The tine test & Heaf test are intradermal tests performed using a sterile, disposable, multiple-puncture lancet.
What is tine test & Heaf test ?Children's exposure to tuberculosis infection has long been determined by the Heaf test, a diagnostic skin examination. The examination carries F's name. Heaf, R. G. The Heaf gun (trademarked "Sterneedle"),a spring-loaded device with six needles arranged in a circular formation, was used to administer the test, which is also known as the Sterneedle test. It was inserted into the wrist or shoulder.
A multiple-puncture tuberculin skin test called the tine test is used to help doctors diagnose tuberculosis (TB). Although the Mantoux test is more frequently employed, the tine test is comparable to the Heaf test. The old tine test (OT) and the pure protein derivative are two of the many types of tine tests that are typically divided into these two groups.Learn more about Tine test & Heaf test here:
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a 48-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of left-sided groin and scrotal pain. he has had similar pain episodically for several months, but it has recently become much worse after a weekend helping his brother move furniture. he admits that he is not in good physical shape, and he thinks he may have pulled a groin muscle. he is in a monogamous relationship with his wife of 17 years. he has never had any testicular or scrotal conditions, and he has a negative surgical history. he denies fever and urinary symptoms. he has no allergies and takes no other medications.
The patient's symptoms are typical with an inguinal hernia. It is advised to refer patients for surgery if they are symptomatic, have very big, recurrent, or incarcerated hernias, or any combination of these.
patient conditionIf a patient has epididymitis, ceftriaxone + doxycycline is the recommended course of treatment for scrotal discomfort.
The patient's exam would be more likely to show edema, erythema, warmth, and soreness if they had epididymitis, yet these symptoms wouldn't necessarily be made worse by Valsalva.
While waiting for surgical intervention, a patient with testicular torsion can try manual detorsion of the testis.
In addition to edema, erythema, nausea, and sometimes vomiting, a patient with testicular torsion may present with unilateral scrotal pain.
It is doubtful that a patient would wait two days to present since the pain is so severe. Torsion is also not linked to the episodic nature, which got worse when shifting furniture (Valsalva).
Although rest and scrotum elevation can aid with acute epididymitis, they play no particular part in the management of hernias.
This patient's hernia would most likely not improve with weight training, and it might even get worse.
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the question you are looking for is
A 48-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of left-sided groin and scrotal pain. He has had similar pain episodically for several months, but it has recently become much worse after a weekend of helping his brother move furniture. He admits that he is not in good physical shape, and he thinks he may have pulled a groin muscle. He is in a monogamous relationship with his wife of 17 years. He has never had any testicular or scrotal conditions, and he has a negative surgical history. He denies fever and urinary symptoms. He has no allergies and takes no other medications. On physical exam, the patient has normal sexual development, with no edema, warmth or erythema present in the scrotum. No skin lesions are present. On palpation, there is mild tenderness on the left scrotum. However, with Valsalva, a small bulge is palpable in the left scrotum, and the patient's reported pain level increases. When he lies supine, the bulge is no longer palpable. What intervention is most appropriate for this patient's suspected condition?
A. Ceftriaxone plus doxycycline
B. Manual detorsion of testicle
C. Rest with elevation of the scrotum
D. Surgical referral
E. Weight training for improved strength
*The practical nurse (PM)is reinforcing discharge instructions for a client with prescription for guaifenesin 200 mg by mouth every 4 hours. The medication
is available in a bottle labeled as "Guaitenesin Oral Solution USP 100 mg/5 mL". How many teaspoons per dose should the PN instruct the client to take?
(Enter numerical value only.)
Answer:
The PN should instruct the client to take 2 teaspoons of the guaifenesin oral solution per dose.
