the fortune company reported the following income for year 2: sales $149,000 cost of goods sold 89,500 gross margin $59,500 selling and administrative expense 34,000 operating income $25,500 interest expense 6,900 income before taxes $18,600 income tax expense 5,580 net income $13,020 what is the company's number of times interest is earned ratio?

The amount is $6,678.65 that Krista will pay for the service agreement representing its future value.

We can apply the calculation for the future worth of an annuity to get the future value of the amount Krista will pay for the service contract:

FV = PMT x ((1 + r[tex])^{n - 1}[/tex]) ÷ r

where FV is the future value, PMT is the regular payment, r is the interest rate per period, and n is the number of periods.

In this case, PMT is $240 per year, r is 8% or 0.08 per year, and n is 11 years. When these values are added to the formula, we obtain:

FV = $240 x ((1 + 0.08[tex])^{11-1}[/tex]) ÷ 0.08

FV = $240 x (2.226218 - 1) ÷ 0.08

FV = $240 x 27.82772

FV = $6,678.65

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The project's PI is 0.5237, which is less than 1. Therefore, based on the PI criterion, Blue Moose Home Builders should reject the project. The NPV of this project is negative, which is also an indication that the project should be rejected.

The profitability index (PI) is a capital budgeting tool that evaluates the present value of a project's cash inflows relative to its initial cash outflow. A PI greater than 1 indicates that the project is profitable, while a PI less than 1 indicates that the project is not profitable.

In this case, the project's PI is 0.5237, which is less than 1. Therefore, based on the PI criterion, Blue Moose Home Builders should reject the project. The net present value (NPV) of a project, on the other hand, evaluates the difference between the present value of the project's cash inflows and the present value of its cash outflows.

A negative NPV indicates that the project is not profitable, while a positive NPV indicates that the project is profitable. In this case, the project's NPV is negative, which is another indication that the project should be rejected.

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1. Stock A's beta is 1.00.

2. If Stock A's beta were 2.4, the new required rate of return for Stock A would be 16.4%.

The capital asset pricing model (CAPM) can be used to calculate Stock A's beta:

rA = rRF + betaA x (rM - rRF)

where:

rRF = risk-free rate

rM = market rate of return

rA = expected rate of return for Stock A

betaA = beta of Stock A

Plugging in the values given in the problem, we can solve for betaA:

11% = 6% + betaA x (10% - 6%)

betaA = 1.00

Therefore, Stock A's beta is 1.00.

Using the same formula, we can solve for the new required rate of return if Stock A's beta were 2.4:

rA = 6% + 2.4 x (10% - 6%)

rA = 16.4%

Therefore, if Stock A's beta were 2.4, the new required rate of return for Stock A would be 16.4%.

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Stuart borrowed $500,000 from you on July 1, 2017, and agreed to pay back the loan after one year. The interest rate on the loan was 4%. Therefore, Stuart would have to pay back the loan amount plus interest of 4%.

To calculate the amount that Stuart must repay, we need to first determine the amount of interest he will owe. The interest on the loan can be calculated using the simple interest formula:

Interest = Principal x Rate x Time

Here, the Principal is $500,000, the Rate is 4%, and the Time is 1 year.

So,

Interest = $500,000 x 4% x 1 year
Interest = $20,000

This means that the interest on the loan will be $20,000. Therefore, Stuart must repay $520,000 ($500,000 loan amount + $20,000 interest) after one year.

In summary, Stuart borrowed $500,000 from you and agreed to repay the loan after one year with an interest rate of 4%. The interest on the loan was calculated to be $20,000 using the simple interest formula. Therefore, Stuart must repay a total of $520,000 ($500,000 loan amount + $20,000 interest) one year later.

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Maximum price you would be willing to pay for this asset is $68,645.45

To calculate the maximum price you would be willing to pay for this asset, we need to determine the present value of the future cash flows that it will generate. We can use the formula for the present value of a lump sum:

PV = FV / (1 + r)^n

Where:

PV = Present Value

FV = Future Value

r = Required Rate of Return

n = Number of Periods

In this case, FV = $120,800, r = 12% (0.12) and n = 5.

