The medical term describes an inflammation of the cartilage that connects a rib to the sternum is called Costochondritis.
What is Costochondritis ?Costochondritis is a condition include pain caused by the inflammation of the cartilage of the costochondral joint, multiple causes triggers the condition which include viral/bacterial/fungal infections, strenuous activity, chest trauma, osteoarthritis, presence of tumors, etc.
The pain and symptoms associated with costochondritis are observed on the left side of the breastbone, aching, Affects more than one rib, radiate to arms and shoulders, Worsens the deep breath, coughing, sneezing.
Costochondritis is known as chest wall pain syndrome, costosternal syndrome, swelling accompanies the pain or Tietze syndrome, acute inflammation of immediate immune response to harmful stimuli.
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In Medical Imaging Technique, what is shimming in MRI
Answer:
Shimming is the clearance of any inhomogenities in magnetic field products by the super conductive coil of the MRI
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Answer:
Computed Tomography scanning technique
penicillin v (potassium), 75 mg orally every 8 hours, is prescribed for a child with a respiratory infection. the medication label reads penicillin v, 125 mg per 5 ml. the nurse has determined that the dosage prescribed is safe for the child. the nurse prepares to administer how many milliliters per dose to the child? fill in the blank.
The nurse prepares to administer 3 milliliters per dose to the child.
The dose recommended in the medical prescription might not be accessible in the actual world. Inderal 10-mg tablets, not the 15-mg tablets indicated, may be available at the hospital. The nurse calculates the appropriate dosage to administer to the patient based on the medication order and the dose that is on hand. The formula method uses the following formula to determine the appropriate dose.
Formula for Desired Dose
[tex]\frac{D}{H} .V= A[/tex]
D = The desired dosage
H = Have you got
V = tablets or liquid
A is the estimated dosage to be given to the patient.
Putting in the values we get,
75 / 125 × 5 = 3 mL is the desired dose.
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pooled safety results through 1 year of 2 phase iii trials of guselkumab in patients with psoriatic arthritis proton rahman
Some persons with psoriasis experience psoriatic arthritis, a kind of arthritis. It is a condition that results in red skin areas covered in silvery scales.
Psoriatic arthritis:
Objective: To evaluate the safety of guselkumab (anti-interleukin [IL]-23p19 monoclonal antibody) in patients with psoriatic arthritis (PsA) through one year (1Y) of the phase III DISCOVER-1 and DISCOVER-2 trials.
METHODS: Patients with active PsA (n=1120; biologic naïve except for 118 patients with DISCOVER-1 who were treated with tumor necrosis factor inhibitors) were randomized to guselkumab 100 mg subcutaneously. were assigned every 4 weeks (Q4W) or week 0 and then every 4 weeks. 8 weeks (Q8W); or placebo. At week 24, the patient in the placebo group switched her to guselkumab 100 mg every 4 weeks.
Result: Through week 24, adverse events (AEs) were consistent between placebo and guselkumab. No uveitis, active tuberculosis, opportunistic infections, or inflammatory bowel disease were observed in the guselkumab-treated patient for 1 year, a low rate of malignancy and serious cardiovascular (CV) adverse events. was observed. Injection site reactions occurred in 1.7% and antibodies to guselkumab occurred in her 4.5% of patients treated with guselkumab for her 1 year.
Conclusion: Guselkumab 100 mg Q4W and Q8W were well tolerated in PsA patients with no new safety concerns during his one-year phase III DISCOVER trial. The safety of guselkumab over 1 year in patients with PsA is consistent with that in patients with psoriasis treated with guselkumab.
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patient-reported outcome measures in ms: do development processes and patient involvement support valid quantification of clinically important variables?
The quality of the data that PROs create has, up to this point, constantly suffered from a lack of conceptual frameworks, patient involvement, and precise definitions of the concepts of interest. To maximize the utility of pivotal clinical trials, more thorough PRO instrument development must be done.
Do patient involvement and the development process for patient-reported outcome measures in MS promote the reliable measurement of clinically significant variables?Background: Studies on multiple sclerosis (MS) frequently analyze patient-reported outcomes (PROs). However, there are issues with the validity of linked data due to the variability in the quality of instrument development processes.
objectives: Review the development of a few PROs that are frequently used in MS studies, paying particular attention to the ideas measured, the usage of conceptual frameworks, and the level of involvement from MS patients. to learn more about PlwMS's opinions and advice for using these PROs.
