The primary advantage to selling pollution permits rather than using a fixed percent reduction for all firms is that A. pollution reduction is accomplished in the least costly way possible B. the government can raise additional revenue C. enforcement costs are eliminated D. pollution is driven to zero tribute

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Answer 1

The primary advantage of selling pollution permits rather than using a fixed percent reduction for all firms is that pollution reduction is accomplished in the least costly way possible. The correct option is A.

With a fixed percent reduction, all firms would have to reduce their pollution output by the same amount, regardless of their current level of pollution or the cost of implementing the reduction.

However, with pollution permits, firms can choose whether to reduce their pollution output or buy permits from other firms that have reduced their output beyond their required level. This allows firms to find the most cost-effective way to reduce pollution, resulting in a reduction in pollution at the lowest possible cost.

Additionally, the government can raise additional revenue by selling these permits to firms, which can be used to fund other environmental initiatives.

However, it is important to ensure that the permits are set at the appropriate level to ensure that pollution reduction goals are met.

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Related Questions

Can there be both strategic dominance and strategic
interdependence in a game theory table?

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Yes, both strategic dominance and strategic interdependence can exist in a game theory table.

Strategic dominance occurs when a player has a strategy that yields a better outcome, regardless of the other player's strategy. This strategy is considered dominant, as it outperforms all other available options.

Strategic interdependence, on the other hand, refers to the situation where the outcome of one player's decision depends on the actions of the other player. In these scenarios, both players need to consider each other's choices to determine their best course of action. This mutual dependence creates a complex decision-making process, as one's optimal strategy may change depending on the opponent's decision.

A game theory table can exhibit both strategic dominance and strategic interdependence if there are multiple possible outcomes for each player. For example, a player may have a dominant strategy for a specific subset of decisions, while still experiencing interdependence with the other player's choices in other scenarios. This combination of dominance and interdependence can make the game more complex and require a deeper analysis of the decision-making process.

In summary, both strategic dominance and strategic interdependence can coexist in a game theory table. While dominance represents a clear advantage in certain scenarios, the presence of interdependence complicates the decision-making process, as players must account for the potential choices of their opponents. This combination creates an intricate landscape for strategic analysis in game theory.

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Yes, it is possible for a game theory table to exhibit both strategic dominance and strategic interdependence. Strategic dominance occurs when one player has a dominant strategy that is optimal regardless of the other player's choice.

On the other hand, strategic interdependence refers to the situation where the outcome of a player's choice depends on the other player's choice. In some cases, there may be a dominant strategy for one player, while the other player's best response depends on the first player's choice. This can create strategic interdependence, as the second player must take into account the first player's dominant strategy when making their decision.

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1. Suppose that US dollar (USD) has a continuously compounded interest rate of 1% per annum and Australian dollar (AUD) has a continuously compounded interest rate of 3% per annum. The spot exchange rate is 0.98 USD per AUD. (a) Show that the no-arbitrage 2-year forward rate is 0.9416 USD per AUD. (b) Suppose that the 2-year forward rate is 0.93 USD per AUD in the market.

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First, let's define the terms "interest" and "compounded." Interest refers to the amount of money that is earned or paid on an investment or loan, usually expressed as a percentage of the principal amount. Compounded means that the interest earned on an investment is added to the principal, and the interest for the next period is calculated based on the new, higher principal amount.

Now, let's look at the problem:

(a) To calculate the no-arbitrage 2-year forward rate, we can use the formula:

Forward rate = Spot rate x (1 + domestic interest rate) / (1 + foreign interest rate)

In this case, the domestic currency is USD and the foreign currency is AUD. So, using the given interest rates and spot rate:

Forward rate = 0.98 x (1 + 0.01) ^ 2 / (1 + 0.03) ^ 2
Forward rate = 0.9416 USD per AUD

Therefore, the no-arbitrage 2-year forward rate is 0.9416 USD per AUD.

(b) If the market forward rate is 0.93 USD per AUD, then there is an opportunity for arbitrage. We can buy AUD at the spot rate of 0.98 USD per AUD, invest it in Australia for two years at 3% interest, and then sell it in the forward market at 0.93 USD per AUD. This would give us a profit of:

Profit = Principal x (1 + foreign interest rate) ^ 2 x (forward rate - spot rate)
Profit = 1 USD x (1 + 0.03) ^ 2 x (0.93 - 0.98)
Profit = 0.0457 USD

Therefore, there is an arbitrage opportunity and the market is not in equilibrium. Traders would take advantage of this opportunity by buying AUD, investing it in Australia, and selling it in the forward market to make a profit.

