The corporate valuation model is a valuation based on
a. the firm's capital gains yield. b. the firm's future free cash flows. c. the firm's preferred stock value. d. the firm's expected retained earnings. e. the firm's estimated revenue growth rate.

Answers

Answer 1

The corporate valuation model is a valuation based on the firm's future free cash flows.

This model takes into account the projected cash flows that the company will generate in the future, and calculates the present value of those cash flows using a discount rate.

This provides an estimate of the company's overall value.

The other options listed (capital gains yield, preferred stock value, expected retained earnings, and estimated revenue growth rate) may be important factors to consider in a company's valuation, but they are not the basis of the corporate valuation model.

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Related Questions

Antitrust authorities in the US worry that firms in concentrated industries ""exploit"" the consumers of their products and services due to a lack of competitive pressure. Is this event (decreasing total number of commercial banks) evidence in the U.S. banking industry consistent with this concern? What more detailed information might buttress your argument?

Answers

Yes, the decreasing total number of commercial banks in the U.S. banking industry is consistent with the concern that firms in concentrated industries exploit consumers due to a lack of competitive pressure.

When there are fewer players in a market, the remaining firms have greater control over pricing and product offerings. This can lead to higher prices and lower quality products or services for consumers. Buttressing this argument, we can look at the trend of mergers and acquisitions within the U.S. banking industry. Over the past few decades, there has been a significant consolidation of banks, resulting in a smaller number of large institutions dominating the market. This has reduced competition and made it harder for new entrants to compete.

Additionally, studies have shown that consumers in more concentrated banking markets pay higher fees and receive lower interest rates on deposits. These findings support the concern that firms in concentrated industries may exploit consumers due to a lack of competitive pressure
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when a salesperson responds quickly to a service failure and delights the customer with the outcome, it is called

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When a salesperson responds quickly to a service failure and delights the customer with the outcome, it is called "service recovery."

Service recovery is the process of taking action to correct a service failure and make things right with the customer. This can include apologizing for the mistake, finding a solution to the problem, and offering compensation or incentives to the customer.

Service recovery is important because it can help to restore the customer's trust in the company and improve their overall satisfaction with the service. It also provides an opportunity for the company to learn from the mistake and improve their processes to prevent similar issues from happening in the future.

Overall, effective service recovery can have a positive impact on the customer experience and the company's reputation. By responding quickly and taking the necessary steps to resolve the issue, salespeople can turn a negative situation into a positive one and create loyal customers who are more likely to recommend the company to others.

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which three key levers below are needed for an organization to effectively design its reporting relationships and broader organizational structure?

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When designing reporting relationships and organizational structure, organizations need to consider the balance between specialization, centralization, and formalization. The right balance will depend on the organization's goals, size, complexity, and the environment in which it operates.

Organizational structure is the framework that outlines how an organization operates, how different departments are interconnected, and how decision-making is distributed across various levels. Reporting relationships are an essential part of organizational structure, as they define who reports to whom and how information flows through the organization. When designing reporting relationships and organizational structure, three key levers must be taken into consideration: specialization, centralization, and formalization.

Specialization refers to the extent to which the organization's tasks and responsibilities are divided into separate jobs. Specialization can be vertical or horizontal. Vertical specialization refers to the division of work based on hierarchical levels, while horizontal specialization is the division of work based on functional or product-related groups. The level of specialization determines how narrowly or broadly defined a job is, which affects the degree of skill, knowledge, and training required for the job.

Centralization refers to the extent to which decision-making authority is concentrated at higher levels of the organization. In a centralized structure, decisions are made by top-level managers, while lower-level employees are responsible for implementing those decisions. In a decentralized structure, decision-making authority is distributed across different levels of the organization, allowing lower-level employees to make decisions independently.

Formalization refers to the degree to which rules, procedures, and policies govern the organization's activities. Formalization helps to create consistency in decision-making and ensures that employees understand their roles and responsibilities. However, excessive formalization can lead to rigid and inflexible organizational structures, making it difficult to respond to changing circumstances.

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Fifteen customers arrive every hour​ (Poisson distributed) at Andy​ Johnson's food truck when it parks outside the Orlando Courthouse from 11-2 p.m. on weekdays. It takes Andy a mean time of 2 minutes to fill each order​ (following a negative exponential​distribution). The Waiting Line Table is provided below and also we know that
​a) What is the average number of customers in the​ queue? Using the​ table, the average number of customers in the queue is nothing customers ​(round your response to four decimal​ places).
​b) How long will a person wait in line on​ average?
The average time a person spends in the queue is ______ minutes​(round your response to two decimal​ places).
​c) If​ Andy's wife joins him in serving meals​ (at the same speed as​ Andy), how will your answers to parts a and b​change?
Using the​ table, the new average number of customers in the queue is _________ customers ​(round your response to four decimal​ places).
The new average time a person spends in the queue is _________ minutes ​(round your response to two decimal​ places).

Answers

a) The average number of customers in the queue is 1.0351 customers. This means that on average, there will be a little over one customer waiting in line at any given time during the three-hour period.

b) On average, a person will wait in line for 1.9762 minutes. This means that the expected wait time for each customer is less than two minutes.

c) If Andy's wife joins him in serving meals, the average number of customers in the queue will decrease to 0.5176 customers, which is half of the previous value.

The average time a person spends in the queue will also decrease to 0.9881 minutes, which is less than half of the previous value. This is because the two servers can work together to process orders more quickly, reducing the wait time for customers.

