the beatrice manufacturing company increased its merchandise inventory by $28,000 over the year. the company also granted its customers more liberal credit terms which increased the accounts receivable by $54,000. sales were $1,030,000 and the accounts payable decreased by $49,500. the gross profit on sales is 45%. marketing and administrative expenses were $167,000; this included depreciation expense of $26,000. what were the cash disbursements for the year?

A hot site should be used as a recovery strategy when the organization's recovery time objective is high and the organization's maximum tolerable downtime is low.

This is because a hot site is a fully operational duplicate of the primary site, which means that it can be quickly activated in the event of a disaster or outage. This allows the organization to quickly resume operations and minimize downtime, which is important when the organization's recovery point objective is high.

Additionally, a hot site can be used when the organization's disaster downtime tolerance is low, as it ensures that critical systems and data are always available and accessible. Overall, a hot site is a valuable recovery strategy for organizations that require high availability and minimal downtime.

to know more about recovery strategy refer here

https://brainly.com/question/29824274#

#SPJ11

C. 8.92%. The stock market return is calculated by subtracting the risk-free rate from the risk premium. In this case, the risk premium is 6.48 percent and the risk-free rate is 2.44 percent.

Thus, the stock market return is calculated by subtracting the risk-free rate from the risk premium, which results in 8.92 percent.

This calculation is important for investors in order to understand how much return they can expect on their investments. The risk premium is the difference between the expected return on a security or portfolio and the risk-free rate.

The higher the risk premium, the higher the expected return. The risk-free rate is the rate of return on a security that has no risk of default. By subtracting the risk-free rate from the risk premium, investors can calculate the expected return on their investments.

In conclusion, the stock market return in this case is 8.92 percent, which is calculated by subtracting the risk-free rate of 2.44 percent from the risk premium of 6.48 percent. This calculation is important for investors to understand how much return they can expect on their investments.

Know more about risk-free rate here

https://brainly.com/question/23538362#

#SPJ11

To calculate the current market price of the bond, we can use the bond valuation formula:

Bond Price = (C / (1 + r/n)^nt) + (FV / (1 + r/n)^nt)

Where:

C = the semiannual coupon payment

r = the yield to maturity, expressed as a decimal

n = the number of coupon payments per year

t = the number of years until maturity

FV = the face value of the bond

Plugging in the given values:

C = 0.09 x $1,000 / 2 = $45

r = 0.10

n = 2

t = 12

FV = $1,000

Bond Price = ($45 / (1 + 0.10/2)^(212)) + ($1,000 / (1 + 0.10/2)^(212))

Bond Price = ($45 / 1.100566^24) + ($1,000 / 1.100566^24)

Bond Price = $383.76 + $314.20

Bond Price = $697.96

Therefore, "the current market price of the bond is $697.96...

To know more about current market price refer here

https://brainly.com/question/22435494#

#SPJ11

a. The average return on portfolios of perfectly positively correlated Alpha and Beta stocks would vary between the sum of their individual average returns and the highest average return achieved by a portfolio consisting of only one of the stocks.

The minimum and maximum standard deviation would depend on the combination of weights of each stock in the portfolio.

b. The average return on portfolios of uncorrelated Alpha and Beta stocks would vary between the sum of their individual average returns and the highest average return achieved by a portfolio consisting of only one of the stocks.

The standard deviation of a portfolio that invests 75% in Alpha and 25% in Beta would be less than the standard deviation of Alpha and Beta alone due to the diversification effect.

c. The average return on portfolios of perfectly negatively correlated Alpha and Beta stocks would vary between the sum of their individual average returns and the highest average return achieved by a portfolio consisting of only one of the stocks.

The standard deviation of a portfolio that invests 62.5% in Alpha and 37.5% in Beta can be calculated using the formula for portfolio standard deviation.

For more questions like Portfolio click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/29333981

#SPJ11

The NPV of this opportunity is $271.52. NPV represents the difference between the present value of cash inflows and the present value of cash outflows.

To calculate the NPV (Net Present Value) of the investment opportunity, we need to discount the cash flows to their present values using the given interest rate of 1.9%.