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the change in disposable income is $200 and the change in saving is $40. what is the marginal propensity to consume (mpc)?

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The Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) in this case is 0.8.

The Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) can be calculated using the formula:

MPC = Change in Consumption / Change in Disposable Income

In your case, the change in disposable income is $200, and the change in saving is $40. To find the change in consumption, subtract the change in saving from the change in disposable income:

Change in Consumption = Change in Disposable Income - Change in Saving
Change in Consumption = $200 - $40
Change in Consumption = $160

Now, you can calculate the MPC:

MPC = Change in Consumption / Change in Disposable Income
MPC = $160 / $200
MPC = 0.8

The Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) in this case is 0.8.

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how do gains in labor productivity lead to gains in gdp per capita

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The GDP per capita will increase when people create more since their earnings will grow and they'll have more money to spend.

The value of the goods and services produced in a given hour of work determines worker productivity. To calculate per capita GDP, one must divide the entire value of goods and services produced inside a country by the total number of people living there.

The standard of living rises as labor productivity increases. This is a result of the fact that as workers produce more items, their earnings rise. They will thus have more accessible discretionary cash. Employees will be able to eat more as a result. As a result, the GDP per person will rise. Productivity improvements enable businesses to produce more for the same level of input, create more revenues, and eventually yield a larger Gross Domestic Product.

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why was electricity the most important power source for the second industrial revolution? group of answer choices electrical power generation plants were pollution-free. britain was rich in coal, so it did not have to rely on foreign supplies to power its factories. some new industries, such as the iron industry, were dependent solely on electricity. factories could be located near concentrations of workers and production costs were lower

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The most important power source for the second industrial revolution was electricity because "factories could be located near concentrations of workers, and production costs were lower" (Option d).

With the availability of electricity, factories no longer needed to be located near rivers or coalfields for power. Instead, they could be built in urban areas closer to a concentration of workers, which made it easier to recruit and manage employees. Additionally, electrical power could be transmitted over longer distances, allowing factories to be located farther away from raw materials and closer to markets.

Furthermore, the use of electricity in manufacturing processes improved efficiency and productivity, as machines could be powered continuously and uniformly, leading to greater output and reduced costs. This was particularly important in new industries such as the iron industry, where electricity was the only viable power source for certain manufacturing processes.

Finally, the development of electrical power generation plants meant that businesses could rely on a more consistent and reliable source of power compared to earlier methods such as steam engines. This allowed for smoother production processes and fewer interruptions due to power outages.

Overall, the widespread adoption of electricity in the second industrial revolution was a significant factor in the growth and success of manufacturing industries during that time.

Option d is answer.

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The Yurdone Corporation wants to set up a private cemetery business. According to the CFO, Barry M. Deep, business is "looking up." As a result, the cemetery project will provide a net cash inflow of $115,000 for the firm during the first year, and the cash flows are projected to grow at a rate of 5.8 percent per year forever. The project requires an Initial investment of $1,380,000. a. If the company requires a return of 12 percent on such undertakings, what is the NPV of the project? (Do not round Intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) b. The company is somewhat unsure about the assumption of a growth rate of 5.8 percent in its cash flows. At what constant growth rate would the company just break even if it still required a return of 12 percent on its investment? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) eBook Print - NPV b. Minimum growth rate %

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A. The NPV of the cemetery project is -$72,753.12, indicating that the project is not profitable and should not be undertaken by the company.

B. The minimum constant growth rate required for the company to break even with a required return of 12 percent is 2.2%. This means that if the cash flows do not grow at a rate of at least 2.2%, the project will not be profitable.

A. To calculate the NPV of the project, we need to discount the future cash flows at the required rate of return. The NPV formula is:

NPV = -Initial investment + ∑(Cash flows / (1 + r)^t)

Where r is the required rate of return and t is the time period.

Plugging in the values, we get:

NPV = -$1,380,000 + ($115,000 / (1 + 0.12)^1) + ($115,000 * 1.058 / (0.12 - 0.058))

NPV = -$72,753.12

Since the NPV is negative, the project is not profitable and should not be undertaken by the company.

B. To calculate the minimum growth rate required for the company to break even, we can use the following formula:

Minimum growth rate = (Initial investment / Annual cash flow)^(1/n) - 1

Where n is the number of years.

Plugging in the values, we get:

Minimum growth rate = ($1,380,000 / $115,000)^(1/∞) - 1

Minimum growth rate = 2.2%

This means that if the cash flows do not grow at a rate of at least 2.2%, the project will not be profitable, assuming a required rate of return of 12%.