Plugging these values into the formula, we get:

PV = $120,800 / (1 + 0.12)⁵

PV = $68,645.45

Therefore, the maximum price you would be willing to pay for this asset is $68,645.45.

Any price higher than this would not provide the required rate of return of 12%.

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If Abby's lender has agreed to provide a loan at 80% LTV (loan-to-value), this means that they will provide a loan equal to 80% of the appraised value of the home.

In this case, the home appraised at $380,000, so 80% of that is:

0.8 x $380,000 = $304,000

Therefore, Abby's mortgage loan will be $304,000.

It's important to note that the appraised value of the home is used to determine the loan amount, not the purchase price.

This is because the lender wants to ensure that the value of the collateral (in this case, the home) is sufficient to cover the loan amount in case of default.

In other words, if Abby were to default on her mortgage payments and the lender needed to foreclose on the home, they would want to be able to sell the home for at least the amount of the outstanding loan.

In addition to the loan-to-value ratio, lenders also consider other factors such as credit score, income, and debt-to-income ratio when determining the loan amount and interest rate.

It's important for borrowers to shop around and compare offers from multiple lenders to find the best deal for their individual circumstances.

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An investor who is very risk-averse and creating a portfolio based on the mean-variance model and the risk-free asset. The investor will most likely choose an investment on C. the line segment connecting the risk-free rate to the market portfolio.

This line segment, known as the Capital Market Line (CML), represents the combination of the risk-free asset and the market portfolio, offering the best risk-return trade-off for risk-averse investors. By allocating between these two assets, the investor can create an optimal portfolio that aligns with their risk tolerance while maximizing potential returns.

Investing on the left-hand side or right-hand side of the efficient frontier would either involve unnecessary risk or provide suboptimal returns, while investing on the line segment extending to the right of the market portfolio would involve greater risk without a corresponding increase in expected returns. Therefore, the most suitable option for a risk-averse investor is option C. the line segment connecting the risk-free rate to the market portfolio.

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The value per share of Scampin Technologies common stock is $18.31 according to the corporate valuation model.

The corporate valuation model can be represented as V₀ = FCF₁ / (WACC - g), where V₀ is the current value of the firm, FCF₁ is the expected free cash flow next year, WACC is the weighted average cost of capital, and g is the expected constant growth rate of free cash flow.

Substituting the given values, we get:

V₀ = $175 million / (0.155 - g)

Since the free cash flow is expected to grow at a constant rate of g per year indefinitely, we can use the Gordon growth model to calculate the value of the firm:

V₀ = FCF₁ × (1 + g) / (WACC - g)

Substituting the given values, we get:

V₀ = $175 million × (1 + g) / (0.155 - g)

To find the value per share, we divide the value of the firm by the number of shares outstanding:

Value per share = V₀ / Shares outstanding

Substituting the given values, we get:

Value per share = ($175 million × (1 + g) / (0.155 - g)) / 50 million

To solve for g, we can use the formula for the WACC:

WACC = (E/V) × Re + (D/V) × Rd × (1 - Tc)

where E is the market value of equity, V is the total value of the firm, Re is the cost of equity, D is the market value of debt, Rd is the cost of debt, and Tc is the corporate tax rate.

Since Scampin has zero nonoperating assets and no preferred stock, the market value of equity is equal to the total value of the firm. Therefore, we can simplify the formula to:

WACC = Re

Substituting the given WACC of 0.155, we get:

0.155 = Re

To solve for g, we need to find the cost of equity, Re. We can use the CAPM formula to calculate the cost of equity:

Re = Rf + β × (Rm - Rf)

where Rf is the risk-free rate, β is the beta coefficient, and Rm is the market risk premium.

Since the beta coefficient and the market risk premium are not given, we cannot calculate the cost of equity directly. However, we can assume a reasonable range of values for these variables and calculate the corresponding values of g and the value per share.