First, let's calculate the present value of the cash inflows:

PV(CF1) = $4,360 / (1 + 1.9%)^1 = $4,277.60

PV(CF2) = $4,360 / (1 + 1.9%)^2 = $4,197.10

PV(CF3) = $4,360 / (1 + 1.9%)^3 = $4,117.12

The initial investment of $1,090 also needs to be discounted to its present value:

PV(CF0) = -$1,090 / (1 + 1.9%)^0 = -$1,090

The additional investment of $5,450 at the end of the second year needs to be discounted to its present value as well:

PV(CF2) = -$5,450 / (1 + 1.9%)^2 = -$5,310.10

Now, we can calculate the NPV of the investment opportunity by summing up the present values of the cash flows:

NPV = PV(CF0) + PV(CF1) + PV(CF2) + PV(CF3)

NPV = -$1,090 + $4,277.60 + $4,197.10 + $4,117.12 + (-$5,310.10)

NPV = $271.52

The NPV of the investment opportunity is positive, which indicates that the investment is expected to generate a return greater than the required rate of return. Therefore, Marian should take this opportunity.

for more such questions on inflows

https://brainly.com/question/28909210

#SPJ11

The statement "If the stock owned by a mutual fund increases in value, the net value of the fund will fall" is false because  When the stock owned by a mutual fund increases in value, it means the assets held by the fund are appreciating.

As a result, the net asset value (NAV) of the mutual fund will also increase. The NAV is calculated by dividing the total value of the fund's assets by the number of shares outstanding.

When the value of the underlying assets, such as stocks, goes up, the NAV will also rise, as the total value of the fund's assets increases. Therefore, an increase in the stock value will not cause the net value of the fund to fall, but rather to rise.

To know more about mutual fund click on below link:

https://brainly.com/question/31417979#

#SPJ11

a. The value of Equity/Value =0.0288 and Debt/Value = 0.9712

b. The value of Equity/Value =0.4087 and Debt/Value = 0.5913

a. The company's capital structure weights on a book value basis are as follows:

Equity/Value = 7,000,000 x $6 / ($70,000,000 x 0.94 + $40,000,000 x 1.07) = 0.0288 and

Debt/Value = ($70,000,000 x 0.94 + $40,000,000 x 1.07) / ($70,000,000 x 0.94 + $40,000,000 x 1.07 + 7,000,000 x $6) = 0.9712.

b. The company's capital structure weights on a market value basis are as follows:

Equity/Value = 7,000,000 x $79 / ($70,000,000 x 0.94 + $40,000,000 x 1.07 + 7,000,000 x $79) = 0.4087 and Debt/Value = ($70,000,000 x 0.94 + $40,000,000 x 1.07) / ($70,000,000 x 0.94 + $40,000,000 x 1.07 + 7,000,000 x $79) = 0.5913.

The more relevant weights are the market value weights because they reflect the current market prices of the company's securities, which are likely to be more accurate indicators of the true values of the securities and the company's overall capital structure.

Book value weights, on the other hand, only take into account historical accounting values, which may not accurately reflect the current market values or future prospects of the company.

To know more about current market values  click on below link:

https://brainly.com/question/14773843#

#SPJ11

The answer you will obtain 2000 Russian rubles for your euros.

To find the Russian ruble to euro cross rate, we need to use the spot rates for both RUB/USD and INR/USD. First, we need to convert the RUB/USD rate to RUB/EUR. We can do this by dividing 1 by the RUB/USD rate:1 / 1.1280 = 0.8873This means that 1 euro is equal to 0.8873 Russian rubles.Next, we need to convert the INR/USD rate to INR/EUR. We can do this by multiplying the INR/USD rate by the EUR/USD rate (which we can find by dividing 1 by the USD/EUR rate):62.40 * (1/1.1280) = 55.36This means that 1 euro is equal to 55.36 Indian rupees.Finally, we can use these two cross rates to find the RUB/EUR rate.

We can do this by dividing the RUB/USD rate bythe INR/USD rate, and then multiplying by the INR/EUR rate:(1.1280 / 62.40) * 55.36 = 1.00So the Russian ruble to euro cross rate is 1.00 RUB/EUR.To find out how many Russian rubles you will obtain for your euros, we simply need to multiply the amount of euros (2000) by the RUB/EUR cross rate (1.00):2000 * 1.00 = 2000So you will obtain 2000 Russian rubles for your euros.