Results: There were frequently gaps in the definitions, explanations, and conceptualizations of the measuring variables. PlwMS participated in PRO development in a variety of ways. Rarely was ethnic diversity documented. Individualization, simplicity, time commitment, and manner of administration were all noted by PlwMS as influencing PRO usability.
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gearan ec, fox mk. updated nutrition standards have significantly improved the nutritional quality of school lunches and breakfasts. j acad nutr diet. 2020 mar;120(3):363-370. doi: 10.1016/j.jand.2019.10.022. epub 2020 jan 13. pmid: 31948795.
The updated nutrition standards have definitely significantly improved the nutritional quality of school lunches and breakfasts. This is a correct statement.
What are nutrition standards?The purpose of nutrition guidelines and standards (NGS) is to increase the adequacy of foods and meals served at schools while also improving the nutritional quality and quantity of those foods.
NGS goes beyond establishing nutrient-based targets and necessitates particular procedures in order to be successful, including the gathering and analysis of data on individual food consumption, knowledge of the value chain and available procurement options, and recognition of local and regional consumption patterns, among others.
Therefore, the given statement is correct.
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triple vs dual inhaler therapy and asthma outcomes in moderate to severe asthma a systematic review and meta-analysis
When compared to dual therapy, triple therapy was significantly linked with fewer severe asthma exacerbations and small improvements in asthma control in children and adults with moderate to severe asthma. There were no significant differences in life quality of life or mortality.
What causes asthma and how is it treated?Exposure to numerous irritants and chemicals that cause allergies (allergens) can cause asthma symptoms. Asthma triggers vary from person to person and can include: airborne allergens such as pollen, dust mites, mold spores, pet dander, or cockroach excrement particles.
Who is at risk of developing asthma?Asthmatics are more common in individuals who grew up or reside in cities. Overweight or obese children and adults are more likely to develop asthma. Although the causes are unknown, some doctors believe that excess weight causes low-grade systemic inflammation.
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Providers who don't have contractual agreements with an insurance company are referred to as
Question 14 options:
a) PAR.
b) third-party.
c) nonPAR.
d) illegal.
Two recommended resources designed to assist in interpreting signs and symptoms are the _____ online medical library and the american academy of family physicians website.
A solid drug form that contains the active drug (as a dried powder) plus inert ingredients to provide bulk is known as a/an ________.
A solid drug form that contains the active drug (as a dried powder) plus inert ingredients to provide bulk is known as a Tablet.
A tablet is a tiny, solid piece of medication that you ingest. A tablet is a capsule that is made entirely of medicine. It is created by compressing pharmaceutical powder into a smooth, hard tablet. Tablet medications come in a wide range of sizes, colors, and shapes, such as round and oblong (caplets). For simpler splitting, some tablets have lines on them. Compressed tablets and moulded tablets are the two broad categories for tablets. Tablets are typically seen as being simple to take by most individuals. They are often simple to ingest and are measured to an exact strength. When high amounts of nutrients are required, however, powders are suggested since they are more concentrated.
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According to recent dawn data, which of these substances is near the top of both the emergency room visits and drug-related deaths lists?
According to recent DAWN data, substance that is near the top of the emergency room visits list both the emergency room visits and drug-related deaths:
alcohol-in-combination
Drug Abuse Warning Network (DAWN)
The Drug Abuse Warning Network (DAWN) is a national public health monitoring system that collects data on recent emergency department (ED) visits related to drug use and abuse directly from participating hospital electronic medical records.
DAWN collects data on ED visits related to the following categories of substances or combinations of substances: alcohol, illicit drugs, prescription drugs, over-the-counter drugs (OTC), dietary supplements, non-pharmaceutical inhalants, and vaporized. material.
Sedation and lethargy, as well as the combined effects of the two drugs, will come when taking much more dawn with alcohol. People who consume alcohol and dawn may encounter side effects like impaired motor reflexes.
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* 25. national institute for occupational safety and health (niosh) and the usp have regulated the implementation of three groups of hazardous drugs. the goal for this regulation is:
The USP and the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) have controlled the use of three classes of dangerous medications.