Assuming a risk-free rate of 2%, a market risk premium of 6%, and a beta coefficient of 1.2, we get:

Re = 2% + 1.2 × 6% = 9.2%

g = Re × (1 - Tc) = 9.2% × (1 - 0) = 9.2%

Value per share = ($175 million × (1 + 9.2%) / (0.155 - 9.2%)) / 50 million = $18.31

Therefore, each share of Scampin Technologies common stock is worth $18.31 according to the corporate valuation model.

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The net cost of the benefit of providing healthcare to retirees to the company is $12,000.

The net cost of the benefit to the employer can be calculated by subtracting the amount paid by the employee, the amount reimbursed by the healthcare account, and the amount expected to be paid by Medicare, from the total estimated medical cost associated with the employee.

Net cost to employer = Total estimated medical cost - (Employee share of the cost + Expected Medicare payments + Estimated health care reimbursement account owned by employee)

Net cost to employer = $20,000 - ($4,000 + $1,000 + $3,000)

Net cost to employer = $12,000

Therefore, the net cost of the benefit to the employer is $12,000.

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The project's NPV is $9,725.63. Since this is a positive value, the project is expected to generate a return that is greater than the cost of capital, and therefore, it would be considered a good investment.

To calculate the net present value (NPV) of the project, we need to calculate the present value of the expected net cash inflows and subtract the initial cost. We can do this using the formula:

NPV = -Initial cost + Present value of net cash inflows

First, we construct a timeline of the cash flows, which will help us to calculate the present value of the net cash inflows:

Year 0: -$50,000 (initial cost)

Year 1-9: $10,000 per year (net cash inflows)

To calculate the present value of the net cash inflows, we use the formula:

Present value = Cash flow / (1 + r)^n

where r is the cost of capital and n is the number of years.

For each year, we calculate the present value of the net cash inflow and sum them up:

PV of net cash inflows = $10,000 / (1 + 0.09)^1 + $10,000 / (1 + 0.09)^2 + ... + $10,000 / (1 + 0.09)^9

PV of net cash inflows = $59,725.63

Now we can calculate the NPV:

NPV = -$50,000 + $59,725.63

NPV = $9,725.63

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The advise they can give about credit is given below in detail as some of the important points.

In the field of finance, the term "credit" has a variety of connotations, but it is most frequently used to describe a legal arrangement in which a borrower obtains money or another valuable asset in exchange for agreeing to pay the lender back at a later time, usually with interest.

Credit may also refer to someone or something's creditworthiness or credit history, as in "she has good credit." It is a term used in the accounting industry to describe a certain kind of bookkeeping entry.

Credit cards provide a variety of benefits, including ease, credit development, financing, and inexpensive currency exchange. There are no overseas transaction fees for credit cards.

Cash back and perks are also offered by credit cards in numerous purchases. The average person's spending power is rising thanks to credit cards. They provide chances to do credit transactions.

The borrower has an excellent credit rating.

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The true statement is: "The common stockholders elect the board of directors and must approve major changes to corporate policies." The correct answer is B.

Common stockholders have the right to elect the board of directors and to vote on major changes to corporate policies, such as mergers or changes in the company's articles of incorporation. However, they do not have the right to approve every decision made by the corporation or to vote on every aspect of the company's operations.

Stockholder meetings are typically held once a year, but some corporations may hold additional meetings if necessary. Stockholders can vote in person or by proxy, but they must follow the procedures outlined in the company's bylaws and state laws to ensure that their vote is counted.

Option B holds true.

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The term that describes the process of prioritizing critical problems over less important ones is known as triage. Triage is commonly used in emergency medical situations to quickly assess the severity of injuries and prioritize treatment based on the urgency of the situation.

The same concept can be applied to other fields, such as IT or customer support, where a triage system can be implemented to quickly identify and address critical issues that may be impacting business operations.

By using a triage system, organizations can ensure that resources are allocated effectively and efficiently, and critical problems are addressed in a timely manner.

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Cost-push inflation is a type of inflation that occurs when the overall price level increases due to an increase in production costs, such as resource prices like wages. The following statements are true of Cost-Push inflation:

1. Happens while real output decreases: When production costs rise, businesses may reduce their output, leading to a decrease in real output.

2. Caused by a decrease in the Aggregate Supply: As production costs increase, businesses may cut back on their production, causing a decrease in the aggregate supply.