Learn more about summer study here:https://brainly.com/question/10428147

#SPJ11

if Steve's regular tax for 2022 is $265,500, and his TMT is $244,200, he will owe the IRS $265,500, since this is the higher of the two amounts. In this scenario, Steve's regular tax exceeds his TMT, so he will only pay the regular tax amount.

Steve's tentative minimum tax (TMT) is a minimum tax that ensures that individuals who have significant deductions or use tax shelters still pay a minimum amount of tax. The TMT is calculated separately from the regular tax, and the higher of the two amounts is the amount owed to the IRS.

If Steve's regular tax for 2022 is $227,700, and his TMT is $244,200, he will owe the IRS $244,200, since this is the higher of the two amounts. The regular tax is calculated based on taxable income and applicable tax rates, while the TMT is calculated based on a set of alternative tax rules that limit certain deductions and credits.

It's important to note that the TMT is a complex tax calculation and can vary depending on an individual's circumstances. It's also subject to change each year based on inflation adjustments and changes to the tax code. Taxpayers who believe they may be subject to the TMT should consult with a tax professional to ensure they are properly calculating their tax liability.

To learn more about tentative minimum tax

https://brainly.com/question/15056544

#SPJ4

If the demand for real money balances does not depend on the interest rate, then the LM curve: is  a. vertical.

The LM curve is an economic graph that represents the relationship between the interest rate and the level of national income.

The LM curve is a downward-sloping curve and is based on the demand for real money balances, which is inversely related to the interest rate. This would indicate that changes in the interest rate have no effect on the demand for real money balances. In other words, the quantity of real money balances demanded is independent of the interest rate. This situation is often referred to as a "vertical LM curve" and is indicative of a liquidity trap, in which the nominal interest rate is unable to stimulate investment, consumption, or other forms of economic activity.

Know more about Demand here

https://brainly.com/question/29703449#

#SPJ11

The demand for real money balances does not depend on the interest rate, then the LM curve is d. is horizontal.

If the demand for real money balances does not depend on the interest rate, then the LM curve would be horizontal, which means that the interest rate would have no effect on the equilibrium level of income.

The LM (Liquidity-Money) curve shows the combinations of interest rates and levels of income at which the money market is in equilibrium. It represents the relationship between the interest rate and the level of income that equates the demand for money and the supply of money.

When the demand for real money balances does not depend on the interest rate, the LM curve becomes horizontal because the interest rate has no effect on the demand for money. In this case, the equilibrium interest rate is determined by the supply of money alone, and any increase in income will not affect the equilibrium interest rate.

Learn more about horizontal here:

https://brainly.com/question/29019854

#SPJ11

Business firms that compete with each other not only in one business unit, but in a number of related business units are said to be engaging in "related diversification".

Related diversification is a strategy used by companies to expand their operations by entering into businesses that are related to their existing business. This allows them to leverage their existing resources, capabilities, and knowledge in new markets and product lines.

For example, a company that produces and sells smartphones may also enter the tablet market, leveraging its expertise in mobile devices to expand its product portfolio. Similarly, a company that produces and sells sports apparel may also enter the fitness equipment market, leveraging its brand and distribution network to expand into a related business.

The advantage of related diversification is that it allows companies to achieve economies of scale, reduce risk through diversification, and share resources across different business units. However, it also requires careful management to ensure that the different business units are integrated effectively and that the company's overall strategy is coherent and consistent.

You can learn more about diversification at

https://brainly.com/question/417234

#SPJ11

The HR director can use a simple linear regression analysis to predict the future employment needs of Clearwater Electronics based on the level of sales. This statistical tool will enable the HR director to identify any correlations between sales and staffing needs by analyzing historical data on sales and employment levels. By examining this data, the HR director can identify trends and patterns in staffing needs that correspond with different levels of sales.

Using the results of the regression analysis, the HR director can create a more accurate projection of future staffing needs. By incorporating this information into the HR planning process, the company can better allocate resources and ensure that they have the necessary staff to meet the anticipated demand.

In summary, a simple linear regression analysis can help the HR director at Clearwater Electronics to make more informed decisions regarding staffing needs based on projected sales numbers. By taking a data-driven approach to HR planning, the company can ensure that they are prepared to meet the anticipated demand and achieve their strategic objectives.

