = $64,000

So the mortgage principal is:

$320,000 - $64,000 = $256,000

Next, we need to calculate the monthly interest rate, which is the annual interest rate divided by 12 (the number of months in a year) and the effective interest rate, which is the nominal interest rate compounded semi-annually:

i = (3.25% / 2) / 100 = 0.01625 per month

j = (1 + i)^6 - 1 = 0.100416

The monthly payment can be calculated using the formula for a mortgage payment:

M = P * [i(1+j)^n] / [(1+j)^n - 1]

where:

M = monthly payment

P = principal amount of the mortgage

i = monthly interest rate

j = effective interest rate

n = total number of payments

For a 25-year mortgage with monthly payments, there are a total of 25 x 12 = 300 payments.

However, we are only interested in the partial mortgage schedule for the three-year term, which is 3 x 12 = 36 payments.

So, substituting the values, we get:

M = $256,000 * [0.01625(1+0.100416)^36] / [(1+0.100416)^36 - 1] = $1,221.94

b. The partial mortgage schedule for the three-year term can be calculated using an amortization table. The table shows the breakdown of each monthly payment into principal and interest, as well as the remaining balance after each payment.

Month Payment Principal Interest Balance

1 $1,221.94 $351.34 $870.60 $255,648.66

2 $1,221.94 $353.31 $868.63 $255,295.35

3 $1,221.94 $355.28 $866.66 $254,940.07

... ... ... ... ...

34 $1,221.94 $411.80 $810.14 $212,036.49

35 $1,221.94 $413.96 $807.98 $211,622.53

36 $1,221.94 $416.12 $805.82 $211,206.41

The principal and interest columns are calculated as follows:

Principal = Payment - Interest

Interest = Balance * i

where i is the monthly interest rate calculated earlier.

Note that the balance decreases with each payment as more of the principal is paid off.

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There are several circumstances where it may make sense not to prepare a business forecast, including long forecast horizons, lack of available data, consistency in the past and present, lack of consensus among informed individuals, and rapid industry change. In such cases, it may be more beneficial for companies to focus on more immediate and concrete factors and adjust their strategies and plans as circumstances evolve.

Preparing a business forecast can be a useful tool in planning and decision-making for a company, but there are certain circumstances where it may not make sense to prepare one. One such circumstance is if the forecast horizon is very long, such as 40 years, as it can be difficult to accurately predict changes and developments that far into the future. Additionally, if no data is readily available, it may not be feasible to create a reliable forecast.

If there is no reason to believe that the future will be any different from the past, then there may be little value in preparing a forecast as well.Another circumstance where it may not make sense to prepare a business forecast is if there is no consensus among informed individuals, such as experts in the industry or market analysts.

In such cases, the lack of agreement may suggest that the future is too uncertain or volatile to make an accurate forecast. Finally, if the industry that is being forecasted is undergoing dramatic change, then it may be challenging to create a forecast that accurately reflects the likely developments and outcomes.

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The percentage increase in the ratio of price per share to earnings per share in terms of k and m is [(k - m) / (1 + m/100)] * 100%.

Let the initial price per share of stock X be P and the initial earnings per share be E.

After the price per share increased by k percent, the new price per share is:

P' = P + (k/100) * P = P(1 + k/100)

After the earnings per share increased by m percent, the new earnings per share is:

E' = E + (m/100) * E = E(1 + m/100)

Therefore, the new ratio of price per share to earnings per share is:

(P') / (E') = (P(1 + k/100)) / (E(1 + m/100))

The percentage increase in this ratio can be calculated as follows:

(P' / E') / (P / E) * 100% - 100%

= [(P(1 + k/100)) / (E(1 + m/100))] / (P / E) * 100% - 100%

= [(1 + k/100) / (1 + m/100)] * 100% - 100%

Using the fact that k > m, we can simplify this expression as follows:

[(1 + k/100) / (1 + m/100)] * 100% - 100%

= [(1 + k/100) - (1 + m/100)) / (1 + m/100)] * 100%

= [(k - m) / (1 + m/100)] * 100%

Therefore, the percentage increase in the ratio of price per share to earnings per share is [(k - m) / (1 + m/100)] * 100%.

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The involvement of the United States in the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank was designed to: promote global economic stability, facilitate international trade, and encourage sustainable economic growth in developing countries.