Explanation:
The PN should instruct the client to take 2 teaspoons of the guaifenesin oral solution per dose. The explanation for this is that, although the label on the bottle says that the guaifenesin is 100 mg/5 mL, the client's prescription is for 200 mg. Therefore, the client needs to take double the amount in order to get the correct dose of guaifenesin.
the nurse is admitting a new patient and is collecting data through obtaining a health history and physical assessment. what phase of the problem-solving process is the nurse focusing on with the patient?
The phase of the problem-solving process on which the nurse is concentrating is the approach to problem solving, which is applicable to issues not related to patients.
What is Physical assessment?Vital signs, such as height, weight, blood pressure, breathing rate, and pulse rate, are often included in a conventional physical examination. Testing your far vision's sharpness or clarity is known as vision acuity. Exam of the head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat, including appropriate inspection, palpation, and testing.
The nurse is admitting a new patient and gathering information by getting a health history and performing a physical examination. What stage of the patient's problem-solving process is the nurse concentrating on?The nurse is concentrating on three phases of the patient's problem-solving process: implementation, evaluation, and assessment.
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charlotte liked to have a suntan all of the time, so she never wore sunscreen at the beach or in the tanning salon. during a visit to her doctor, she was told that she has the most common form of skin cancer. she will be all right, but she should avoid prolonged exposure to uv radiation in the future. which skin cancer does she have?
Based on the description above, the skin cancer that charlotte have is known to be basal cell carcinoma.
What is basal cell carcinoma?The term Basal cell carcinoma is known to be a kind or type of skin cancer that is known to be grown or seen on areas of skin that is said to be exposed to the sun, an example is the face.
It often forms bumps on brown and Black skin. Therefore, Based on the description above, the skin cancer that charlotte have is known to be basal cell carcinoma.
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Two EMTS witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient's
emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected
with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The EMTS ignored the coworker's treatment of this patient and
took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMTS is
considered:
This inaction on the part of the two EMT's is regarded as legal but unethical.
EMTs and paramedics give emergency medical assistance after evaluating a patient's condition. In emergency medical situations, emergency medical technicians (EMTs) and paramedics provide care for the ill and injured. The prompt response and expert care given by these employees frequently determine the lives of people.
EMTs deliver medical care in accordance with a set of protocols, which are often created by a doctor. The EMT should always deliver competent care that complies with current standards in order to reduce the possibility of litigation.
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a 30-year-old client presents to the clinic for an employment physical. the nurse notes protein in the client’s urine. the nurse understands that transient proteinuria can be caused by which factor(s)? select all that apply.
Nephrotic syndrome occurs when damage to the capillaries of the glomeruli causes proteins to leak into the urine.
What is Nephrotic syndrome ?Nephrotic syndrome typically results from inflamed glomeruli, which permit excessive protein leakage from your blood into your urine. The glomeruli in healthy kidneys allow the blood to keep the cells and proteins the body requires while filtering out waste items.
The majority of kids "outgrow" the nephrotic syndrome in their late teens or early adulthood, despite the fact that there is no known treatment for it. Some kids will only experience one episode of the syndrome.Learn more about Nephrotic syndrome here:
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a client is hospitalized 3 days prior to a total hip arthroplasty and reports a high level of pain with ambulation. the client has been taking warfarin at home, which is now discontinued. to prevent the formation of blood clots, which action should the nurse take?
To prevent the formation of blood clots, the nurse should suggest administering the prescribed enoxaparin (Lovenox) to the client.
Hip replacement is kind of a surgical technique in which a person's prosthetic implant, or hip prosthesis, is used to replace the hip joint. Hip replacement surgery can also be done as a full or partial replacement.
What is a hip arthroplasty?Hip arthroplasty, often known as hip replacement, is a surgical surgery used to treat hip pain. Artificial implants are used during the operation to replace some of the hip joint.
A hip replacement is major surgery and is typically only advised if other treatments, such as physiotherapy or steroid injections, have failed to relieve pain or improve function.
The hip joint is made up of a ball at the top of the femur, also known as the thigh bone, and a socket in the pelvis, also known as the hip bone.