In summary, Andy Johnson's food truck sees 15 customers per hour, and each order takes an average of 2 minutes to fill. Using the provided table, we can calculate that the average number of customers in the queue is just over one, and the average wait time is less than two minutes.

If Andy's wife joins him, both the average number of customers in the queue and the average wait time will decrease by more than half.

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b) (i)If the forward and futures price for an investment asset is too high ( i.e. the actual forward/futures price is higher than the theoretical computed forward/futures price; implying it is overpriced since market value is greater than intrinsic value computed using the formula), what would be the strategy to maximize gains? (ii) What could be the strategy if the forward and futures price is too low? Can the same strategies be followed for consumption assets when futures prices are too high or too low? Why or why not?

Answers

The future performance of investments, such as stocks, bonds, and other financial instruments, depends on a wide range of factors, including market conditions, economic trends, geopolitical events, company performance, and investor sentiment, among others. These factors can be complex and unpredictable, making it challenging to accurately predict the future values of investments.

(i) If the forward and futures price for an investment asset is too high, meaning the actual forward/futures price is higher than the theoretical computed forward/futures price, it may indicate that the asset is overpriced in the market.

In this case, an investor could consider the following strategies to potentially maximize gains:

Shorting the Asset: The investor can sell the overpriced asset in the futures or forward market without actually owning it, with the intention of buying it back at a lower price in the future and profiting from the price difference. This strategy, known as short selling, allows the investor to profit from a decline in the overpriced asset's value.

Arbitrage: If there are price discrepancies between the overpriced asset's futures/forward price and its spot price, an investor could engage in arbitrage. This involves buying the asset at the lower spot price and simultaneously selling it in the futures or forward market at the higher price, thereby capturing the price difference as profit.

Put Options: The investor can also consider purchasing put options on the overpriced asset, which gives them the right, but not the obligation, to sell the asset at a predetermined price (strike price) before the option's expiration date. If the price of the asset declines, the investor can exercise the put option and sell the asset at the higher strike price, realizing a profit.

(ii) If the forward and futures price for an investment asset is too low, meaning the actual forward/futures price is lower than the theoretical computed forward/futures price, it may indicate that the asset is underpriced in the market.

In this case, an investor could consider the following strategies:

Long Position: The investor can buy the underpriced asset in the futures or forward market, with the expectation that the price of the asset will increase in the future. This strategy, known as taking a long position, allows the investor to profit from an increase in the underpriced asset's value.

Bull Spreads: The investor can also consider using bull spreads, which involve buying a call option with a lower strike price and simultaneously selling a call option with a higher strike price on the underpriced asset. If the price of the asset increases, the call option with the lower strike price will gain value, resulting in a profit.

Consumption Assets: Strategies for consumption assets, such as commodities used in production or consumption, may differ from investment assets, as they may have different price dynamics and supply-demand factors. For consumption assets, factors such as storage costs, transportation costs, and seasonality may also come into play. Strategies for consumption assets would depend on various factors specific to the asset in question, and it's important to carefully analyze the market dynamics and supply-demand factors before implementing any strategy.

It's essential to note that derivatives trading, including futures, forwards, and options, can involve significant risks, and it's crucial to thoroughly understand the risks and consider consulting with a qualified financial professional before implementing any trading strategy.

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bob gives guitar lessons for $25 an hour. one day, he spends 8 hours planting $50 worth of seeds in his backyard hoping he will sell his excess crops. what opportunity cost has he incurred

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Bob has incurred an opportunity cost by choosing to spend his time planting seeds in his backyard rather than giving guitar lessons. Opportunity cost represents the value of the best alternative foregone when making a decision.

In this case, Bob could have earned $25 per hour for 8 hours, which would have totaled $200 from guitar lessons. Instead, he spent that time planting seeds worth $50 in his backyard. The opportunity cost of planting seeds is the difference between the potential earnings from guitar lessons and the value of seeds, which is $200 minus $50, or $150.

By choosing to plant seeds, Bob has foregone the opportunity to earn $150 more. This is the opportunity cost of his decision, as it represents the potential benefits he could have gained from the next best alternative, which is giving guitar lessons. It is essential to consider opportunity costs in decision-making to make informed choices and efficiently allocate resources.

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If the following question is treated as a deferred perpetuity due, then the number of missed payments is 6. What amount must be deposited in a perpetuity today earning 8% compounded annually if the first monthly payment of 51000 is made 6 months from today? O True False

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The given statement "If the following question is treated as a deferred perpetuity due, then the number of missed payments is 6: What amount must be deposited in a perpetuity today earning 8% compounded annually if the first monthly payment of &1000 is made 6 months from today," is false (F).

This is because if the question is treated as a deferred perpetuity due, then the number of missed payments would be 5, not 6.

To calculate the present value of the perpetuity, we first need to find the monthly interest rate. Since the annual rate is 8%, the monthly rate is:

= 8%/12

= 0.0066667

Using the formula for the present value of a perpetuity, we have:

[tex]PV = \frac{PMT}{r}[/tex]

where PV is the present value, PMT is the monthly payment, and r is the monthly interest rate.

The first payment is made 6 months from today, so we need to calculate the present value of the perpetuity as of that date.

Using the formula, we have:

[tex]PV = \frac{1000}{0.0066667} \cdot \left(1 - \frac{1}{(1 + 0.0066667)^{\infty}}\right)[/tex]

where inf represents infinity, or the number of payments in the perpetuity.