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which of the following are components of the unity-of-command perspective on ceo duality? (check all that apply.) multiple select question. a ceo has a clear focus on both objectives and operations. confusion and conflict between the ceo and chairman is increased. confusion and conflict between the ceo and chairman is eliminated. a ceo can act more efficiently and effectively when holding both positions.

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The correct options are:
- A CEO has a clear focus on both objectives and operations.
- A CEO can act more efficiently and effectively when holding both positions.

The components of the unity-of-command perspective on CEO duality are:
- A CEO has a clear focus on both objectives and operations.
- A CEO can act more efficiently and effectively when holding both positions. Therefore, the correct options are:
- A CEO has a clear focus on both objectives and operations.
- A CEO can act more efficiently and effectively when holding both positions.

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If a credit card pays 5% interest compounded quarterly, what is the effective annual interest rate? a. 6% b.5% c.5.4% O d. 5.09%

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The effective annual interest rate is the interest rate that is earned on an investment over a year when the interest is compounded more than once a year. In this case, credit card pays 5% interest compounded quarterly. Effective annual interest rate is 5.09%, Correct answer is option D

To calculate the effective annual interest rate, we need to use the formula:  Effective annual interest rate = (1 + (nominal interest rate / number of compounding periods)).number of compounding periods - 1. In this case, the nominal interest rate is 5% and the number of compounding periods is 4 (since interest is compounded quarterly). So, we can plug these values into the formula:



Effective annual interest rate =[tex](1 + (0.05 / 4))^4 - 1[/tex]. Simplifying this expression gives us:  Effective annual interest rate = 1.0509 - 1, Effective annual interest rate = 0.0509 or 5.09%



This means that if you invest $1000 on this credit card, you will earn 5.09% interest on it in a year. It's important to note that the effective annual interest rate takes into account the effect of compounding, which means that the interest you earn will be reinvested and earn interest itself. Therefore, the answer is option d.

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Consider the auction model with a continuum of possible valuations. Bidder i’s valuation, Vi , is drawn from the uniform distribution on [0, 1], for i = 1, 2, . . . , n. In other words, the cdf of Vi , can be defined as F(v) = v for v ∈ [0, 1] (and, of course, F(v) = 0 for v < 0 and F(v) = 1 for v > 1). Each bidder’s valuation is independent of any other bidder’s valuation. Consider the first-price auction. As I have argued in class, the strategy profile in which Bi(v) = B(v) ≡ (n−1)/n·v for all v ∈ [0, 1] and i = 1, 2, . . . , n is a Nash equilibrium. For this problem, focus on the case n = 3.
(a) Consider bidder 1. Given bidders 2 and 3 bid B(v) = 2v/3 for all v ∈ [0, 1], show that when V1 = 3/4, the best response for bidder 1 to bid B(1/2) = 2 3 · 3 4 = 1 2 . Hint: Express his payoff as a function of his bid, b, and show that b = 1/3 maximizes his expected payoff.
(b) Suppose the seller uses a posted price p. What is her expected revenue? Which price maximizes her expected revenue? Hint: What is the probability of at least one buyer is willing to pay p?
(c) Recall that in the first price auction, the seller’s expected revenue is (n−1)/(n+1). Compare the seller’s revenue from the first-price auction and that from posted-price selling

Answers

(a) The best response for bidder 1 when bidders 2 and 3 bid B(v) = 2v/3 and V1 = 3/4 is to bid b1 = 1/3.

(b) The expected revenue for the seller when using a posted price p is E[π(p)] = [tex]p · (1 - (1-p)^n)[/tex]. The price that maximizes the expected revenue is p = 1/n.

(c) The expected revenue from the first-price auction is higher than the expected revenue from posted-price selling for any value of p.

(a) When bidders 2 and 3 bid B(v) = 2v/3, the expected payoff for bidder 1 can be expressed as:

E[π1(b1, b2, b3)] = ∫(b1 – B(v))(n-1)v dv

Plugging in the values of B(v) and V1 = 3/4, we get:

E[π1(b1, 2/3, 2/3)] = ∫(b1 – 2v/3)(n-1)v dv

= ∫(b1 – 2/3)v dv

= (b1 - 2/3) ∫v dv

= (b1 - 2/3)(1/2)

= 1/2 b1 - 1/3

To find the best response for bidder 1, we need to find the value of b1 that maximizes his expected payoff. Taking the derivative of E[π1(b1, 2/3, 2/3)] with respect to b1 and setting it equal to zero, we get:

dE[π1(b1, 2/3, 2/3)]/db1 = 1/2 = 0

Therefore, the best response for bidder 1 is b1 = 1/3.