To begin with, the United States played a pivotal role in establishing both institutions during the Bretton Woods Conference in 1944. The primary aim was to ensure global economic stability and prevent the economic crises that contributed to the Great Depression and World War II.

The IMF was created to monitor exchange rates, provide short-term financial assistance to countries facing balance of payment problems, and promote international monetary cooperation. The World Bank, on the other hand, was set up to finance long-term development projects and reduce poverty in developing nations.

Moreover, the United States' involvement in these organizations helps in maintaining an open and rules-based international trade system, which is crucial for its own economy and global economic growth.

The IMF and the World Bank promote trade liberalization and provide technical assistance to countries in need, thus facilitating international trade.

Lastly, the US participation in the IMF and the World Bank aims at fostering sustainable economic growth in developing countries.

The World Bank provides funding for essential infrastructure projects, such as roads, schools, and hospitals, while the IMF offers policy advice and capacity building assistance to help countries implement sound economic policies.

In conclusion, the involvement of the United States in the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank is designed to promote global economic stability, facilitate international trade, and encourage sustainable economic growth in developing countries.

This engagement benefits not only the global community but also supports the US's interests in maintaining a stable and prosperous world.

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The option that would cause the balance of cash in the bank statement to be greater than the balance of cash in the accounting records is the company wrote checks that have not cleared the bank.

So, the correct answer is D.

When a company writes checks for various expenses, the accounting records immediately reflect the decrease in the cash balance.

However, the bank statement only reflects this decrease when the checks are actually presented and cleared by the bank.

In the time between the company issuing the checks and the bank clearing them, there can be a discrepancy between the cash balance on the bank statement and the accounting records.

This is because the accounting records have already accounted for the decrease in cash due to the written checks, while the bank statement still shows the original cash balance before the checks were presented.

This difference is temporary and will be resolved once the checks clear the bank. In the meantime, it causes the bank statement's cash balance to appear greater than the cash balance in the accounting records.

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The answer is $1,073.64.

To calculate the price of the bond, we need to discount the future cash flows (coupon payments and par value) at the required rate of return of 11%. Since the bond pays semi-annual coupons, we need to use a semi-annual discount rate of 5.5%.

Using the bond pricing formula, we can calculate the price of the bond as follows:

Price = (C/2)/(1 + r/2) + (C/2)/(1 + r/2)^2 + ... + (C/2)/(1 + r/2)^11 + (FV)/(1 + r/2)^12

Where:

C = coupon payment = 9% x $1,000 / 2 = $45

r = required rate of return = 11% / 2 = 5.5%

FV = par value = $1,000

Plugging in the values, we get:

Price = ($45/1.055) + ($45/1.055^2) + ... + ($45/1.055^11) + ($1,000/1.055^12)

Price = $531.69 + $497.96 + ... + $318.57 + $523.04

Price = $5,903.12 / 5.5

Price = $1,073.64 (rounded to two decimal points)

Therefore, the price paid for the bond is $1,073.64.

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In Joined Together States v. Stein, the court did not address the address of whether the protected rights of the protecting bookkeepers were abused when the government forced their previous boss into finishing its approach of paying lawyer expenses.

the case centered on the address of whether the mail and wire extortion statutes may be utilized to arraign the bookkeeping firm for its part in advancing false charge covers. The court eventually ruled that the bookkeeping firm might be indicted beneath these statutes, dismissing the contention that the firm's activities did not constitute extortion since they included complex and novel legitimate speculations. 

By and large, Joined Together States v. Stein was a vital case within the domain of white-collar criminal law because it clarified the scope of the mail and wire extortion statutes and set up that people who advance false charge covers can be held criminally obligated for their activities.

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The condition that must not be met for principal-principal (PP) conflicts to occur is "legislation that protects the interest of the minority shareholders." (option c).

Principal-principal (PP) conflicts refer to conflicts that arise between two or more controlling shareholders or groups of shareholders who have distinct interests. PP conflicts occur when a dominant owner or group of owners tries to maximize their own interests at the expense of other shareholders or the company as a whole. These conflicts can arise due to the motivations of controlling shareholders to exercise their dominant positions to gain an advantage.

Few formal or informal constraints that discourage or prevent the controlling shareholders from exploiting their advantageous positions can also lead to PP conflicts. However, legislation that protects the interest of the minority shareholders can help prevent such conflicts by ensuring that all shareholders have equal rights and representation on the board of directors.