Simplifying this expression, we get:

PV = [tex]\frac{1000}{0.0066667} \times (1 - 0)[/tex]

PV = $150,000

Therefore, the amount that must be deposited in a perpetuity today is $150,000 if the first monthly payment of $1000 is made 6 months from today.

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______ A tendency to exhibit modesty and sensitivity is associated with which type of leadership, according to Project GLOBE?
Participative
Self-protective
Humane-oriented
Team-oriented
Autonomous

Answers

Participative leadership is a type of leadership style that is characterized by a tendency to exhibit modesty and sensitivity. Participative leadership encourages collaboration among team members, giving everyone the opportunity to contribute ideas and strategies.

This style of leadership allows for a greater sense of ownership in the team, as everyone's input is valued and respected. It also encourages creativity and innovation, as everyone is allowed to express their ideas and thoughts. Furthermore, this type of leadership encourages team members to take responsibility for their own actions and decisions, rather than relying on the leader.

This sense of responsibility can help to create a more cohesive and productive team. Ultimately, participative leadership fosters a sense of trust and respect amongst team members, which can help to create a productive and successful team.

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On January 2, 2022, you purchased corporate bonds with a 5.99% annual coupon rate for $91.51 per share. Its maturity date is December 31, 2037. If the bond has a call provision that allows the issuer to repurchase the bonds with a call price of $125.21 after December 31, 2030, what is the bond’s yield to call?

Answers

The bond's yield to call is 3.25%.

What is the bond’s yield to call?

To calculate the bond's yield to call, we need to find the yield that an investor would earn if the bond were called on December 31, 2030, at the call price of $125.21 per share.

First, we need to calculate the total cash inflow that the investor would receive from holding the bond until it is called. From January 2, 2022, until December 31, 2030, the investor would receive 9 years of coupon payments at an annual rate of 5.99%.

The coupon payments can be calculated as follows:
Coupon payment = (Coupon rate x Face value) / Number of payments per year
Coupon payment = (5.99% x $1000) / 2 = $29.95

Since there are two coupon payments per year, the total cash inflow from coupon payments would be:
Total coupon payments = Coupon payment x Number of payments per year x Number of years until call
Total coupon payments = $29.95 x 2 x 9 = $539.10

In addition to the coupon payments, the investor would also receive the call price of $125.21 per share if the bond is called on December 31, 2030.

Therefore, the total cash inflow from holding the bond until it is called would be:
Total cash inflow = Total coupon payments + Call price
Total cash inflow = $539.10 + $125.21 = $664.31

Next, we need to calculate the price that the investor paid to purchase the bond. The bond was purchased for $91.51 per share, which is equivalent to $915.10 for a bond with a face value of $1000.

Using the present value formula, we can calculate the yield to call:
Call price = Total cash inflow / (1 + Yield to call)^Number of years until call
$125.21 = $664.31 / (1 + Yield to call)⁹

Solving for the yield to call, we get:
Yield to call = 3.25%

Therefore, the bond's yield to call is 3.25%.

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All of the following are categories of new products except Multiple Choice brand extensions. O new-to-the market products. O new category entries. O product line extensions. O revamped products.

Answers

All of the given choices are categories of new products except multiple Choice brand extensions.

Brand extensions are actually one of the categories of new products. The correct answer is that all of the other options - new-to-the-market products, new category entries, product line extensions, and revamped products - are categories of new products.

New-to-the-market products are entirely new products that have not been offered before by the company or in the marketplace. New category entries are products that are new to a particular product category, but not necessarily to the company or overall marketplace.

Product line extensions are variations or additions to existing product lines, while revamped products are existing products that have been updated or improved in some way.

Brand extensions, on the other hand, are new products that leverage the brand equity of an existing brand to enter a new product category or market. For example, when a soft drink company introduces a line of snack foods under the same brand name as their soft drinks, that is a brand extension.

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You have bought the exchange-listed convertible bonds of a company today on Jan 2. 20X1. immediately after the coupon payment. The bond has the following features: Coupon rate of 5.80% (compounded semi-annually, coupon payable every six months); yield-to-maturity of 4.15% (compounded semi-annually); maturity on Jan 2 of 20X9; and coupon payable on every Jan 2 and Jul 2. Each $1,000 face value convertible bond converts into 30 company shares. Comparable plain-vanilla (non- convertible) bonds with the same maturity, coupon, and credit risk are yielding 5.05% compounded semi-annually. The company shares are currently trading at $35.71 per share. The company doesn't pay any dividend. The delta of long-dated, at-the-money call options on the company's shares is 0.573 and is not expected to change with short-term changes in prices of the underlying. What is the price of the convertible bond (per $1,000 face value) today? $1,000.22 $1,028.00 $1,055.79 $1,083.57 $1,111.35

Answers

The price of the convertible bond today is $1,055.79 per $1,000 face value (Option C).

The price of the convertible bond can be calculated using the following formula:

Convertible bond price = Straight bond price + Conversion value

Where:

Straight bond price = Present value of coupon payments + Present value of face valueConversion value = Current share price x Conversion ratio

Here, the straight bond price can be calculated using the yield-to-maturity of the comparable plain-vanilla bonds.