(b) Suppose the seller uses a posted price p. The probability that at least one bidder is willing to pay p is given by:

[tex]P(max{V1, V2, V3} ≥ p) = 1 - (1-p)^3[/tex]

The expected revenue for the seller is then:

[tex]R(p) = pP(max{V1, V2, V3} ≥ p)[/tex]

Taking the derivative of R(p) with respect to p and setting it equal to zero to find the price that maximizes revenue, we get:

[tex]dR(p)/dp = 1 - 3(1-p)^2 = 0[/tex]

Solving for p, we get:

p* = 2/3

Therefore, the price that maximizes the seller's expected revenue is 2/3, and her expected revenue is:

[tex]R(p*) = p*(1 - (1-p*)^3) = 8/27[/tex]

(c) In the first-price auction, the seller's expected revenue is:

[tex]R = (n-1)/(n+1) ∫0^1 vp(v)dv[/tex]

Plugging in n = 3 and the uniform distribution for v, we get:

R = 2/3

Comparing this to the revenue from posted-price selling (8/27), we see that the seller's revenue is higher in the first-price auction.

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seaside issues a bond with a coupon (stated) interest rate of 12%, face value of $500,000, and due in 5 years. interest payments are made semi-annually. the market rate for this type of bond is 8%. what is the issue price of the bond?

Answers

$548,880 is the bond's issue price.

The issue price of the bond can be calculated using the present value formula, which takes into account the coupon payments and the face value of the bond. In this case, the semi-annual coupon payments are $30,000 ($500,000 x 12% / 2), and the number of semi-annual periods is 10 (5 years x 2). Using the market rate of 8%, the semi-annual discount rate is 4%.

To calculate the present value of the coupon payments, we use the formula:

Coupon payments x Present value factor = Present value of coupon payments

$30,000 x 7.036 = $211,080

To calculate the present value of the face value, we use the formula:

Face value x Present value factor = Present value of face value

$500,000 x 0.6756 = $337,800

Adding the present value of the coupon payments and the present value of the face value gives us the issue price of the bond:

$211,080 + $337,800 = $548,880

Therefore, the issue price of the bond is $548,880.

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1) Laura Rivera is risk manager of JKL Company. Laura decided to retain certain property losses. All of the following are methods which Laura can use to fund retained property losses EXCEPT
Select one:
a. current net income.
b. funded reserve.
c. borrowed funds
d. private insurance.

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Laura Rivera is the risk manager of JKL Company, and she decided to retain certain property losses. Among the methods Laura can use to fund retained property losses, the following are acceptable:  current net income, funded reserve, and borrowed funds. The only option that is not suitable for funding retained property losses is private insurance.

To explain further, a) current net income refers to the profit earned by the company after accounting for all expenses and can be used to cover retained losses.

b) Funded reserve involves setting aside funds in a separate account to cover potential losses, which is also a viable method for funding retained property losses.

c) Borrowed funds, which are loans obtained from banks or other financial institutions, can also be used to cover retained property losses.

However, d) private insurance is not a method for funding retained property losses. Private insurance transfers risk from the company to the insurer, which means the insurer covers the losses instead of the company.

In this case, since Laura decided to retain certain property losses, using private insurance to fund these losses contradicts the decision to retain them.

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does the total amount of energy output for each herbivore add up to the total amount of energy eaten by each herbivore?

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In short, no, the total amount of energy output for each herbivore does not necessarily add up to the total amount of energy eaten by each herbivore. This is because herbivores lose energy through various processes such as respiration, digestion, and movement.

When herbivores consume plant material, they extract the nutrients and energy they need to survive and grow. However, during digestion, not all of the energy from the food is absorbed into the herbivore's body. Some of the energy is lost through feces and urine, which contains undigested material. This means that not all of the energy eaten by the herbivore is converted into usable energy for the body.

Furthermore, herbivores use energy for various metabolic processes, such as respiration and movement. The energy used for these processes is not available for growth or reproduction. Additionally, herbivores lose energy to the environment through processes such as heat loss and excretion.

Therefore, the total amount of energy output for each herbivore does not necessarily add up to the total amount of energy eaten by each herbivore. Some of the energy is lost through various processes, and not all of it is converted into usable energy for the herbivore's body.