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dystonia develops in a client receiving injections of fluphenazine decanoate for schizophrenia. which clinical manifestations would the nurse document during the assessment? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct. quizlet
Dystonia develops in a client receiving injections of fluphenazine decanoate for schizophrenia the nurse document during the assessment would be Torticollis and Oculogyric crisis.
Briefing :Fluphenazine decanoate can have the adverse effect of altered or impaired muscular tone, or dystonia. Dystonia is characterized by neck spasms that cause torticollis, which pulls the head to one side. Oculogyric crises, or eye deviation and fixation, are symptoms of dystonia. Dystonia is unrelated to the sensation of agitation and an urgent need to move (akathisia). Pseudoparkinsonianism is characterized by a shuffling stride. Pseudoparkinsonism is also characterized by a mask-like facies.
Dystonia :Uncontrollable muscular spasms that result in recurring or twisting motions.
One or more body parts, and even the entire body, may be impacted by dystonia. It might either be minor or severe.
Involuntary muscle contractions that cause cramping, slow, repeated movements, or aberrant posture are the predominant symptom.
Medicines, injections, and physical therapy are all possible treatments.
Is dystonia a form of Parkinson's?In addition to being a movement condition on its own, dystonia can be a sign of Parkinson's disease and a few other illnesses. A foot turning inward or a head tilting to one side are examples of aberrant movements and postures brought on by painful, protracted muscle contractions.
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19 year old g2p1 three day history of vaginal spotting and cramping most likely finding on transvaginal
The most common symptom of placenta previa is bright red, painless bleeding from the vagina. This is most common in the third trimester of pregnancy. The symptoms of placenta previa may look like other health conditions.
What is vaginal spotting and cramping ?Bleeding between periods or that isn't directly related to your regular menstrual cycle is known as metrorrhagia. This can include spotting or mild to moderate bleeding that may be accompanied by cramps or abdominal ache. Teenagers and women approaching menopause are more likely to get metrorrhagia.
The fertilised egg adheres to the uterine wall after fertilisation. Spotting and, occasionally, cramps, one of the first indicators of pregnancy, might result from this.STIs like chlamydia, which are sexually transmitted illnesses. infection of the cervix or uterine lining. abnormalities of blood clotting, such as von Willebrand disease. additional medical issues, such as hypothyroidism, liver illness, or chronic kidney diseaseLearn more about Cramping here:
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when reading a medication bottle, janet sees a warning label against taking this medication when pregnant. why might this warning be there?
The warning might be (2) Taking this medication could put the baby at a higher risk for birth defects.
Women who are expecting or nursing frequently worry about whether a medication they need for their personal health may harm their unborn child or whether their body is changing and a greater or lower dose is necessary.
Most people nowadays are aware that drinking alcohol and illicit substances while pregnant can result in severe developmental birth defects. However, taking some prescription medications while pregnant might result in birth abnormalities. Teratogenic medications are those that have the potential to result in birth abnormalities.
If a pregnant woman has a medical problem, stopping her prescription medication use might be risky. Without treatment, the mother's health and the wellbeing of her unborn child might be at danger.
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Question correction:
When reading a medication bottle, Janet sees a warning label against taking this medication when pregnant. Why might this warning be there?
1. Taking this medication could decrease the hormones sent to the baby.
2. Taking this medication could put the baby at a higher risk for birth defects.
3. Taking this medication could sent the mother into a depressive cycle.
4.Taking this medication while pregnant could render the medication ineffective.
the nurse is explaining to a new graduate nurse about how to assess for pain in an infant. the nurse knows the teaching was effective when the graduate nurse identifies which symptom(s) as a sign of pain in an infant? select all that apply.
Since babies cannot verbally express their feelings, it can be challenging to tell if they are in discomfort, but there are indications that can help you recognize when they are. For instance, if a child is suffering:
Modifications to crying patterns. Sometimes, but not usually, a baby's disturbed cry sounds different from regular crying. Behavioral changes in your infant might sometimes be a warning sign. For instance, crying that is unaffected by a drink, a diaper change, or cuddling may indicate pain. Additionally, a normally quiet baby that becomes unusually fussy may be hurt.