The main organization in charge of conducting research and making recommendations for actions to take to prevent work-related injuries is NIOSH.
This regulation's objective is: Avoid exposing staff or students to dangerous medications.The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) carries out research and offers suggestions for avoiding illnesses and injuries at work.Three categories of dangerous pharmaceuticals were added to the 2014 list: antineoplastic drugs, non-antineoplastic hazardous drugs, and drugs having reproductive consequences.
The term "dangerous drug" was changed from the one used by the American Society of Health-System Pharmacists.
The NIOSH criteria include teratogenicity, reproductive toxicity, genotoxicity, organ toxicity at low doses, and medicines that mirror the structure or toxicity of currently available pharmaceuticals.
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the nurse has a physician's order for haloperidol (haldol) 10 mg for a severely psychotic client. the client refuses the medication. which nursing intervention is an appropriate response?
Accept the client's decision is an appropriate response
What is psychotic behavior ?People who experience psychosis start to lose touch with reality. This may entail having hallucinations, which involve seeing or hearing things that others cannot see or hear, and holding beliefs that are not true (delusions).
Delusions (false beliefs) and hallucinations are signs of psychosis (seeing or hearing things that others do not see or hear). Other signs include inappropriate behaviour and speech that is illogical or incomprehensible.There are times when symptoms vanish rapidly and a person can immediately return to their normal routine. Others could require support for a longer period of time and require several weeks or months to recover. Keep in mind that insanity is curable, and many people will recover superbly.Learn more about Psychotic behavior here:
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the nurse is caring for a client who is brought to the emergency department after being found unconscious outside in hot weather. dehydration is suspected. baseline lab work including a urine specific gravity is ordered. which relation between the client’s symptoms and urine specific gravity is anticipated?
The relation between the client’s symptoms and urine specific gravity that can be anticipated is that the specific gravity will be high.
When fluid intake is typical, what should the urine’s specific gravity be?The normal range for any urine specific gravity is from 1.005 to 1.030.
Urinary retention is more likely to occur in men with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), a disorder in which the prostate gland is enlarged. Urine cannot exit the bladder as a result of the prostate’s growth pressing against the urethra.
Which value does the nurse consider to be the most accurate clinical indicator of renal function in men over 50 who have BPH?GFR. The glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which is the sum of the filtration rates of the working nephrons in the body.
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Due to recent changes in legislation and general attitudes, the prior use of which drug has become more flexible in regard to recruiting new police officers?
Marijuana has become more flexible in regard to recruiting new police officers.
Marijuana usage during the last two years may exclude an applicant from consideration in the current recruiting process. This only applies for the next two years, or until a two-year period of abstinence from marijuana usage has elapsed.
Police ease marijuana prohibition as they struggle to find new personnel. The purpose of the marijuana usage criterion must be determined by the agencies, along with what they are comfortable with.
It could be appropriate to wait 24–36 months since the previous usage if the objective is to utilize the criterion as a stringent test of decision-making and judgment. If the goal is to make sure the individual does not have a marijuana issue, a period of abstinence of 12 months without a history of recurrent usage would suffice.
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Resistance to a first-line antituberculotic agent in a client who has not received previous treatment is referred to as?
Resistance to a first-line antituberculotic agent in a client who has not received previous treatment is referred to as primary drug resistance.
What are the first line anti TB drugs?Isoniazid, a rifamycin (rifampin or [less frequently] either rifapentine or rifabutin), pyrazinamide, and ethambutol are the first-line drugs used to treat active TB. Moxifloxacin also qualifies as a first-line drug when used in conjunction with isoniazid, rifapentine, and pyrazinamide.
Difference between first line and second-line TB drugsFor the treatment of TB, the first-line therapy medications are the most efficient and least toxic, but the second-line therapeutic drugs are less efficient, more expensive, and more toxic. However, they are crucial for the treatment of microorganisms with antibiotic resistance (MDR-TB).
What is first line drug?A medication that is the first choice for treating a specific ailment because it is thought to be the most effective treatment for that condition with the lowest risk of side effects. A first-line drug might be a single drug or a class of drugs (SSRIs for depression, for example).
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leclerc e, trevizol ap, grigolon rb, et al. the effect of caloric restriction on working memory in healthy non-obese adults. cns spectr 2019 april 10 (epub ahead of print).