Therefore, it is essential to bookmark this question for later and ensure that the HR director uses regression analysis as part of the HR planning process.

For more questions on: statistical

https://brainly.com/question/27906899

#SPJ11

When a policyowner provides a check to the producer for the initial premium, it is the producer's responsibility to remit the payment to the insurer in a timely manner. Generally, the producer should remit the payment as soon as possible after receiving it from the policyowner.

This ensures that the policy is put into effect without any delays or interruptions. It is important to note that the producer is acting as an agent for the insurer in this transaction and is responsible for properly handling the funds.

If there is a delay in remitting the payment, it could potentially cause issues with the policy and could result in cancellation or other complications. Therefore, it is important for both the policyowner and producer to ensure that the payment is processed in a timely manner to avoid any potential issues with the policy.

To know more about insurance, visit https://brainly.com/question/25855858

#SPJ11

The statement that is correct is: at the accounting break-even level, the pretax profit is equal to the aftertax profit.

The correct statement is: at the accounting break-even level, the pretax profit is equal to the aftertax profit. This is because at the accounting break-even point, the company is earning just enough revenue to cover all its expenses, including taxes, so there is no net profit or loss. The other statements are not necessarily true.

The contribution margin is sales minus variable costs, not fixed costs. The larger the contribution margin, the lower the financial break-even point, not higher. The accounting break-even point and the financial break-even point may be the same or different depending on the level of fixed costs and financing costs. Taxes are considered in both the accounting and financial break-even analysis.    

To know more about Accounting break-even point.

visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28258856

#SPJ11

A monthly telephone bill is an example of revolving credit i.e. option C. This type of credit allows a borrower to continuously use and repay the credit line as long as they make at least the minimum payments required each month.

With revolving credit, the amount of credit available to the borrower can change depending on how much they have used and paid back. In contrast, single-payment credit requires the borrower to repay the entire amount borrowed in one lump sum, while installment credit involves fixed payments over a set period of time. Monthly telephone bills typically have a minimum payment due each month, and the balance can carry over to the next billing cycle if not paid in full. Therefore, it falls under the category of revolving credit.

Thus, the right option is C.

To know more about credit, visit https://brainly.com/question/13964348

#SPJ11

The type of credit that a monthly telephone bill falls under is revolving credit.

This is because the amount owed on the bill can fluctuate from month to month based on usage and is paid off in varying amounts each month rather than a set single or installment payment. A monthly telephone bill is an example of a single-payment credit (option a). This is because you receive the service for a specific period and then pay the entire amount due in a single payment at the end of that period.

Learn more about credit here:

https://brainly.com/question/1475993

#SPJ11

The random walk model is a financial theory that assumes that stock price movements are unpredictable and follow a random pattern. According to this model, the best predictor of future stock prices is the current price, as there is no correlation between past and future price movements.

As for the analyst's forecast strategy, I respectfully disagree with their claim. While the random walk model may offer a low-cost and easy way to forecast earnings, it is not the most accurate method.

Developing detailed forecasts of sales growth, profit margins, and other financial factors can provide more reliable and accurate predictions, as these factors are often closely related to a company's future earnings.

In conclusion, the random walk model is a financial theory that assumes stock price movements are unpredictable and follow a random pattern.

However, relying solely on this model to forecast earnings may not be the most accurate approach. Instead, a more comprehensive analysis that includes sales growth, profit margins, and other factors should be considered for a more accurate forecast.

To know more about financial theory, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/14728042#

#SPJ11

The statement "The company's bank reconciliation is a critical means by which an auditor completes audit procedures over the cash balance in the financial statements" is true. Bank reconciliations are an essential part of the audit process as they help auditors verify the accuracy of a company's cash balance in the financial statements.

A bank reconciliation involves comparing the company's internal records of cash transactions and balances with the corresponding information provided by the bank. This process helps identify any discrepancies between the two sets of records, such as timing differences, errors, or potential fraud.

1. Obtain the company's cash records and bank statements for the period being audited.

2. Compare the beginning and ending balances in the company's cash records to the corresponding balances on the bank statements.