Crying when giving birth. The infant who cries while being breastfed may very probably have an uncomfortable ear infection.
prolonged, strong crying that frequently occurs daily at the same moment. With colic, this behavior is typical. It frequently begins at 2 weeks old, peaks at 6 weeks, and then slowly drops.
crying while raising the legs to the stomach. Your infant might have colic or a serious illness.
Withdrawing. A baby's energy may be depleted by chronic pain, which may manifest as stillness, quietness, and avoidance of eye contact.
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During childhood, an example of _______ occurs when the liver increases in size as hepatocytes undergo cell division.
During childhood, an example of Hyperplasia occurs when the liver increases in size as hepatocytes undergo cell division.
What is cell division?
When people talk about "cell division," they typically mean mitosis, which is the process of creating new cells for the body. The cell division process known as meiosis is what produces egg and sperm cells. A vital process for life is mitosis.
What is hyperplasia?
Cellular adaptations are changes in a cell's physiology, morphology, or number that occur during abnormal situations to adapt to the changing environment.
Hepatocytes in the affected area divide more frequently and go through "hyperplasia," which refers to these changes. Both compensatory and hormonal hyperplasia, in which the organs renew in response to hormones, are possible types of hyperplasia.
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the diagnosis and management of nonalcoholic fatty liver disease: practice guidance from the american association for the study of liver diseases
Fat deposits in your liver may be visible through imaging tests. Certain imaging examinations, such as specialized ultrasound and MRI scans, can aid in the disease's diagnosis and reveal liver scar tissue.
What is nonalcoholic fatty liver disease?An instance of stenosis that is brought on by causes other than excessive alcohol consumption is non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
Although the specific reason is not fully understood, other metabolic problems such excessive cholesterol, obesity, and diabetes frequently co-occur.
However, a liver biopsy is required to confirm that fatty liver disease is the only factor in liver damage.
Therefore, MRI scans are used to diagnosis and management of nonalcoholic fatty liver disease,
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primary care providers' knowledge about the therapeutic management of refractory pelvic floor dysfunctions
In primary care settings, pelvic floor dysfunctions (PFD) are a common condition. Primary care professionals (PCPs) instruct us in core-strengthening exercises as part of pelvic floor therapy.
The pelvic floor, abdomen, back, and diaphragm are the main muscles that stabilize the trunk. Your pelvic floor muscles need to be retrained and strengthened in order to do this.
PFDs happen when women have weak pelvic muscles or connective tissue rips, which can lead to pelvic organ prolapse, issues with bladder control, or issues with bowel control. Pregnancy, obesity, and menopause are the main contributors of pelvic floor dysfunction.
Due to their inherently weaker connective tissue and fascia at birth, certain women are genetically susceptible to having pelvic floor problems. Women who have given birth are the only ones who experience postpartum pelvic floor dysfunction.
The inability to properly relax and coordinate your pelvic floor muscles in order to perform a bowel movement is known as pelvic floor dysfunction. Constipation, difficulty passing stool, urine or stool leakage, and a constant urge to urinate are among the symptoms.
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summarize the role of the medical assistant in caring for aging patients. when a physician orders medication for a geriatric patient, why must adaptations be made for the age of the person?
When caring for elderly patients, a medical assistant's job is to support daily activities while maintaining adequate control of vital signs and important physiological ranges.
It is crucial to accurately monitor older patients' weight and height at each medical appointment to ascertain whether they fall within the usual range. If these numbers are out of the ordinary, a sickness may be present.
Geriatric individuals require special pharmaceutical considerations because their decreased ability to digest the medicine could easily result in intoxication if not taken into account.