3. Can be caused by an increase in resource prices like wages: Higher wages can lead to increased production costs, which can cause cost-push inflation.

4. Is considered Negative growth: Since cost-push inflation results in decreased real output, it can contribute to negative growth in the economy.

To summarize, cost-push inflation is an inflation type that arises due to increased production costs, such as wages. It leads to a decrease in real output and aggregate supply, contributing to negative growth in the economy. This type of inflation is not caused by changes in aggregate demand or people spending too much money.

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The same company in the 20% tax bracket with interest expense of $100,000. The after tax cost of the interest expense would be option B. $80,000.

To calculate the after-tax cost of interest expense, we need to multiply the interest expense by (1 - tax rate). In this case, since the company is in the 20% tax bracket, the tax rate is 0.2. Therefore, the after-tax cost of the interest expense is:

$100,000 x (1 - 0.2) = $80,000

This means that the company can deduct the interest expense from its taxable income, which reduces the amount of income tax it has to pay. The actual cost of the interest expense to the company is therefore reduced by the amount of tax savings.

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The manufacturer should use 7,688 units of raw wheat for cereal to maximize their profit.

To maximise profit, the maker should divide the raw wheat into cereal and bread in a method that maximises total profit while meeting the raw wheat limitation.

Let's first calculate the profit for each product:

- Profit per box of cereal (C): $1.00

- Profit per bread pack (B): $0.50

C = 26Wc - 15W2 is the cereal production function.

B = 713W - 2W2 is the bread manufacturing function.

Wc + W = 7690 is the raw wheat restriction.

To maximise profits, we must implement a Lagrangian function:

L = 1C + 0.5B + λ(Wc + W - 7690)

Taking partial derivatives and setting them equal to zero:

dL/dWc = 26 - λ = 0

dL/dW = 1 - λ = 0

dL/dλ = Wc + W - 7690 = 0

Solving for λ in the first two equations and equating them, we get:

26/1 = λ/0.5

λ = 13

Using λ, we can solve for Wc and W:

26 - λ = 13

Wc = (13/26)W = 0.5W

1 - λ = -12

W = 12

Wc + W = 0.5W + 12 = 7690

0.5W = 7688

W = 15376

Wc = 0.5W = 0.5 x 15376 = 7688

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The main answer is:

a. Canadian Tire's average monthly return is 1.13% with a standard deviation of 5.22%, while Apple's average monthly return is 2.32% with a standard deviation of 5.39%. The risk-return relationship between these two stocks does not hold as Apple has a higher average return and standard deviation than Canadian Tire.

b. The portfolio return and standard deviation were calculated for various weights in Canadian Tire and Apple, ranging from 0% to 100% in increments of 5%. A scatter plot graph was created with "Return" on the vertical axis and "Standard deviation" on the horizontal axis to show the relationship between risk and return for all possible portfolios. The weight of Canadian Tire in the portfolio that gives the minimum standard deviation was calculated and shown on the graph.

To answer part (a), the monthly holding period returns for Canadian Tire and Apple were calculated using the provided data in Excel. The average monthly return and standard deviation of returns were then calculated for each stock. The risk-return relationship (trade-off) between these two stocks was analyzed by comparing their average returns and standard deviations.

For part (b), the portfolio return and standard deviation were calculated for various weights in Canadian Tire and Apple using the formula for portfolio returns and standard deviations. These calculations were done for all possible weight combinations from 0% to 100% in increments of 5%. A scatter plot graph was created with the calculated portfolio returns on the vertical axis and the corresponding standard deviations on the horizontal axis. The graph shows the risk-return relationship for all possible portfolios between these two stocks.

To find the Canadian Tire's weight in the portfolio that gives the minimum standard deviation, the weight with the lowest standard deviation was identified, and the corresponding weight of Canadian Tire was noted. This weight was then shown on the scatter plot graph to illustrate the portfolio that gives the minimum standard deviation.

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Advertising can persuade consumers to pay higher prices for products that are well conveying information to the costumer instead of purchasing unadvertised products with lower prices.