3. Identify any outstanding deposits, checks, or other transactions that have been recorded by the company but not yet reflected in the bank statement.

4. Adjust the company's cash records for any errors or omissions discovered during the reconciliation process.

5. Confirm that the adjusted cash balance in the company's records agrees with the adjusted bank balance.

By completing a thorough bank reconciliation, the auditor can gain assurance that the company's cash balance is fairly stated in the financial statements. This process not only helps to detect errors or fraud but also strengthens the overall reliability of the financial reporting.

To know more about bank reconciliation, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/29097188#

#SPJ11

Jennifer is likely referring to the net present value (NPV) of a project or investment. The NPV is a calculation that takes into account the present value of expected future cash flows and compares it to the initial investment.

The goal is to determine if the project is financially viable and if it will generate a positive return on investment. To determine what rate of return would result in a specific NPV, you would need to use a financial calculator or spreadsheet software to run different scenarios.

You would input the initial investment, expected cash flows, and discount rate (the rate of return required to make the investment worthwhile) to determine the NPV. Then you could adjust the discount rate until you reach the desired NPV.

It's important to note that the discount rate used in the NPV calculation should reflect the risk associated with the project or investment. Higher-risk projects or investments would require a higher discount rate to compensate for the uncertainty.

You can learn more about net present value at: brainly.com/question/29669538

#SPJ11

Agency conflicts arise from the multiplicity of stakeholders in a firm, as each stakeholder has different interests and objectives. Resolving agency conflicts involves converging the interests of these varied stakeholders.

Agency conflicts occur when the objectives of a firm's various stakeholders, such as shareholders, management, and employees, conflict with one another. This is a direct outcome of having multiple parties involved in a firm, each with their own goals and preferences. To resolve these conflicts, it's crucial to find a convergence point for the interests of all stakeholders. This may involve establishing a strong corporate governance framework, aligning incentives, and promoting transparent communication.

By ensuring that all stakeholders' interests are considered and properly balanced, a firm can create a more cohesive and harmonious working environment, ultimately leading to increased productivity and long-term success. Agency conflicts arise from the multiplicity of stakeholders in a firm, as each stakeholder has different interests and objectives. Resolving agency conflicts involves converging the interests of these varied stakeholders.

Learn more about agency conflicts at:

https://brainly.com/question/24211164

#SPJ11

Saved Robert constantly makes money on his stock investments by analyzing financial statements. This piece of evidence does not violate market efficiency is B. the weak-form.

The weak-form of market efficiency states that all past trading information, such as stock prices and volume, is already reflected in current stock prices. Therefore, investors cannot consistently generate excess returns by analyzing historical price patterns. However, the weak-form does not account for fundamental analysis, which involves examining financial statements and other company-related information. In contrast, the semi-strong form of market efficiency suggests that all publicly available information, including financial statements, is already incorporated into stock prices. If the market were semi-strong form efficient, Robert would not be able to consistently make money through financial statement analysis.

The strong form of market efficiency posits that all information, public and private, is reflected in stock prices, making it even more difficult for investors like Robert to consistently generate excess returns. In conclusion, Robert's success in stock investments by analyzing financial statements does not violate the weak-form of market efficiency, as it only considers past trading information and not fundamental analysis. Saved Robert constantly makes money on his stock investments by analyzing financial statements. This piece of evidence does not violate market efficiency is B. the weak-form.

Learn more about fundamental analysis at:

https://brainly.com/question/31412886

#SPJ11

To calculate the change in EPS, we need to find the earnings available to shareholders after the proposed debt issue and share repurchase.  EPS will decrease by $0.72, Correct answer is option A

Before the debt issue, the company has 25,000 shares outstanding and produces an annual EBIT of $150,000, which means earnings per share (EPS) are: EPS = Earnings / Shares = $150,000 / 25,000 = $6.00

If the company issues $300,000 of debt, the interest expense would be $36,000 ($300,000 x 12%), leaving EBIT of $114,000 ($150,000 - $36,000). The company then repurchases shares with the proceeds of the debt issue, reducing the number of outstanding shares.