Finally, the use of both verbal and nonverbal cues helps to guarantee that the patient fully comprehends the message and increases the possibility that they will comply with the therapy.
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when the novice nurse asks, "what will happen if this task is not completed," which skill is being demonstrated?
The skill that is being demonstrated here is priority setting. The correct option is A.
What is priority setting?Priority setting in health care entails a process of selecting among the various health care programs and services that can be provided, as well as the patients or groups of patients who will receive care.
Priority-setting principles ensure that all patient groups and decision-making levels in health care services have equal access to treatment.
These principles must be founded on values that have widespread acceptance among the general public and health-care workers.
Thus, the correct option is A.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
a. Priority setting
b. Delegation
c. Organization
d. Clinical skills
when preparing to complete a competency examination involving a neurologic assessment in a simulation laboratory, the nurse reviews the critical elements, which consist of what components?
The assessment for the desired outcome includes the necessary criteria.
To achieve intended results, applying obligatory principles in accordance with established practice standards is one of the essential components.
What exactly is a neurological evaluation?A set of inquiries and tests to evaluate the health of the nerves, spinal cord, and brain. A person's mental state, coordination, gait, and the functionality of their muscles, sensory systems, and deep tendon reflexes are all assessed throughout the examination. A neurological examination evaluates motor and reflex responses, particularly reflexes, to see if the nervous system is functioning properly. A physical examination and a review of the patient's medical history are often included, but a deeper inquiry like neuroimaging is not. Mental status, the skull, spine, and meninges; the cranial nerves; the motor examination; the sensory examination; the coordination; the reflexes; and the gait and station make up the standard eight sections of the neurologic examination.To learn more about neurologic assessment, refer to:
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a nurse is caring for a client who received an injection of penicillin g procaine. the client begins to experience dyspnea and tongue swelling. which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?
Answer:
The client should be placed in a supine position with the head of the bed elevated to help improve their breathing. The nurse should then notify the physician about the client's reaction and start an IV of normal saline to keep the client hydrated.
Explanation:
The Explanation for this is that, when a person is having an allergic reaction, one of the first things that can help is to make sure that their airway is clear and that they are getting enough oxygen. Placing them in a supine position with the head of the bed elevated can help to improve their breathing. Notifying the physician is also important so that they can order the appropriate medication to help the client with their reaction.
which of these assessment findings would help convince the emt that a patient with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding is experiencing a spontaneous abortion (miscarriage)?
Last menstrual period six weeks ago will help convince the emt that the patient is experiencing a spontaneous abortion.
Unintentional embryonic or fetal death or passing before 20 weeks of gestation is referred to as spontaneous abortion. A woman with a proven viable intrauterine pregnancy may have threatened abortion if she experiences vaginal bleeding without cervical dilatation during this period. Ultrasonography and clinical criteria are used in the diagnosis.
When a spontaneous abortion threatens or has already happened, the typical course of treatment is expectant observation, followed by observation or uterine evacuation. Cramping pelvic discomfort, bleeding, and finally tissue evacuation are signs of spontaneous abortion.
When the membranes tear, a late spontaneous abortion may start with a burst of fluid. Rarely is hemorrhage massive. Abortion is unavoidable when the cervix is dilated.
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questionwhat is considered a high-priority health issue in the united states?reproductive healthreproductive healthdegenerative muscle disordersdegenerative muscle disordersautoimmune diseasesautoimmune diseasesallergies
Immunizations is considered a high-priority health issue in the united states
What is Immunizations ?Giving a person a vaccination to protect them against disease is known as immunising them. Immunity (protection) acquired through immunisation is comparable to immunity acquired from exposure to disease, except that you receive a vaccine as opposed to the actual disease. This is why vaccines are such effective medical treatments.
Children have been shielded from a wide range of harmful and fatal diseases thanks to modern immunizations and oral drops. In fact, because to effective immunisation campaigns, some once-common diseases have now been wiped out in a number of nations. One such instance is smallpox.Learn more about Immunizations here:
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a client demands to have a phone installed in the intensive care unit room. when the nurse states, "this is not allowed; it is a unit rule," the client angrily demands to see doctor. which approach should the nurse use in this situation?