We aim to evaluate the effect of caloric restriction (CR) in cognition by comparing performance in neuropsychological tests for working memory between a group of non-obese healthy subjects doing CR for 2 years with another consuming ad libitum diet (AL).
What is the result and conclusion of above study ?After corrections, CR participants showed a considerably larger improvement in working memory than AL did, as measured by the SWM. At month 24, it was primarily caused by consuming less protein than other macronutrients. Changes in energy expenditure, physical activity, and sleep quality all had an impact on SWM.
In conclusion, working memory appears to be marginally improved over time in healthy persons who engage in CR. New avenues for preventing and treating cognitive impairments are made possible by research into brain CR targets.Learn more about Calories here:
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challenges and opportunities for public health made possible by advances in natural language processing
Natural language processing is an important AI technology for comprehending unstructured, frequently technical healthcare data and information.
What exactly is natural language processing (NLP)?Natural language processing is a branch of linguistics, computer science, as well as artificial intelligence that studies how computers interact with human language, specifically how to design computers to process and analyze massive volumes of natural textual information.
What is the most difficult aspect of natural language?The basic issue of NLP is to interpret and model items in a changing context. Words in a natural language are unique, yet they can possess different meanings depending upon the context, resulting in ambiguity at the lexical, syntactic, as well as semantic levels.
What role does natural language processing play in healthcare?Natural language processing technology in healthcare can scan clinical writing and determine what needs to be retrieved in seconds. This frees up physicians' and staff resources that focus on more difficult issues, while also reducing time spent on unnecessary administrative policy.
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Which phase generally involves a few patients with a medical problem a drug is intended to treat and is designed to determine both safety and efficacy of a drug
Phase II generally involves a few patients with a medical problem and it is designed to determine both the safety and efficacy of a drug.
What is clinical trial Phase II?Clinical trial Phase II is a fundamental step in medical research in which a small sample of individuals affected by a condition is assessed in order to determine the efficacy of the drug.
In conclusion, Phase II generally involves a few patients with a medical problem and it is designed to determine both the safety and efficacy of a drug.
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perceived judgment about weight can negatively influence weight loss: a cross-sectional study of overweight and obese patients
Perceived judgment about weight can negatively influence weight loss is referred to as a true statement.
What is Weight?This is defined as the quantity of matter contained in a body and an obese or overweight person usually has excessive fat accumulation in the body which is considered unhealthy.
In situations whereby an individual doesn't see weight loss as a big deal, there will be less motivation to perform activities which will result in its loss which therefore negatively influence weight loss in individuals and vice versa.
This is therefore the reason why true was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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The full question is:
The perceived judgment about weight can negatively influence weight loss: a cross-sectional study of overweight and obese patients
True/False
a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa stopped eating 5 months ago and lost 25 percent of total body weight. which subjective client response should the nurse understand is an example of cognitive distortions?
D: The nurse diagnoses Imbalanced Nutrition i.e., Less Than Body Requirements is supported by the patient’s medical history and test findings.
There are no records indicating that the patient produces vomiting, uses laxatives, or overexercises.
In place of having a high potassium level, the patient has hypokalemia.
Physical evidence of anorexia may include:Extreme weight loss or failure to gain weight as expected during growth.
A thin frame.
Excessive blood counts.
Fatigue.
Insomnia.
Fainting or dizziness
Finger discoloration that is bluish.
Which of the following signs of binge eating disorder would be present in a patient?Eating quickly when having a binge. Eating until you’re too full to be comfortable.
Eating alone or covertly a lot. Feeling down about your eating or disgusted, embarrassed, guilty, or upset.
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Complete Question
A client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa stopped eating 5 months ago and lost 25% of total body weight. Which subjective client response would the nurse assess to support this medical diagnosis?
A. "I do not use any laxatives or diuretics to lose weight."
B. "I am losing lots of hair. It's coming out in handfuls."
C. "I know that I am thin, but I refuse to be fat!"
D. "I don't know why people are worried. I need to lose this weight."
Which drug can cause pinpoint pupils, amnesia, and hypotension? a. methylphenidate (ritalin) b. dextromethorphan (robitussin) c. amphetamine (adderall) d. cocaine
The correct answer is option b, dextromethorphan (Robitussin). A synthetic opiate called dextromethorphan (Robitussin) depresses the central nervous system and may have side effects including pinpoint pupils, forgetfulness, and hypertension.