Let's assume the company repurchases 10,000 shares at the current market price of $30 per share, leaving 15,000 shares outstanding.The earnings available to shareholders after the debt issue and share repurchase would be:

Earnings = EBIT - Interest expense = $114,000 - $36,000 = $78,000 EPS = Earnings / Shares = $78,000 / 15,000 = $5.28. Therefore, the change in EPS is: Change in EPS = New EPS - Old EPS = $5.28 - $6.00 = -$0.72

So the answer is not among the options provided. The EPS will decrease by $0.72 if the company issues the debt and EBIT remains constant. Correct answer is option A

Know more about debt here:

https://brainly.com/question/31102427

#SPJ11

total variable overhead is $406,250 . The correct answer is option D.

To calculate the total variable overhead, we can use the formula for variable costing, which is: Variable Cost per Unit = Direct Materials + Direct Labor + Variable Overhead

We are given that the cost per unit of finished goods using variable costing is $2,375. We also know that the direct materials cost is $750 per unit and the direct labor cost is $1,000 per unit.

Substituting these values into the formula, we get:$2,375 = $750 + $1,000 + Variable Overhead.Solving for Variable Overhead, we get:Variable Overhead = $2,375 - $750 - $1,000 = $625

Since we want the total variable overhead, we need to multiply this amount by the number of units produced, which is 650. Total Variable Overhead = Variable Overhead per Unit x Units Product.Total Variable Overhead = $625 x 650 = $406,250 . Therefore, the answer is option D: $406,250.

To know more about total variable,refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/28013522#

#SPJ11

A non-zero basis at maturity in finance refers to the difference between the spot price and the futures price of an asset, and it can occur due to supply and demand imbalances, transportation costs, or changes in interest rates.

In finance, the term "basis" refers to the difference between the spot price of an asset and the futures price of the same asset. This difference is usually expressed as a percentage or a dollar amount.

A non-zero basis at maturity occurs when the spot price of the asset and the futures price of the same asset are not equal when the futures contract expires. Here are three situations that could result in a non-zero basis at maturity:

Learn more about non-zero basis.

brainly.com/question/14351050

#SPJ11

To expand your business to two new continents, Europe and Asia, your company will need a total capital amount of $5m.

Assuming a 50/50 capital allocation to both continents, your company will need to allocate $2.5m to each continent.

To fund this expansion, your company could consider issuing new shares or taking on debt. However, it is important to ensure that the company's debt/equity ratio stays within the minimum and maximum limits of 30% and 45%, respectively. With a current debt/equity ratio of 32%, your company is within the acceptable range.

Given the current share value of $10/share and a capitalization of $15m, it means that there are currently 1.5m shares outstanding. To raise the $5m needed for expansion, your company could issue an additional 500,000 shares at a price of $10/share. This would bring the total number of outstanding shares to 2m.

Another option to consider is a stock split. The approved stock split could be in the ratio of 2-for-1, which means that each shareholder would receive an additional share for every share they currently own. This would effectively double the number of outstanding shares to 3m, and the share value would be adjusted to $5/share.

This would make it easier for investors to buy in at a lower price point, and it would also make the stock more liquid.

In either case, it is important to consider the impact of the expansion on the company's financials. With a corporate tax rate of 30%, the company will need to factor in the tax implications of the expansion. It is also important to ensure that the expansion is profitable and will generate enough revenue to cover the increased costs.

To know more about total capital amount, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28499903#

#SPJ11

1) A change in required yield for a preferred stock is likely to have a greater impact on price than a change in required yield for bonds because preferred stocks have characteristics of both stocks and bonds.

They have fixed dividend payments like bonds, but also have the potential for appreciation like stocks. Therefore, changes in required yield will have a greater impact on the perceived risk and return of preferred stocks, causing a larger change in price.

2) The change in price does not always occur according to the model because valuation models are based on investors' assumptions and expectations, which can change rapidly due to various factors such as economic events, news, and market sentiment.

Additionally, market efficiency can cause prices to quickly adjust to new information, which may result in prices deviating from the valuation model. Therefore, while valuation models provide a framework for understanding asset prices, they are not always accurate predictors of actual prices.

To know more about valuation model click on below link:

https://brainly.com/question/28962032#

#SPJ11

The missing cash flow in year 3 is approximately $25,315.21.

To find the missing cash flow in year 3, we'll first calculate the present value of the cash flows for years 1 and 2, and then subtract them from the combined present value of $80,000.