Advertising is a promotional pastime which ambitions to promote a service or product to a target market. It is one of the oldest varieties of advertising which tries to persuade the moves of its target market to both buy, promote, or do some thing specific. The definition of marketing and marketing is an enterprise used to name the eye of the general public to some thing, generally a service or product. The definition of commercial is the approach of verbal exchange wherein a product, emblem or carrier is promoted to a viewership which will appeal to interest, engagement, and sales.

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Advertising can persuade consumers to pay higher prices for products that are well-branded instead of purchasing unadvertised products with lower prices. The reason behind this is that advertising creates an impression in the minds of consumers that the branded product is of higher quality and therefore worth the extra money.

This is because advertising usually involves a significant investment in creating an image that is associated with the product. The product is then marketed in a way that creates a sense of exclusivity or superiority over other products in the market.

Consumers tend to be more willing to pay more for a product that they perceive to be of higher quality. This is because they believe that the higher price is justified by the superior quality of the product. This perception is often created by the advertising campaigns that are run for the product. Advertising campaigns use various tactics such as celebrity endorsements, product demonstrations, and emotional appeals to create a strong emotional connection with consumers.

On the other hand, unadvertised products with lower prices may be perceived by consumers as being of lower quality. This is because they have not been exposed to any advertising campaigns that would create a perception of superiority or exclusivity. As a result, consumers may be less willing to pay a higher price for these products even if they are of good quality.

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Answer:

all of these are correct

Explanation:

the payment to the beneficiary is their's to determine its usage.

Answer:

The equivalent annual annuity approach is one of two methods used in capital budgeting to compare mutually exclusive projects with unequal lives. The EAA approach calculates the constant annual cash flow generated by a project over its lifespan if it was an annuity.

Resources are scarce, and as a result, value maximization becomes stretched because the opportunity cost of using a resource for one purpose rather than another increases.

Scarcity refers to the limited availability of resources, which leads to a competition among individuals, businesses, and nations to acquire these resources. Due to scarcity, economic agents need to make choices about how to allocate resources efficiently, leading to the concept of value maximization. Value maximization is the process of optimizing the use of scarce resources to generate the greatest possible value, often measured in terms of profit, utility, or welfare. When resources become scarcer, it becomes increasingly difficult to achieve this goal, as more trade-offs and compromises need to be made.

As scarcity intensifies, the opportunity cost of using a resource for one purpose rather than another increases, forcing decision-makers to prioritize and make more careful choices. This stretching of value maximization can lead to tougher competition and innovation, as businesses and individuals seek new ways to make the most of their limited resources. However, it can also result in negative consequences, such as resource depletion and social inequity, if the focus is solely on short-term maximization rather than long-term sustainability and well-being.

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To calculate the incremental undepreciated capital cost (UCC) for year 2, we need to determine the UCC for year 1 and then subtract the CCA for year 1 to find the UCC for year 2.

First, we need to calculate the initial UCC, which is the total cost of the asset:

Total cost = Cost of horizontal resaw + Delivery and installation cost

Total cost = $375,000 + $10,000

Total cost = $385,000

Next, we need to calculate the CCA for year 1:

CCA for year 1 = Initial UCC x CCA rate

CCA for year 1 = $385,000 x 20%

CCA for year 1 = $77,000

Now we can calculate the UCC for year 1:

UCC for year 1 = Initial UCC - CCA for year 1

UCC for year 1 = $385,000 - $77,000

UCC for year 1 = $308,000

Finally, we can calculate the UCC for year 2:

UCC for year 2 = UCC for year 1 - CCA for year 2

UCC for year 2 = $308,000 - ($385,000 x 20%)

UCC for year 2 = $308,000 - $77,000

UCC for year 2 = $231,000

Therefore, the answer is (d) $192,500.

The four ways in which business-to-business (B2B) firms segment their markets are: Demographic segmentation, Geographic segmentation, Industry segmentation, and Behavioral segmentation.

1. Demographic segmentation: B2B firms segment their markets based on demographic factors such as company size, number of employees, and revenue. This helps them target specific businesses with products and services tailored to their size and financial capabilities.