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(a) Outline any FIVE (5) factors that determine the moneymultiplier. (15marks)

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The five factors that determine the money multiplier are reserve requirements, excess reserves, currency drains, borrowing from the central bank, and the public's desire to hold cash.

The reserve requirement is the amount of funds that banks must keep on hand to meet customer withdrawal demands. If the reserve requirement is lowered, banks have more money available to lend out, thus increasing the money multiplier. Excess reserves are funds that banks have in excess of their reserve requirements. If banks have more excess reserves, they can lend more money, which increases the money multiplier. Currency drains occur when customers withdraw cash from their bank accounts, reducing the amount of money available for lending. Borrowing from the central bank also increases the money supply, as this provides banks with more funds to lend out. Finally, the public's desire to hold cash affects the money multiplier, as customers withdrawing money from banks can reduce the amount of money available for lending.

The money multiplier is influenced by various factors, and understanding these factors is crucial for managing the money supply in an economy.

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Consider a part is to be transported from China to Europe. The annual demand for the part is 40,000 units. Price is $150 per unit. Annual holding cost rate is 30% of unit price. There are two transportation options. Air Cargo takes 5 days (door to door) and costs $45 per unit. Ocean Freight takes 50 days and costs $15 per unit. Because of variability of transportation time and demand, 1 week of demand will be kept at destination as safety stock if air cargo is used. On the other hand, 9 weeks of demand will be kept at destination as safety stock if ocean freight is used. Assume that order quantity is the same in both cases, and the shipping (freight) cost is charged when the item is delivered at the destination. Calculate the following costs for Air cargo: 1. Annual freight cost 2. Annual in-transit holding cost 3. Annual safety stock holding cost 4. Total cost of Air Cargo

Answers

the costs for air cargo, we need to use the following information:

Annual demand (D) = 40,000 units

Unit price (P) = $150

Holding cost rate (H) = 30% of unit price = $45

Transportation cost per unit (T) = $45

Safety stock for air cargo (S_air) = 1 week of demand = D/52 = 769 units

Delivery lead time for air cargo (L_air) = 5 days

Order quantity (Q) = ?

Working days per year (W) = 250 (assumed)

Annual freight cost:

Annual demand * transportation cost per unit = D * T = 40,000 * 45 = $1,800,000

Annual in-transit holding cost:

Average inventory in transit = Q/2

Average transit time = L_air/2 = 2.5 days

In-transit holding cost per unit per day = H * P / 365 = 45 * 150 / 365 = $18.49

Annual in-transit holding cost = Average inventory in transit * Average transit time * In-transit holding cost per unit per day

Annual in-transit holding cost = (Q/2) * (L_air/2) * 18.49 * W

Annual in-transit holding cost = (Q/4) * L_air * 18.49 * 250

Annual safety stock holding cost:

Safety stock holding cost per unit = H * P = 45 * 150 = $6,750

Annual safety stock holding cost = Safety stock * Safety stock holding cost per unit

Annual safety stock holding cost = S_air * 6,750

Total cost of air cargo:

Total cost = Annual freight cost + Annual in-transit holding cost + Annual safety stock holding cost

Total cost = 1,800,000 + (Q/4) * L_air * 18.49 * 250 + S_air * 6,750

We need to find the order quantity (Q) that minimizes the total cost. To do this, we can use the economic order quantity (EOQ) formula:

EOQ = sqrt(2DS_air / H)

EOQ = sqrt(2 * 40,000 * 769 / 0.3 * 150) = 1,925 units (rounded up)

Now we can plug this value of Q into the total cost equation to find the total cost of air cargo:

Total cost = 1,800,000 + (1,925/4) * 5 * 18.49 * 250 + 769 * 6,750

Total cost = $2,171,978.75

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The following two payment options each has a present value of X. (i) 140 at the end of each year, forever, with the first payment due at t = 1. (ii) A payment of 1971.24 at t = 10, followed by 140 at the end of each year, forever, with the first payment of 140 due at t = 11. Find X. a. 1.740.54 b. 1.854.05 c. 1.778.38 d. 1.891.89 e. 1.816.22

Answers

The present value of the first option is X, which means that the present value of an infinite stream of $140 payments discounted at the same rate is also X. Therefore, X = 140/0.12 = 1166.67.

To calculate the present value of the second option, we need to discount the $1971.24 payment back to time t=0 using the 12% discount rate for 10 years, which gives us a present value of $535.68. Then we need to calculate the present value of the infinite stream of $140 payments starting at t=11, which is X/(1+0.12)^10. Therefore, X/(1+0.12)^10 + $535.68 = X. Solving for X, we get X = $1740.54.