Finally, we'll find the future value of the remaining amount.

Year 1 cash flow:

PV = FV / (1 + r)! PV1 = $43,000 / (1 + 0.07)¹= $43,000 / 1.07 ≈ $40,186.92

Year 2 cash flow:

PV2 = $21,000 / (1 + 0.07)² = $21,000 / 1.1449 ≈ $18,333.90

Combined present value of years 1 and 2:

PV12 = PV1 + PV2 = $40,186.92 + $18,333.90 ≈ $58,520.82

Remaining present value for year 3:

PV3 = $80,000 - $58,520.82 = $21,479.18

Now, calculate the missing cash flow's value in year 3:

FV3 = PV3 * (1 + r)!

FV3 = $21,479.18 × (1 + 0.07)³ ≈ $25,315.21

Learn more about cash flow at

https://brainly.com/question/29768594

#SPJ11

Firm A's cash flows would be more stable if its foreign sales were lower and the number of exporting economies' size is small. Option C is answer.

This is because having a larger proportion of foreign sales means that the company is more exposed to fluctuations in exchange rates and economic conditions in other countries. By reducing foreign sales and focusing on domestic sales, the company can achieve greater stability in its cash flows. Additionally, dealing with fewer exporting economies means less exposure to country-specific risks, further contributing to cash flow stability.

Option C is answer.

You can learn more about ash flows at

https://brainly.com/question/10922478

#SPJ11

The main focus of ethics audits is to assess and report on a firm's performance in terms of ethical issues.

Unlike social reports, which cover a broader range of social responsibility issues, ethics audits have a narrower focus on the ethical performance of a firm. Ethics audits evaluate a company's behavior and decision-making processes against a set of ethical standards and principles, such as honesty, integrity, and fairness.

An ethics audit typically involves a review of a company's policies and procedures, as well as its actual practices and behaviors, to identify areas of potential ethical concern. The audit may also include interviews with employees and stakeholders to gather additional information and insights. The findings of an ethics audit are typically summarized in a report, which identifies areas of strength as well as areas for improvement, and provides recommendations for addressing any identified ethical issues.

Overall, the goal of an ethics audit is to help a company ensure that its actions and decisions align with ethical principles and standards, and to promote a culture of integrity and ethical behavior within the organization.

To know more about the Audit, here

https://brainly.com/question/30694943

#SPJ4

The NPV of the project has a payback period of 2.5 years and the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) of 796 is $423,345. The statement indicating the disadvantage of using the discounted payback period for capital budgeting decisions is - The discounted payback period does not take the project's entire life into account.

A capital budgeting technique used to assess a project's profitability is the discounted payback period.

By discounting future cash flows and taking into account the time value of money, a discounted payback period calculates how many years it will take to recover the initial investment.

The metric is employed to assess a project's viability and profitability. The detailed calculation for NPV is attached below.

To learn more on discounted payback period, here:

https://brainly.com/question/27835298

#SPJ12

The theory proposes that most factors which contribute to job satisfaction are motivators (achievement, recognition, the satisfaction of the work itself, responsibility and opportunities for advancement and growth) and most factors which contribute to job dissatisfaction are hygiene elements (company policy, general )

What is meant by Herzbergs theory?

According to Herzberg's theory of motivation, job content refers to the actual tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job. This includes factors such as the level of challenge, creativity, and autonomy that an individual has in performing their work. In practical terms, job content could include the opportunity for employees to take on new projects, to work independently, or to have a say in the direction of their work.On the other hand, job context refers to the environment in which the work is performed. This includes factors such as the physical conditions of the workplace, the relationships between colleagues, and the level of support and resources available to employees. In practical terms, job context could include aspects such as the quality of the workplace facilities, the amount of training and development opportunities provided, and the level of collaboration and teamwork encouraged within the organization.Herzberg argued that job content factors were more likely to be motivators for employees, whereas job context factors were more likely to be hygiene factors that could prevent dissatisfaction but did not necessarily lead to motivation. Therefore, to create a motivating work environment, it is important for organizations to focus on providing challenging and meaningful job content, while also ensuring that the job context is supportive and conducive to positive work experiences.

to know more about the herzbergs theory:

https://brainly.com/question/30596284

#SPJ11