The client demands to have a phone installed in the intensive care unit room when the nurse states, "this is not allowed; it is a unit rule," the client angrily demands to see the doctor clients the best approach in this situation is for the nurse to identify the function that anger, frustration, and rage serve for the client. The verbalization of feelings may help the client to gain insight into his or her behavior.
What is an intensive care unit?Intensive care units (ICUs) generally treat the sickest patients in a hospital. ICUs are often the most expensive department in a hospital because of the specialized equipment and extensive training required to be an ICU doctor or nurse. Therefore, it is important to use ICUs as efficiently as possible in a hospital.
According to a 2017 large-scale study of elderly ICU patients, the average length of stay in the ICU is 3-4 days (Critical Care Medicine journal article). Assume that this length of stay in the ICU has an exponential distribution.The person making the decision, surgeon or anesthetist, has to balance the risk of the patient dying from an avoidable cause in an ordinary ward room against the waste of expensive resources if a patient is admitted to the ICU and it proves to not be clinically indicated later on.The decision to discharge the patient from the ICU depends on the quality of care to be found on the ward to which the patient will be transferred.To learn more about intensive care unit, refer to
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a covered entity is someone or an organization that a. provides direct patient care. b. transmits information about patient care or financial aspects of patient care. c. has access to medical records. d. is only involved in financial aspects of patient care. 2. the hipaa privacy rule recognizes and requires that
Option (b) is correct answer because covered entity is someone that transmits information about patient care or financial aspects of patient care in electronic form in connection with HIPPA transaction.
Rest options are incorrect.
Ans2:- Option (c) is correct answer because HIPPA privacy rule recognizes and requires a patient's "protected" health information is confidential, and must be protected.
Ans:3- Option (a) is correct answer that protected health information includes any information that concerns the health status of an individual. It may include health information and other information on treatment or care that is transmitted or maintained in any form or medium(electronic, paper, oral.
Ans:4- Option (c) is correct answer that Protected health information is information that is in written, electronic, or verbal form. Rest options are incorrect because they are not complete.
All the 4 question answers are explanation of each other.
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1. your patient weighs 200 lb and the order is to infuse 250 mg dobutamine in 500 ml ns at 10 mcg/kg/min. how many milligrams of dobutamine will infuse per hour?
54.5 mg/ hr milligrams of dobutamine will infuse per hour.
Amount of fluid infused per hour = (amount of fluid to be infused) × (drop factor)×60
Weight of patient in kgs = 200÷2.2
= 90.90kg
60 minutes = 1 hour
=10 mcg x 90.90kg x 60 min
=5454.54 mcg/hour ÷ 1000
= 54.54mg/hr
= 54.5mg/hr
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hipaa’s protections for health information used for research purposes…supplement those of the common rule and fda.only apply to research conducted inside covered entities.replace those of the
Hipaa’s protections for health information used for research purposes supplement those of the Common Rule and FDA.
The HIPAA Privacy Rule applies to health plans, health care clearinghouses, and other entities, and provides national standards to secure individuals' medical records and other individually identifiable health information (collectively, "protected health information").
It is necessary to have authorisation for study, or to fulfil one of the requirements for a waiver of authorization. Only with patient consent, or with a waiver, amendment, or exemption finding from an IRB or Privacy Board, may retrospective research studies be conducted. Remember, though, that you typically need permission from an IRB, privacy board, or other authorised regulating agency before moving forward on your own.
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Training can improve the body's ability to transport and use oxygen no more than about?
Up to 50% of fitness gains can be lost after two months of not exercising. Different levels reverse at various rates.
Strength fitness is very resilient, so a person can maintain strength fitness by performing resistance exercise as infrequently as once a week.