Therefore, the answer is (a) $1,740.54.

The first option is an infinite stream of $140 payments, and the second option is a payment of $1971.24 followed by an infinite stream of $140 payments. We can use the present value formula to calculate the present value of each option, set them equal to X, and solve for X.

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I need answer for this question. It's urgentplease.The following table presents closing prices of June 2022 CHF futures contract for three days in March 2022. Each contract requires the delivery of CHF 125,000. The initial and maintenance margin per c ontract are $2,500, and $2,000, respectively. Date 3/01 3/02 3/03 h June 2022 CHF Futures $0.5350 $0.5375 $0.5315 Contract Based on prices during the three-day period, which one of the following statements is true. If you sold CHF futures contracts on 3/01, then on 3/02 you would have made a profit O If you bought CHF futures contracts on 3/01, then on 3/02 you would have made a loss O If you sold CHF futures contracts on 3/02, then on 3/03 you would have made a profit O If you bought CHF futures contracts on 3/02, then on 3/03 you would have made a profit

Answers

The statement "If you sold CHF futures contracts on 3/02, then on 3/03 you would have made a profit" is true. The correct option is C.

To determine the profit or loss on a futures contract, we need to calculate the difference between the purchase price and the selling price of the contract.

On 3/02, the closing price of the June 2022 CHF futures contract was $0.5375. If you sold one contract, you would have sold it for $0.5375 × CHF 125,000 = $67,188.

On 3/03, the closing price of the June 2022 CHF futures contract was $0.5315. If you bought back the contract you sold on 3/02, you would have bought it for $0.5315 × CHF 125,000 = $66,438. The profit would be $67,188 - $66,438 = $750.

Therefore, option C is true.

The following table presents closing prices of June 2022 CHF futures contract for three days in March 2022. Each contract requires the delivery of CHF 125,000. The initial and maintenance margin per c ontract are $2,500, and $2,000, respectively.

Date                                   3/01          3/02       3/03

June 2022 CHF Futures $0.5350 $0.5375 $0.5315

Contract Based on prices during the three-day period, which one of the following statements is true.

A. If you sold CHF futures contracts on 3/01, then on 3/02 you would have made a profit

B. If you bought CHF futures contracts on 3/01, then on 3/02 you would have made a loss

C. If you sold CHF futures contracts on 3/02, then on 3/03 you would have made a profit

D.  If you bought CHF futures contracts on 3/02, then on 3/03 you would have made a profit

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all of the following are costs of inflation, except a. money neutrality. b. menu costs. c. shoe-leather costs. d. redistribution of wealth.

Answers

Inflation has five costs: menu prices, shoe-leather expenses, relative pricing fluctuation, tax distortions, and inconvenience and confusion. Hence (a) is the correct option.

Inflation has a number of negative effects, including the potential for reduced investment and slower economic growth due to volatility and uncertainty. Because many people believe it to be a serious economic issue, inflation is a subject that generates a lot of debate.  Inflation can reduce an individual's savings value and shift income away from savers and towards lenders and those with assets in society.The term "inflation" only refers to an increase in the market's overall level of prices for commodities, not a fall in those values. Deflation, not inflation, is what causes the drop in the level of commodity prices.

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Inflation, has real costs on the economy, and policymakers need to be mindful of these costs when formulating monetary policy. By keeping inflation in check, policymakers can help minimize the costs associated with inflation and promote long-term economic growth and stability.The correct answer is option (a) - money neutrality.

Money neutrality is a concept that suggests that changes in the money supply do not have any real effects on the economy, including inflation. In other words, money neutrality implies that changes in the money supply will only result in proportional changes in prices, leaving output and employment unaffected.On the other hand, menu costs, shoe-leather costs, and redistribution of wealth are all costs of inflation.

Menu costs refer to the cost that firms incur in changing their prices due to inflation, such as the costs associated with printing new menus, catalogs, and price lists. Shoe-leather costs refer to the cost that individuals incur when they reduce their money balances to avoid the inflation tax, such as the cost of time and effort spent on frequent trips to the bank or ATM. Finally, inflation also leads to the redistribution of wealth from lenders to borrowers, as inflation reduces the real value of the money borrowed, and increases the real value of the money lent.The correct answer is option (a) - money neutrality.

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When computing the expected return on a portfolio of stocks the portfolio weights are based on the:
number of shares owned in each stock.
price per share of each stock.
market value of the total shares held in each stock.
original amount invested in each stock.
cost per share of each stock held.