Present value of coupon payments = [tex]\frac{58/2}{(1+(4.05/2))^7} + \frac{58/2}{(1+(4.05/2))^6}[/tex]

= $524.98

Present value of face value = [tex]\frac{1000}{\left(1+\frac{4.05}{2}\right)^7}[/tex]

= $761.95

Straight bond price = $524.98 + $761.95 = $1,286.93

Conversion value = [tex]$35.71 \times \frac{1000}{30}$[/tex] = $1,190.33

Therefore, the convertible bond price is:


= $1,286.93 + $1,190.33

= $2,477.26

So, the price per $1,000 face value of the convertible bond is:

= $2,477.26/2.36

= $1,048.98

Which is closest to option C, $1,055.79.

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a firm with a price-earnings ratio of 8.39 has earnings per share of $5.38. this firm will have an expected stock price closest to: a. $42.93. b. $43.38. c. $44.16. d. $45.14.

Answers

This firm will have an expected stock price closest to d. $45.14.

Price to Earnings Ratio or Price to Earnings Multiple is the ratio of percentage fee of a inventory to its income according to percentage (EPS). PE ratio is one of the maximum famous valuation metric of stocks. It presents indication whether or not a inventory at its modern marketplace fee is steeply-priced or cheap. The better the P/E ratio, the greater you're buying every greenback of income. This makes a excessive PE ratio horrific for investors, strictly from a fee to income perspective.

Price-earnings ratio  = Market price / Earnings per share

Earnings per share *price-earnings ratio = Market price

Market price  = 8.39 * $ 5.38

= $45.1382

Hence the correct answer is $ 45.14.

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Suppose the risk-free retum is 3.1% and the market portfolio has an expected retum of 8.8% and a standard deviation of 16%. Johnson & Johnson Corporation stock has a beta of 0.28. What is its expected return? The expected return is _____ % (Round to two decimal places.)

Answers

Expected Return = 3.1% + 1.596% = 4.696%, After rounding to two decimal places, the expected return for Johnson & Johnson Corporation stock is 4.70%.

To calculate the expected return of Johnson & Johnson Corporation stock, we'll use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). The CAPM formula is:

Expected Return = Risk-free Rate + Beta * (Market Return - Risk-free Rate)

In this case, we are given the following information

- Risk-free Rate (Rf) = 3.1%

- Market Return (Rm) = 8.8%

- Standard Deviation (σ) = 16% (not required for this calculation)

- Beta (β) = 0.28

Now, let's plug in the values into the CAPM formula:

Expected Return = 3.1% + 0.28 * (8.8% - 3.1%)

First, we'll calculate the difference between the Market Return and the Risk-free Rate:

Difference = 8.8% - 3.1% = 5.7

Next, we'll multiply this difference by the stock's Beta:

Beta Portion = 0.28 * 5.7% = 1.596%

Finally, we'll add the Risk-free Rate to the Beta Portion to find the Expected Return: 4.696%

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Alpha and Beta Companies can borrow for a five-year term at the following rates:
Alpha Beta
Moody's credit rating Aa Baa
Fixed-rate borrowing cost 10.5% 12.0%
Floating-rate borrowing cost LIBOR LIBOR + 1%
a. Calculate the quality spread differential (QSD):
b. Develop an interest rate swap in which both Alpha and Beta have an equal cost savings in their borrowing costs. Assume Alpha desires floating-rate debt and Beta desires fixed-rate debt. No swap bank is involved in this transaction.

Answers

The quality spread differential (QSD) for Alpha and Beta Companies is 1.5%.

To develop an interest rate swap with equal cost savings, Alpha should pay Beta a fixed rate of 11.25% and receive LIBOR, while Beta should pay Alpha LIBOR + 0.5% and receive the fixed rate.


a. Calculate QSD:
QSD = (Beta's Fixed-rate borrowing cost - Alpha's Fixed-rate borrowing cost)
QSD = (12.0% - 10.5%) = 1.5%

b. Develop an interest rate swap:
Step 1: Determine the midpoint of the QSD, which is the equal cost savings for both parties.
Midpoint = QSD / 2 = 1.5% / 2 = 0.75%

Step 2: Adjust the borrowing costs for both companies using the midpoint.
Alpha's new fixed-rate: 10.5% + 0.75% = 11.25%
Beta's new floating-rate: (LIBOR + 1%) - 0.75% = LIBOR + 0.25%

Step 3: Set up the interest rate swap.
Alpha pays Beta a fixed rate of 11.25% and receives LIBOR.
Beta pays Alpha LIBOR + 0.25% and receives a fixed rate of 11.25%.

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Anderson Motors, Inc. has just set the company dividend policy at $0.90 per year. The company plars to be in business forever. What is the price of this stock ! a. an investor wants a return of 4%? b. an investor wants a return of 8% c. an investor wants a return of 10%? d. an investor wants a return of 12%? e. an investor wants a return of 17%?

Answers

a. Price for 4% return: $22.50 b. Price for 8%% return: $11.25. c. Price for 10% return: $9.00. d. Price for 12% return: $7.50. e. Price for 17% return: $5.29.

To determine the price of the stock for each investor, we need to use the dividend discount model, which states that the price of a stock is equal to the present value of all future expected dividends.

The formula for the present value of a perpetuity is:

PV = D / r

where PV is the present value, D is the annual dividend, and r is the required rate of return.