The pharmaceutical dextromethorphan is most frequently found in over-the-counter cold and cough remedies as a cough suppressant. It can be purchased as a syrup, tablet, spray, or lozenge. It belongs to a group of drugs called morphinans that have sedative, dissociative, and stimulating effects.
This combination drug is used to treat coughs brought on by bronchitis, the common cold, and other respiratory conditions. Dextromethorphan and guaifenesin are the two main active components in Robitussin.
Antitussive medication dextromethorphan is used to treat persistent coughing. It aids in stopping your cough by reducing the brain activity that causes the urge to cough.
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the concepts that are core to nursing are person, environment, health, and nurse; these are known as the nursing
The concepts that are core to nursing are person, environment, health, and nurse; these are known as the nursing metaparadigm.
What is the nursing metaparadigm?The nursing metaparadigm can be defined as all the body of scientific information in which the nursing profession is based, which involves patient, environment, and health.
In conclusion, 'the concepts that are core to nursing are person, environment, health, and nurse; these are known as the nursing metaparadigm.
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a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for ciprofloxacin to treat an uncomplicated uti. which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Monitoring tendon pain is because it can cause tendinitis and tendon rupture.
What is ciprofloxacin?Fluoroquinolone (flor-o-KWIN-o-lone) antibiotic ciprofloxacin is used to treat several bacterial illnesses. People who have been exposed to anthrax or some forms of plague are also treated with it. The use of ciprofloxacin extended-release is only permitted in adults.
Fluoroquinolone drugs have potentially irreversible, significant, or debilitating adverse effects. Only infections that cannot be cured with a less dangerous antibiotic should be treated with ciprofloxacin.
Therefore, monitoring tendon pain is because it can cause tendinitis and tendon rupture.
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the nurse is aware, when caring for patients with renal disease, that which substance made in the glomeruli directly controls blood pressure?
The nurse is aware, when caring for patients with renal disease. Renin substance made in the glomeruli directly controls blood pressure.
Renal disease :Chronic kidney disease may leads to renal failure.
The kidneys purify the blood by filtering waste and excess fluid. Waste accumulates as kidneys fail.
Symptoms appear gradually and are not particular to the disease. Some patients have no symptoms and are diagnosed through a lab test.
Medications aid with symptom management. In later stages, blood filtering with a machine (dialysis) or a transplant may be required.
Symptoms :People may have no symptoms, however they may experience :
Fatigue, high blood pressure, loss of appetite, malaise, or water-electrolyte imbalance throughout the body
Kidney damage, an irregular heart rhythm, failure to thrive, fluid in the lungs, insufficient urine production, itching, kidney failure, significant accidental weight loss, or swelling are all prevalent.
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multidisciplinary practical guidelines for gastrointestinal access for enteral nutrition and decompression from the society of interventional radiology and american gastroenterological association (aga) institute, with endorsement by canadian interventional radiological association (cira) and cardiovascular and interventional radiological society of europe (cirse
The given statement is true. The American Gastroenterological Association is a medical association of gastroenterologists.
What is Gastroenterology?A professional organization for gastroenterologists is the American Gastroenterological Association. The AGA was established in 1897 and now has 16,000 members across the globe who are involved in the practice, research, and educational aspects of gastroenterology.The AGA Institute is responsible for managing the organization's practice, research, and educational initiatives. The AGA, a 501 organization, is in charge of the organization's practice, research, and educational initiatives, while the AGA Institute, also a 501 entity, oversees membership and public policy matters. Diseases of the gastrointestinal (stomach and intestines) and hepatological (liver, gallbladder, biliary tree, and pancreas) systems are diagnosed, treated, and prevented by gastroenterologists. Gastroenterology is the study of conditions affecting the esophagus, stomach, small intestine, colon, rectum, pancreas, gallbladder, malice ducts, and liver as well as their regular operation.The complete question is:
multidisciplinary practical guidelines for gastrointestinal access for enteral nutrition and decompression from the society of interventional radiology and american gastroenterological association (aga) institute, with endorsement by canadian interventional radiological association (cira) and cardiovascular and interventional radiological society of europe (cirse) true/false .