Answers

When it comes to computing the expected return on a portfolio of stocks, it's crucial to consider the portfolio weights. Portfolio weights refer to the proportion of each stock's total value that is represented in the overall portfolio. These weights are typically based on the market value of the total shares held in each stock.

The market value of a stock refers to the price at which it is currently being traded in the market. The more shares of a particular stock held in a portfolio, the greater the weight of that stock in the portfolio. For example, if a portfolio has $10,000 worth of Stock A and $5,000 worth of Stock B, then Stock A has twice the weight of Stock B in the portfolio.

It's important to note that portfolio weights can change over time as stock prices fluctuate. When a particular stock's market value rises or falls, its weight in the portfolio will also change accordingly.

Overall, portfolio weights are a key factor in computing the expected return on a portfolio of stocks. By taking into account the market value of each stock and its weight in the portfolio, investors can make informed decisions about their investments and potentially maximize their returns.

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if an organization was going to make radical changes to one of its departments, which type of transformation tool would it use? business process reengineering (bpr) reengineering process control (rpc) engineering control system (ecs) system process control (spc)

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If an organization was going to make radical changes to one of its departments the type of transformation tool would it use A. Business Process Reengineering (BPR).

BPR is a strategic approach that focuses on redesigning and restructuring the core processes within an organization to achieve significant improvements in efficiency, effectiveness, and customer satisfaction. This approach aims to analyze existing processes and identify areas for improvement or elimination, enabling the organization to achieve dramatic changes in performance.

In contrast, the other options like Reengineering Process Control (RPC), Engineering Control System (ECS), and System Process Control (SPC) do not fit the context of making radical changes to a department. RPC and SPC are not well-defined concepts in the management field, while ECS is more related to technical and engineering controls in a system.

To summarize, when an organization is looking to make radical changes to one of its departments, it would typically choose Business Process Reengineering (BPR) as its transformation tool. BPR focuses on analyzing and redesigning core processes to achieve significant improvements in efficiency, effectiveness, and customer satisfaction, ensuring a lasting impact on the organization's performance. Therefore, the correct option is A.

The question was incomplete, Find the full content below:

if an organization was going to make radical changes to one of its departments, which type of transformation tool would it use?

A. Business process reengineering (BPR)

B. Reengineering process control (RPC)

C. Engineering control system (ECS)

D. System process control (SPC)

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what is the main characteristic that differentiates retailers and wholesalers? in what ways do retailers add value to products?

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The main characteristic that differentiates retailers and wholesalers is that retailers sell products directly to consumers, while wholesalers sell products to retailers or other businesses.

Wholesalers typically purchase large quantities of products from manufacturers and distribute them to retailers or other businesses. They do not sell products to individual consumers. In contrast, retailers purchase products from wholesalers or directly from manufacturers and sell them directly to consumers.

Retailers add value to products in several ways. Firstly, they provide convenience to customers by making products easily accessible through physical stores, online platforms, or mobile apps. Secondly, they offer personalized experiences and services such as customer support, product recommendations, and warranties.

Thirdly, they create a brand image and loyalty through marketing and advertising efforts. Lastly, they may provide after-sales support and repair services to enhance customer satisfaction. These value-added services provided by retailers often increase the overall perceived value of the products and attract customers to their stores.

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According to John Kenneth Galbraith, which notion still survives as the predominate view of modern economics? The notion that if the supply decreases, then the demand will increase proportionally. The notion that the customer is always right. The notion that consumers buy in accordance with independently determined wants. The dependence effect The independence effect

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According to John Kenneth Galbraith, the notion that still survives as the predominant view of modern economics is the notion that consumers buy in accordance with independently determined wants.

In his view, modern economics often assumes that consumer wants are determined independently of the influence of producers or other external factors.

Galbraith challenges this assumption with the concept of the "dependence effect," which suggests that consumer wants are often shaped by the actions of producers through advertising and other marketing techniques.

He argues that this dependence creates a situation where producers can manipulate consumer demand to suit their own interests, rather than responding to genuine needs.

This perspective is significant because it highlights the importance of understanding the complex relationship between consumers and producers in shaping economic outcomes, and encourages economists to question the assumption of independent consumer wants.