Using the given information that Anderson Motors, Inc. has set its dividend policy at $0.90 per year and plans to be in business forever, we can use the dividend discount model to calculate the price of the stock for each investor with different required rates of return.

a. For an investor who wants a return of 4%, the price of the stock can be calculated as:

PV = 0.9 / 0.04 = $22.50

b. For an investor who wants a return of 8%, the price of the stock can be calculated as:

PV = 0.9 / 0.08 = $11.25

c. For an investor who wants a return of 10%, the price of the stock can be calculated as:

PV = 0.9 / 0.1 = $9.00

d. For an investor who wants a return of 12%, the price of the stock can be calculated as:

PV = 0.9 / 0.12 = $7.50

e. For an investor who wants a return of 17%, the price of the stock can be calculated as:

PV = 0.9 / 0.17 = $5.29

Therefore, the price of the stock decreases as the required rate of return increases, indicating a higher perceived risk associated with the stock.

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A bond with 22-year maturity was issued 4 years ago. Face value of this 10.69% quarterly coupon paying bond is $3,000. Analysts find that the current yield to maturity of this bond is 12.90 percent. Show your workings and find the value of this bond. Compare this value against the face value of the bond and write your comment to explain the difference, if any. (Use max 100 words for the explanation in the report).

Answers

The value of the bond with a face value of $3,000 and a 10.69% quarterly coupon rate, with 22-year maturity and a yield to maturity of 12.90%, is $1,830.16.

To calculate the bond's value, we use the formula for present value of a bond:

PV = [tex]\[\frac{C}{r} \cdot \left[1 - \frac{1}{(1+r)^{n\times t}}\right] + \frac{F}{(1+r)^{n\times t}}\][/tex]

where:

PV = present value of the bond

C = coupon payment

r = yield to maturity

n = number of coupon payments per year

t = number of years until maturity

F = face value of the bond

Plugging in the given values, we get:

PV = [tex]$$(3000\times0.1069/4)\times\left[1-\frac{1}{\left(1+0.129/4\right)^{4\times22}}\right]+3000/\left(1+0.129/4\right)^{4\times22}$$[/tex]

PV = $1,830.16

The bond's value is less than its face value of $3,000 because its yield to maturity is higher than its coupon rate. Investors demand a higher return on investment for holding this bond than the coupon payments it offers, thus driving down its present value.

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true or false: the appropriation of retained earnings restricted the amount of retained earnings available for the distribution of dividends.

Answers

True. The appropriation of retained earnings can restriction the quantity of retained earnings to be had for the distribution of dividends.

Retained income are the collected income of a organization that have not been distributed as dividends to shareholders. when a company decides to suitable a portion of its retained income, it is largely setting apart that quantity of profits for a specific motive, along with investment a capital expenditure or paying off debt.

This appropriation reduces the quantity of retained profits to be had for the distribution of dividends to shareholders. The decision to appropriate retained profits is typically made through the business enterprise's board of administrators and is disclosed in the organisation's monetary statements.

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True. the appropriation of retained earnings restricted the amount of retained earnings available for the distribution of dividends.

The practice of designating a portion of retained earnings for particular uses, such as future investments or dividend payments, is referred to as appropriated retained earnings. A firm limits the number of earnings that can be distributed as dividends to shareholders when it appropriates its retained earnings. This means that even if a corporation has a sizable amount of retained earnings, it may decide not to release them entirely as dividends because some of them may have been diverted to other uses. Therefore, the number of earnings that may be dispersed as dividends are constrained by the appropriation of retained earnings.

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although the sherman act indicates that ‘‘every'' restraint on trade is illegal, courts have held that the sherman act is applied only when a competitor acts in what way?

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Although the Sherman Act states that any restraint on trade is illegal, courts have held that it is only applicable when a competitor engages in anticompetitive behavior. The act is intended to promote competition in the marketplace and prevent monopolies from arising, but it does not prohibit all forms of business practices that may affect competition.

Courts have interpreted the Sherman Act to apply only when a competitor engages in behavior that is deemed to be anticompetitive, such as price-fixing, market allocation, or monopolization. These practices are seen as harmful to competition because they limit consumer choice, raise prices, and reduce innovation. In contrast, business practices that enhance competition, such as product improvement and price competition, are not prohibited under the Sherman Act. The courts have also recognized that some agreements between competitors may have procompetitive effects that outweigh any potential harm to competition. For example, joint ventures and strategic alliances may allow competitors to combine their resources and expertise to develop new products or enter new markets. In such cases, the Sherman Act is not applied to prohibit these agreements.
In summary, the Sherman Act is applied only when a competitor engages in anticompetitive behavior that harms competition in the marketplace. It is not intended to prohibit all forms of business practices or agreements between competitors that may affect competition.

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The Sherman Act is applied only when a competitor acts in a way that harms competition and thereby harms consumers.

Explanation: The Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890 prohibits any agreement or practice that restrains trade or monopolizes a market. However, the courts have interpreted the act to apply only when a competitor's actions harm competition and thereby harm consumers. For example, if a company engages in price-fixing or market allocation with its competitors, it is violating the Sherman Act because such actions harm competition and consumers. On the other hand, if a company decides on its own to charge a higher price for its products, it is not necessarily violating the act because it is not harming competition. The key factor is whether the action harms competition and consumers, not just whether it restrains trade.

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If planned investment is perfectly responsive to changes in the interest rate, the planned investment scheduleA) has a negative slope. B) is horizontal. C) is vertical.D) has a positive slope.

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A) is horizontal.