What is the suggested time for a session of cardiorespiratory endurance exercise?15-20 minutes
The recommendations suggest that aerobic exercise should be done three to five days a week for 20 to 60 minutes at an intensity that achieves 55 to 90 percent of the maximum heart rate and 40 to 85 percent of the maximal oxygen uptake in order to maintain cardiorespiratory fitness and weight control.
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The stage of resistance of the general adaptation syndrome can rapidly lead to death. True or false
The general adaption syndrome which can rapidly lead to death called as stage of resistance is the false statement. The true statement is that it is the stage of exhaustion.
General adaption syndrome, consisting of three stages:
alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.The body's immediate reaction to "perceived" stress is alarm, fight or flight. The resistance stage is when your body begins to mend itself and normalize heart rate, blood pressure, etc.
Your body enters this recuperation phase following the initial shock of a stressful event, but it continues to be on high alert for some time. The body has now used up all of its energy reserves while trying and failing to return to the original alarm reaction stage.
When stress reaches the exhausted state, a person's body is no longer capable of combating it.
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frank has recently been diagnosed with high blood pressure. what is his doctor most likely to recommend as the first line of treatment?
Answer:
Eat a heart healthy diet with less salt, get regular physical activity, maintain a healthy weight or lose weight if obese, or limit the amount of alcohol consumption.
Explanation:
these are just some things for high blood pressure it could be an answer you dont need but just trying to help
effect of continued folic acid supplementa-tion beyond the first trimester of pregnancy on cognitiveperformance in the child: a follow-up study from a random-ized controlled trial
Folic acid tablets are given by doctors during pregnancy to avoid deficiency of anemia in the mother.
What is anemia ?The decrease in level of hemoglobin in body leads to anemia. The cognitive development of the unborn child may be benefited by continuing folic acid treatment during pregnancy after the initial window of time indicated to prevent NTD.
NTDs are neglected tropical disease. Hb is very important for transfer of essential gas like oxygen and carbon dioxide. It plays a important role in maintaining the blood level in the body. If hemoglobin level decreases it leads to anemia.
At the time of pregnancy doctors prescribe folic acid tablets to mother to prevent anemia in mother and child.
Therefore, Folic acid tablets are given by doctors during pregnancy to avoid deficiency of anemia in the mother.
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What is the relationship between piriformis syndrome and sciatica?
transfer learning radiomics based on multimodal ultrasound imaging for staging liver fibrosis supplementary
For staging liver fibrosis, transfer learning radiomics is based on multimodal ultrasound imaging:
Objective: To propose a transfer learning (TL) radiomics model to efficiently combine information from grayscale and elastogram ultrasound images for accurate liver fibrosis staging.
METHODS: A total of 466 patients who underwent partial hepatectomy were included, including 401 with chronic hepatitis B and 65 without pathological fibrosis. All patients underwent elastography and liver stiffness measurement (LSM) 2-3 days before his surgery. We proposed a TL deep convolutional neural network to analyze grayscale modality (GM) and elastogram modality (EM) images.
The TL process was used for liver fibrosis classification with an Inception V3 network pretrained on ImageNet. We compared the diagnostic performance of TL and non-TL.
Single modality values, including GM and EM only, and multimodality values, including GM + LSM and GM + EM, were evaluated and compared with those of LSM and serological indices. Receiver operating characteristic curve analysis was performed to calculate the optimal area under the curve (AUC) for classifying fibrosis from S4, ≥S3, and ≥S2.
RESULTS: GM and EM TL showed higher diagnostic accuracy than non-TL, with significantly higher AUC (all p<0.01). Both single-modal GM and EM were superior to LSM and serum index (all p < 0.001). Multimodal GM + EM, GM + LSM, GM and EM alone, LSM, and biomarkers (all S < 0, 05).
CONCLUSIONS: Liver fibrosis can be staged with excellent performance by a transfer learning model based on a combination of grayscale and elastogram ultrasound images.
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