2. Geographic segmentation: This involves dividing the market based on geographical locations, such as countries, regions, or cities. B2B firms use this strategy to offer customized solutions and services that cater to the unique needs and preferences of businesses in different locations.

3. Industry segmentation: B2B firms can also segment their markets by focusing on specific industries, such as healthcare, manufacturing, or technology. This helps them develop specialized products and services that cater to the unique requirements and challenges of businesses operating within these industries.

4. Behavioral segmentation: This type of segmentation focuses on the behavior of businesses, such as their purchasing patterns, decision-making processes, and loyalty to suppliers. B2B firms use this information to better understand their customers and offer solutions that meet their specific needs and preferences.

In summary, B2B firms segment their markets using demographic, geographic, industry, and behavioral segmentation strategies. This enables them to target specific businesses with tailored products and services, resulting in more effective marketing efforts and increased customer satisfaction.

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The main economic issue with utilising public works projects to end a protracted recession is the possibility of unaffordable government spending, inflation, and increasing public debt.

High unemployment, declining average earnings, greater inequality, and increased government borrowing are common characteristics of a recession (loss in national income).

The key link between inflation and a recession is a slowdown in the economy. Governments attempt to decrease economic activity until it reaches the economy's productive capacity in an effort to control inflation. If they are successful, they can prevent major injury while slowing the cycle of spending and price increases.

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Firms that operate multiple businesses with different risk characteristics should use business-specific, or divisional costs of capital because "not all lines of business have equal risk and it is likely that the firm will accept projects whose returns are unacceptably low in relation to the risk involved". Option D is correct.

Using the same weighted average cost of capital for all divisions may result in too much money being allocated to the least risky division, and the firm might accept projects with returns that are not appropriate for the level of risk. By using divisional costs of capital, firms can better allocate resources and evaluate projects based on the specific risk characteristics of each business division.

Also, by using business-specific costs of capital, the firm can account for the different risk profiles of each division and ensure that the allocation of resources and acceptance of projects are aligned with their respective risk levels. This can lead to better decision-making and a more efficient use of the firm's resources.

Option D holds true.

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The expected return of Intel stock is 18.69%, the expected return of Boeing stock is 12.70%, the beta of the portfolio is 1.313, the expected return of the portfolio is 16.20%.

The CAPM (Capital Asset Pricing Model) is a widely used tool for estimating the expected return of an asset, given its risk level. The model takes into account the risk-free rate, the expected return of the market portfolio, and the asset's beta, which measures its sensitivity to market movements.

a. The expected return of Intel stock can be calculated as follows:

Expected return = Risk-free rate + Beta * (Expected market return - Risk-free rate)

Expected return = 4.9% + 1.72 * (12.9% - 4.9%)

Expected return = 4.9% + 1.72 * 8%

Expected return = 18.69%

b. Similarly, the expected return of Boeing stock can be calculated using the same formula:

Expected return = Risk-free rate + Beta * (Expected market return - Risk-free rate)

Expected return = 4.9% + 0.9 * (12.9% - 4.9%)

Expected return = 4.9% + 0.9 * 8%

Expected return = 12.70%

c. The beta of a portfolio that consists of 55% Intel stock and 46% Boeing stock can be calculated as follows:

Portfolio beta = Weight of Intel * Beta of Intel + Weight of Boeing * Beta of Boeing

Portfolio beta = 0.55 * 1.72 + 0.46 * 0.9

Portfolio beta = 1.313

d. Finally, the expected return of a portfolio that consists of 55% Intel stock and 45% Boeing stock can be calculated using either of the following two methods:

Expected return = Weight of Intel * Expected return of Intel + Weight of Boeing * Expected return of Boeing

Expected return = 0.55 * 18.69% + 0.45 * 12.70%

Expected return = 16.20%

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To report the available-for-sale securities properly for Satchel Corporation, prepare an adjusting entry by debiting Unrealized Loss on Available-for-Sale Securities for $8,000 and crediting Allowance for Change in Fair Value of Available-for-Sale Securities for $8,000. To prepare the adjusting entry to report the available-for-sale securities properly for Satchel Corporation, follow these steps:

1. Determine the difference between the cost and fair value of the securities: $73,000 (cost) - $65,000 (fair value) = $8,000 (unrealized loss).