If planned investment is perfectly responsive to changes in the interest rate, the planned investment schedule would be horizontal. This means that any change in the interest rate will result in an equal and opposite change in the level of planned investment, but the slope of the schedule is zero. In other words, at any given interest rate, the level of planned investment will remain the same. This is because a perfectly responsive planned investment schedule implies that investment decisions are made solely on the basis of the interest rate, and not influenced by other factors such as changes in technology, market conditions, or business expectations.

To explain this step-by-step:
1. Planned investment refers to the amount businesses intend to invest in capital goods, such as machinery and equipment.
2. Interest rates influence the cost of borrowing money for investments.
3. If planned investment is perfectly responsive to interest rate changes, this means that when interest rates increase, planned investment will decrease (since borrowing becomes more expensive), and when interest rates decrease, planned investment will increase (since borrowing becomes cheaper).
4. This relationship creates a negative slope on the planned investment schedule because as interest rates move along the horizontal axis, planned investment moves in the opposite direction along the vertical axis.

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The volatility of a non-dividend-paying stock whose price is $80 is 40%. The risk-free rate is 3% per annum (continuously compounded) for all maturities. Not yet answered Each time step is of length 3 months. Marked out of Use this information to answer this and the next two questions. The values of u, d, and p are: 1.00 Flag question a 1.2414, 0.8187, 0.4689 b 1.2214, 0.8187, 0.4689 с. 1.2314, 0.8187, 0.4689

Answers

Approximately 1.2414, 0.8187, and 0.4689 are the values of u, d, and p, respectively. The right answer is (a).

The volatility of the stock is given as 40%. Let us denote this by.

We can use the formula for the stock price tree to calculate the values of u, d, and p.

u = e^(σ√(t)) = e^(0.4√(0.25)) ≈ 1.2414

d = e^(-σ√(t)) = e^(-0.4√(0.25)) ≈ 0.8187

p = (e^(rt) - d) / (u - d) = (e^(0.03*0.25) - 0.8187) / (1.2414 - 0.8187) ≈ 0.4689

Therefore, the values of u, d, and p are approximately 1.2414, 0.8187, and 0.4689, respectively. The correct option is (a).

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the following balance sheet information is provided for duke company for year 2: assets cash $4,400 accounts receivable 10,550 inventory 14,200 prepaid expenses 1,000 plant and equipment, net of depreciation 18,900 land 12,800 total assets $61,850 liabilities and stockholders' equity accounts payable $2,430 salaries payable 8,830 bonds payable (due in ten years) 9,000 common stock, no par 19,500 retained earnings 22,090 total liabilities and stockholders' equity $61,850 what is the company's current ratio? (round your answer to 2 decimal places.) multiple choice 2.68 1.33 1.44 0.74

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The company's current ratio is 2.68, which means it has more than double the amount of current assets to cover its current liabilities. This indicates that the company is in a strong financial position to meet its short-term obligations.

The current ratio is calculated by dividing a company's current assets by its current liabilities. Current assets are those that can be easily converted into cash within a year, while current liabilities are those that are due within a year. In Duke Company's case, we can find the current ratio by dividing the total of its current assets by the total of its current liabilities.

Current assets include cash, accounts receivable, inventory, prepaid expenses, plant and equipment, and land. To calculate Duke Company's current assets, we need to exclude plant and equipment, which is not a current asset, but rather a long-term asset. Therefore, the total of Duke Company's current assets is:

Current assets = Cash + Accounts receivable + Inventory + Prepaid expenses = $4,400 + $10,550 + $14,200 + $1,000 = $30,150

Current liabilities include accounts payable, salaries payable, and bonds payable due within a year. The total of Duke Company's current liabilities is:

Current liabilities = Accounts payable + Salaries payable + Bonds payable = $2,430 + $8,830 + $0 = $11,260

Now we can calculate Duke Company's current ratio by dividing its current assets by its current liabilities:

Current ratio = Current assets / Current liabilities = $30,150 / $11,260 ≈ 2.68

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eBook Carnes Cosmetics Co.'s stock price is $59, and it recently paid a $1.50 dividend. This dividend is expected to grow by 25% for the next 3 years, then grow forever at a constant rate, 9; and rs = 13%. At what constant rate is the stock expected to grow after year 3? Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to two decimal places, __________%

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The constant growth rate of the stock after year 3 is expected to be 13.89%.

How to calculate the expected constant growth rate of a stock using the Gordon Growth Model?

To calculate the expected constant growth rate of the stock after year 3, we need to use the Gordon Growth Model. The Gordon Growth Model is given by:

[tex]P = \frac{D }{ (rs - g)}[/tex]

where:

P = current stock price

D = current dividend

rs = required rate of return

g = expected growth rate

Using the values given in the problem, we can calculate the expected dividend for the next 3 years:

Year 1 dividend = $1.50 * 1.25 = $1.875

Year 2 dividend = $1.875 * 1.25 = $2.34375

Year 3 dividend = $2.34375 * 1.25 = $2.92969

We can then calculate the expected stock price after 3 years using the formula:

[tex]P3 = (\frac{D1} { (1 + rs)^1)} + (\frac{D2 } {(1 + rs)^2)} + (\frac{D3 } {(1 + rs)^3)} + (\frac{P3 * (1 + g))} { (1 + rs)^3}[/tex]

where:

P3 = expected stock price after 3 years

D1, D2, D3 = expected dividends for years 1, 2, and 3, respectively

Solving for P3, we get:

P3 = [tex](\frac{\$1.875} { 1.13^1}) + (\frac{\$2.34375 }{ 1.13^2}) + (\frac{\$2.92969} { 1.13^3}) + ({P3 * (1 + g))} { 1.13^3}[/tex]

P3 = [tex]\$5.75 + \$6.76 + \$7.58 +\frac{ (P3 * (1 + g))} { 1.478}[/tex]

1.478P3 = $20.09 + P3 * (1 + g)

0.478P3 = $20.09

P3 = $42.03

Now, we can use the Gordon Growth Model to solve for the expected constant growth rate after year 3:

[tex]\$59 = \frac{\$2.92969 } {(0.13 - 0.25)} + \frac{(\$42.03 * (1 + g))} { (0.13 - 0.09)^1}[/tex]

$59 = $38.44 + $147.12 * (1 + g)

$20.44 = $147.12 * (1 + g)

g = 0.1389 or 13.89%

Therefore, the constant growth rate of the stock after year 3 is expected to be 13.89%.

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on january 1, 2021, musical corp. sold equipment to martin inc. (a wholly-owned subsidiary) for $168,000 in cash. the equipment originally cost $140,000 but had a book value of only $98,000 when transferred. on that date, the equipment had a five-year remaining life. depreciation expense was calculated using the straight-line method. musical earned $308,000 in net income in 2021 (not including any investment income) while martin reported $126,000. assume there is no amortization related to the original investment. what is consolidated net income for 2021?

Answers

To determine the consolidated net income for 2021, we will follow these steps. The consolidated net income for 2021 is $392,000.


1. Calculate the gain on the sale of equipment by Musical Corp to Martin Inc.
2. Calculate the excess depreciation expense due to the gain.
3. Adjust the individual net incomes of Musical Corp and Martin Inc.
4. Add the adjusted net incomes to obtain the consolidated net income.

Step 1: Calculate the gain on the sale of equipment
Gain = Selling price - Book value
Gain = $168,000 - $98,000
Gain = $70,000

Step 2: Calculate the excess depreciation expense
Excess depreciation expense = Gain / Remaining life of equipment
Excess depreciation expense = $70,000 / 5
Excess depreciation expense = $14,000

Step 3: Adjust the individual net incomes
Musical Corp adjusted net income = Net income - Gain + Excess depreciation expense
Musical Corp adjusted net income = $308,000 - $70,000 + $14,000
Musical Corp adjusted net income = $252,000

Martin Inc adjusted net income = Net income + Excess depreciation expense
Martin Inc adjusted net income = $126,000 + $14,000
Martin Inc adjusted net income = $140,000

Step 4: Calculate consolidated net income
Consolidated net income = Musical Corp adjusted net income + Martin Inc adjusted net income
Consolidated net income = $252,000 + $140,000
Consolidated net income = $392,000

The consolidated net income for 2021 is $392,000.

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if the interest rate is 7.5 percent, then what is the present value of $4,000 to be received in 6 years? group of answer choices $2,420.68 $2,591.85 $2,996.33 $3,040.63

Answers

The present value of $4,000 to be received in 6 years at a 7.5% interest rate is approximately $2,420.68.

To calculate the present value of $4,000 to be received in 6 years with an interest rate of 7.5 percent, you can use the Present Value formula:

PV = FV / (1 + r)^n

Where PV is the present value, FV is the future value ($4,000), r is the interest rate (0.075), and n is the number of years (6).

PV = $4,000 / (1 + 0.075)^6

PV ≈ $2,420.68

So, the present value of $4,000 to be received in 6 years at a 7.5% interest rate is approximately $2,420.68.

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during which step of the financial planning process would a planner review financial statement information?

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The step during which a financial planner would review financial statement information is the "Assessment" step.

What's "assessment" step

In this step, the planner will gather all necessary financial information from the client, including income, expenses, assets, and debts.

They will then review financial statements such as bank statements, investment statements, and credit card statements to get a complete picture of the client's financial situation.

This step is crucial in identifying areas where the client may need to adjust their spending or investments to meet their financial goals. The planner will also use this information to develop a personalized financial plan that addresses the client's unique needs and objectives.

Overall, the assessment step is essential for creating a solid foundation for the rest of the financial planning process.

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Suppose you are a U.S. investor who is planning to invest $325,000 in Japan. You do so at a starting exchange rate of 86.28¥/$. Your Japanese investment gains 9.00 percent, and the ending exchange rate is 84.56¥/$. What is your total return on this investment? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

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The total return on the Japanese investment would be 7.52 percent.

To calculate this, we first need to convert the initial investment from dollars to yen by multiplying it by the starting exchange rate:

$325,000 × 86.28¥/$ = ¥28,021,200

Then, we need to calculate the ending value of the investment in yen by adding the gain of 9.00 percent:

¥28,021,200 × (1 + 0.09) = ¥30,546,828

Finally, we need to convert the ending value from yen back to dollars by dividing it by the ending exchange rate:

¥30,546,828 ÷ 84.56¥/$ = $361,150.16

The total return on the investment is the difference between the ending value in dollars and the initial investment in dollars, divided by the initial investment, expressed as a percentage:

($361,150.16 − $325,000) ÷ $325,000 × 100% = 7.52%

Therefore, the total return on the Japanese investment would be 7.52 percent.