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in 1813, swiss physician jean-francois coindet hypothesized that he could use to treat goiter.
Eating seaweed, according to the statement, is a remedy for goiter, a severe swelling of the thyroid gland inside the neck.
What exactly is goiter?A goiter is typically caused by an iodine shortage or thyroid gland inflammation. Not all goiters are symptomatic. Swelling and coughing are two possible symptoms. Symptoms may also include throat constriction or difficulty breathing in rare cases.
What's the most prevalent reason for a goiter?A deficiency of iodine is the most common cause of goiter.. Iodine is required by the body to create thyroid hormones. If you don't get enough iodine from your diet, your thyroid grows to try to capture as much iodine as possible so that it can produce the proper quantity of thyroid hormone.
What effect does seaweed have on your body?Many antioxidants are found in seaweed in the form of vitamins (A, C, and E) and protective pigments. It contains a sufficient quantity of iodine, a trace mineral essential for thyroid health and function. Some seaweeds, like purple laver, also have high levels of B12.
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the nurse suspects that an adolescent has anorexia nervosa. which characteristics may have been observed
The nurse suspects that an adolescent has anorexia nervosa the characteristics may have been observed.
Denying illnessmissing food maintaining rigid body controlWhat is anorexia nervosa?Anorexia is characterized by a distorted perception of oneself and an unfounded fear of being overweight. Fasting or increased exertion in an attempt to maintain a normal weight are symptoms. Medical therapy may be required to return to normal weight. Talk therapy can assist with self-esteem and behavioral improvements.
What are the many types of anorexia nervosa?Anorexia nervosa is classified into two subtypes: restricting and non-restricting. Binge-eating/purging type, where there are periods of food consumption that are compensated for by self-induced vomiting, cathartic or diuretic misuse, and/or excessive activity.
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Which cranial nerves are associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?.
The cranial nerves Oculomotor, Facial, Glossopharyngeal, and Vagus are associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.
The oculomotor, facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves are cranial nerves that are involved in the parasympathetic nervous system. The Edinger-Westphal nucleus for the oculomotor nerve, superior salivatory and lacrimal nuclei for the facial nerve, inferior salivatory nucleus for the glossopharyngeal nerve, the dorsal nucleus of the vagus nerve, as well as the nucleus ambiguus for the vagus nerve, are the nuclei specifically related to these.
The parasympathetic nervous system's preganglionic fibers may be located here. Additionally, the second, third, and fourth sacral segments' respective sacral parasympathetic nuclei are all engaged.
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the nurse employed in a preschool agency is planning a staff education program to prevent the spread of an intestinal parasitical disease
To prevent the spread of an intestinal parasitical disease staff will practice standard precautions when changing diapers and assisting children with toileting.
What is the most common intestinal parasite?Giardia is arguably the most prevalent parasite infection in humans worldwide, while pin-worm is the most prevalent in the US. Giardiasis is thought to affect more than 2.5 million people annually, according to estimates made by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) between 1992 and 1997.
What is a parasite in the intestines?One of the most common types of intestinal parasites in humans are intestinal worms, commonly referred to as parasitic worms. Although several varieties can be found in the United States, they are most frequently seen in subtropical and tropical areas. The majority of intestinal worm infections only result in little illness and are manageable with medicine.
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Which disease spurned the bloodborne pathogens act?
a. tb
b. hepatitis c
c. hiv
d. hepatitis b
Hepatitis B spurned the bloodborne pathogens act.
Bloodborne pathogens are disease-causing organisms that enter the blood through body fluids like semen, vaginal discharge, amniotic fluid, etc. There are three common bloodborne pathogens:
Hepatitis B virus (HBV), Hepatitis C virus (HCV), and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
Bloodborne pathogens act, by OSHA, included the standards to protect the occupational population from the spread of bloodborne pathogens like HIV, HBV, and HCV. It includes various preventive measures such as effective control plans, universal and standard precautions, vaccines, personal protective equipment, and annual employee training regarding the spread.
The bloodborne pathogens standards provided various precautions after the employee training for such. They were obliged to make Hepatitis B vaccines to administer to the workers to control the spread of bloodborne disease.
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