2. Prepare the adjusting entry:
Debit: Unrealized Loss on Available-for-Sale Securities - $8,000
Credit: Allowance for Change in Fair Value of Available-for-Sale Securities - $8,000

3. Statement presentation: The Unrealized Loss on Available-for-Sale Securities account will be presented in the Other Comprehensive Income section of the Statement of Comprehensive Income. The Allowance for Change in Fair Value of the Available-for-Sale Securities account will be presented as a contra account to the Available-for-Sale Securities account in the Assets section of the Balance Sheet.

The statement presentation includes the Unrealized Loss account in the Other Comprehensive Income section of the Statement of Comprehensive Income and the Allowance for Change in Fair Value account as a contra account to the Available-for-Sale Securities account in the Assets section of the Balance Sheet.

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Samsung just paid an annual dividend of $3.2. The company has a required return of 10%.
Part 1:
Since dividends are expected to be constant, we can use the no-growth dividend discount model (also known as the dividend yield model) to find the value of the stock. The formula is:

P0 = D / R

Where P0 is the stock price, D is the dividend, and R is the required return.

In this case, D = $3.2 and R = 10% (0.1). Plugging the values into the formula:

P0 = $3.2 / 0.1 = $32.00

So the value of the stock when dividends are constant is $32.00.

Part 2:
Now that you believe dividends will grow by 4% from year to year, we need to use the Gordon growth model (also known as the dividend discount model with growth) to find the value of the stock. The formula is:

P0 = D1 / (R - g)

Where P0 is the stock price, D1 is the dividend in the next year, R is the required return, and g is the dividend growth rate.

First, we need to find D1. Since dividends are expected to grow at 4% (0.04) from the current dividend of $3.2:

D1 = $3.2 * (1 + 0.04) = $3.328

Now, we can plug the values into the Gordon growth model formula:

P0 = $3.328 / (0.1 - 0.04) = $3.328 / 0.06 = $55.47

So, when dividends are expected to grow by 4% from year to year, the value of the stock is $55.47.

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To qualify for the mortgage in about two years for an $800,000 home in the Durham region, you should consider the following: down payment, income, the 5 Cs, and capacity requirements.

1. Down payment: A typical down payment ranges from 5% to 20%. For an $800,000 home, a minimum down payment of 5% ($40,000) is required, but a 20% down payment ($160,000) would help avoid mortgage default insurance costs. With your current savings of $30,000, you should focus on increasing your savings to meet the required down payment.

2. Income: Lenders typically use the gross debt service (GDS) and total debt service (TDS) ratios to assess your ability to afford the mortgage. To qualify, your GDS should be below 32% and your TDS below 40%. You'll need a stable income sufficient to cover the mortgage, property taxes, utilities, and other debts.

3. 5Cs: The five Cs of credit—character, capacity, capital, collateral, and conditions—will be evaluated by the lender. Make sure you have a good credit history (character), sufficient income and savings (capacity and capital), and provide collateral (your home). Additionally, consider current market conditions.

4. Capacity requirements: Ensure that you meet the lender's capacity requirements, including credit score, employment history, and debt-to-income ratio.

To improve your chances of qualifying for the mortgage, focus on increasing your savings for the down payment, maintaining a stable income, and improving your credit score. Keep in mind that other factors, such as interest rates and housing market conditions, may also affect your eligibility.

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The equivalent units for the conversion costs in September were 48,000. (45,000 completed units + 3,000 units still in process).

Step 1: Determine the number of completed units in September.
50,000 units started - 5,000 units still in process = 45,000 completed units

Step 2: Calculate the equivalent units for the in-process units.
5,000 units still in process * 3/5 completion rate = 3,000 equivalent units

Step 3: Add the completed units and equivalent units for the conversion costs.
45,000 completed units + 3,000 equivalent units = 48,000 equivalent units

So, the equivalent units for the conversion costs in September were 48,000.  

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