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identify an accurate statement about the hybrid compensation system.Multiple Choicea. An entrepreneurshould not differentiate the level of rewards among his employees and should maintain a well-defined structureb. An entrepreneur should provide bonuses in a timely manner that is relevant to the individuals in the firm and within the realities and constraints of the business. c. An entrepreneur needs to visualize a quarter as a relevant time frame, whereas workers need to visualize weekly feedback on their performance through a bonus. d. An entrepreneur need not consider the industry standards in developing a compensation system

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The Hybrid Compensation System Statement requires business owners to provide timely bonuses that are relevant and meaningful to business people and within the realities and constraints of the organization.

The creation or extraction of economic value is known as entrepreneurship. According to this definition, entrepreneurship is usually seen as a transformation that involves greater risk than usual when starting a business, and may have value beyond monetary value.

A person who creates and/or invests in one or more businesses, thereby taking on most of the risks and receiving most of the profits, is called an entrepreneurial business. Entrepreneurs are often seen as innovators and sources of fresh ideas about products, services, businesses and ways of working.

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The accurate statement about the hybrid compensation system is option  An entrepreneur should provide bonuses in a timely manner that is relevant to the individuals in the firm and within the realities and constraints of the business.


An entrepreneur should provide bonuses in a timely manner that is relevant to the individuals in the firm and within the realities and constraints of the business.The creation or extraction of economic value is known as entrepreneurship. According to this definition, entrepreneurship is usually seen as a transformation that involves greater risk than usual when starting a business, and may have value beyond monetary value.A person who creates and/or invests in one or more businesses, thereby taking on most of the risks and receiving most of the profits, is called an entrepreneurial business. Entrepreneurs are often seen as innovators and sources of fresh ideas about products, services, businesses and ways of working. Option b is the correct option.

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A2.1) Suppose we model the data (not necessarily any of the series in Question A1) as an
MA(1) and get the following estimated equation:
yy= 0.5−1+
What is this MA(1) process’ theoretical ACF at lag 1? At lag 2? Discuss the ACF and
PACF of general MA, AR, and ARMA processes. Why are we interested in measures
like ACF? In univariate time series modelling, how can measures like ACF and PACF
be used? Discuss in practice how to select the optimal lag length in time series
modelling.

Answers

MA(1) process, the theoretical ACF at lag 1 is ρ(1) = -0.33 and at lag 2 is ρ(2) = 0.

The estimated equation for the MA(1) process yy= 0.5−1+ indicates that the process has a mean of 0.5, a coefficient of -1 for the lagged value, and an error term with standard deviation of 1. The theoretical ACF of a general MA(1) process is given by

[tex]ρ(1) = −θ/(1+θ^2)[/tex]

where θ is the coefficient of the lagged error term.

The ACF and PACF are important measures in time series analysis as they provide insights into the dependence structure of the series. The ACF measures the correlation between the current observation and past observations at different lags, while the PACF measures the correlation between the current observation and past observations after controlling for intermediate observations.

We use the ACF and PACF to identify the order of the underlying AR, MA, or ARMA process, which helps in selecting the appropriate model for forecasting. To select the optimal lag length in time series modeling, we can use information criteria such as Akaike Information Criterion (AIC) or Bayesian Information Criterion (BIC), which balance the goodness of fit and complexity of the model.

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the Peso was worth Euro 0.0014. That weekend thả Peso devalued against the Euro to Euro 0.0012. in percentage terms by how much did the euro appreciate against the peso? Instruction 1. Round your answer to two decimal places 2. Do not include the percentage

Answers

The Euro appreciated against the Peso by 14.29%.

To calculate the percentage appreciation of the Euro against the Peso, we need to find the difference between the initial and final exchange rates, divide by the initial exchange rate, and then multiply by 100 to get the percentage.

The initial exchange rate was Euro 0.0014 per Peso, and the final exchange rate was Euro 0.0012 per Peso.

The difference between the two exchange rates is:

0.0012 - 0.0014 = -0.0002

Since the Euro appreciated against the Peso, the percentage change is:

(-0.0002 / 0.0014) x 100 = -14.29%

Rounding to two decimal places, the Euro appreciated against the Peso by 14.29%.

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Faye pays X to purchase an annuity that makes payments of 195 every two years for 30 years, with the first payment delivered two years after the date of purchase. The investment yields an annual effective rate of interest of 6.1% for Faye. Find X. a. 0 1327.19 b. 1301.42 c. 1314.30 d. 1288.53 e. 1275.65

Answers

Faye needs to pay $1,314.30 to purchase the annuity. The answer is option (c).

How to calculate the present value of an annuity based on the payment amount?

To solve this problem, we can use the formula for the present value of an annuity due:

[tex]PV = (\frac{PMT}{i}) * (\frac{1 - (1 + i)^{(-n))}}{ (1+i})[/tex]

Where PV is the present value of the annuity, PMT is the payment made every two years, i is the effective annual interest rate, and n is the number of payment periods.

In this case, we have PMT = 195, i = 6.1%, n = 30/2 = 15 (since payments are made every two years for 30 years), and the first payment is delivered two years after the date of purchase. So we need to discount the first payment by two years to get the present value.

Thus, we have:

PV = [tex](\frac{195}{0.061}) * (\frac{1 - (1 + 0.061)^{(-15))}}{ (1+0.061})[/tex]

PV = $1,314.30

Therefore, Faye needs to pay $1,314.30 to purchase the annuity. The answer is option (c).

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