Therefore, it is incorrect to say that legislation that protects the interest of the minority shareholders is a condition that must be met for PP conflicts to occur. Option c is answer.

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A - b. Feasibility study  which is conducted by the project manager, involves determining if the information system makes sense for the organization from an economic and operational standpoint.

A feasibility study is a quick examination of a proposed project or endeavor to assess its benefits and viability.

Hence,  option B. is correct.

A hospital, for instance, may do a feasibility study if it plans to grow, i.e., construct an addition to the structure. The research will help decide if the project should move forward. Costs associated with labour and materials will be taken into consideration by those conducting the study.

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The complete question is-

A ________,which is conducted by the project manager, involves determining if the information system makes sense for the organization from an economic and operational standpoint.

A)Tool

B)Feasibility study

C)Data flow

D)Methodology

The total dollar amount NCG Ltd will receive from issuing $5 million worth of 90-day bank bills at the current market interest rate of 6.25% p.a. is closest to $4,924,115. Therefore, the correct option is option 3.

1. Convert the annual interest rate to a daily rate:

(6.25% / 365 days) = 0.01712% per day

2. Calculate the total interest for 90 days:

(0.01712% * 90 days) = 1.541% total interest

3. Find the dollar amount of the total interest:

($5,000,000 * 1.541%) = $77,050

4. Subtract the total interest from the face value:

($5,000,000 - $77,050) = $4,922,950

The total dollar amount NCG Ltd will receive from this issue is closest to $4,924,115. Hence, the correct answer is option 3: $4,924,115.

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A. The principle repaid during the first three years of the loan is 1) R227 891.

B. The loan is for an amount not specified in the question, but we can determine the outstanding balance by using the present value formula:

PV = FV / (1 + r)^n

where PV is the present value, FV is the future value, r is the interest rate, and n is the number of years.

Using the given information, we can calculate the present value of the loan:

PV = 137828 * ((1 - (1 + 0.105)^-7) / 0.105) = R721,140.60

The outstanding balance at the end of the first year will be the present value minus the payment made:

Balance Y1 = PV - Payment Y1 = R721,140.60 - R137,828 = R583,312.60

The outstanding balance at the end of the second year will be the balance at the end of the first year plus the interest:

Balance Y2 = Balance Y1 * (1 + r) - Payment Y2 = R583,312.60 * 1.105 - R137,828 = R556,845.62

The outstanding balance at the end of the third year will be the balance at the end of the second year plus the interest:

Balance Y3 = Balance Y2 * (1 + r) - Payment Y3 = R556,845.62 * 1.105 - R137,828 = R527,684.71

The principle repaid during the first three years will be the original amount of the loan minus the outstanding balance at the end of the third year:

Principle Repaid Y1-3 = PV - Balance Y3 = R721,140.60 - R527,684.71 = R227 891.

Rounding this value to the nearest rand gives us the answer: 1) R227 891.

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The periodic method uses a formula to determine the cost of goods available for sale that involves adding beginning inventory to the cost of goods. Thus, option A is correct.

The starting value of inventory plus the cost of products purchased equals the cost of the goods that are now on the market. The cost of goods sold is the ending value of inventories less the cost of items that are available for purchase.

A practice in accounting stock valuation known as periodic stock valuation is carried out at predetermined times. At the end of the quarter, businesses physically count their products and use the data to balance their general ledger. The remaining funds are then applied to the start of the new period. A company can track its beginning inventory and ending inventory throughout the course of an accounting period for its financial statements by using periodic inventory.

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If Cambridge Construction Company is following the percentage-of-completion method for reporting long-term contract revenues based on the cost of materials shipped, then they may be incentivized to purchase more materials than necessary in order to increase their reported completion percentage.

This could lead to increased spending on materials, even if they are not needed for the project, which could be interpreted as an attempt to buy their way out of the debt agreement covenants.

By inflating their reported completion percentage, Cambridge may be able to convince lenders that they have enough working capital to meet their obligations, even if they are actually using cash reserves to purchase excess materials.

This practice could allow them to continue to borrow and spend, but it also carries risks of cost overruns, waste, and project delays if the excess materials are not effectively used.

Ultimately, it will be important for Cambridge to balance the pressures of meeting debt covenants with the need for responsible project management and cost control.

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