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Inflation, nominal interest rates, and real rates. Given the following information estimate the real rate with the approximate nominal interest rate equation and the true nominal interest rate equation (Fisher effect) for each set of nominal and inflation rates
Nominal Rate Inflation Rate Aproximate Real Rate True Real Rate
13.0 % 5.0%
9.0 % 3.5%
22.0 % 13.0%
4 % 8.0%

Answers

The approximate real rate is calculated using the equation: Approximate Real Rate = Nominal Rate - Inflation Rate.

Using this equation, we can calculate the approximate real rates as follows:

Nominal Rate Inflation Rate Approximate Real Rate True Real Rate

13.0% 5.0% 8.0% 7.58%

9.0% 3.5% 5.5% 5.38%

22.0% 13.0% 9.0% 8.99%

4.0% 8.0% -4.0% -4.16%

The true real rate is calculated using the Fisher effect equation: True Real Rate = [tex][(1 + Nominal Rate) / (1 + Inflation Rate)] - 1.[/tex]

Using this equation, we can calculate the true real rates as follows: Nominal Rate Inflation Rate Approximate Real Rate True Real Rate

13.0% 5.0% 8.0% 7.54%

9.0% 3.5% 5.5% 5.37%

22.0% 13.0% 9.0% 8.83%

4.0% 8.0% -4.0% -4.08%

In both cases, we can see that as the inflation rate increases, the true real rate decreases. Additionally, we can see that for the last scene where the inflation rate is higher than the nominal rate, the real rate is negative, indicating that the investor is actually losing money due to inflation.

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in what way can audit procedures be modified to address assessed fraud risks?

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By modifying audit procedures, auditors can more effectively address assessed fraud risks and enhance the overall quality of their audit work.

There are several ways in which audit procedures can be modified to address assessed fraud risks. Here are a few examples:

1. Increasing the scope and depth of the audit: When assessing the risk of fraud, the auditor should consider the potential for material misstatements due to fraud. Based on this assessment, the auditor can expand the scope and depth of the audit procedures to gather more evidence and identify any potential fraud. For example, the auditor may decide to perform more extensive testing of account balances, transaction records, and source documents.

2. Focusing on high-risk areas: The auditor may also choose to focus on high-risk areas where the potential for fraud is greater. This may include areas such as revenue recognition, inventory valuation, or expense reimbursement. The auditor can tailor their procedures to specifically address the risks in these areas.

3. Incorporating forensic accounting techniques: Forensic accounting techniques can be used to detect and investigate fraud. The auditor may incorporate these techniques into their audit procedures to better address assessed fraud risks. For example, the auditor may use data analytics to identify unusual transactions or patterns of behavior that could indicate fraud.

4. Conducting interviews and inquiries: The auditor may conduct interviews and inquiries with key personnel to gather information and identify any potential fraud. This may include interviewing employees responsible for financial reporting, management, or those who have access to sensitive information.

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in a dcf valuation, which of the following 3 actions increases the valuation the most: (1) a $10 decrease in capital expenditures, (2) a $10 decrease in expenses or (3) a $10 increase in revenues?

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A decrease in expenses would result in higher free cash flow, which would in turn increase the company's valuation. A decrease in capital expenditures would also have a positive impact on the valuation, but typically to a lesser extent than a decrease in expenses.

An increase in revenues would also have a positive impact on the valuation, but again, typically to a lesser extent than a decrease in expenses. This is because revenue directly affects a company's cash flows and future growth potential, which are key inputs in a DCF valuation. A decrease in capital expenditures or expenses may also positively impact a company's cash flows, but to a lesser extent than an increase in revenues.

It is important to note, however, that the impact of each of these actions on the valuation would depend on the specific circumstances and assumptions of the DCF model, such as the discount rate used and the projected growth rate of the company.

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our company has reviewed the utilities bills for our company. we have determined that the highest and lowest bills were $5,000 and $3,200 for the months of january and september. if we produced 1,050 and 600 units in these months, what was the fixed cost associated with the utilities bill? group of answer choices $435.50 $485.00 $590.00 $800.00

Answers

The fixed cost which associated with the utilities bill is $800.

How to calculate the fixed cost associated with the utilities bill

After reviewing the utilities bills for your company, it was determined that the highest and lowest bills were $5,000 in January and $3,200 in September.

To calculate the fixed cost associated with the utilities bill, we can use the following formula:

Fixed Cost = Total Cost - (Variable Cost per Unit × Number of Units)

First, we need to find the variable cost per unit for both months:

Variable Cost per Unit (January) = ($5,000 - $3,200) / (1,050 units - 600 units) = $1,800 / 450 units = $4 per unit

Now that we have the variable cost per unit, we can calculate the fixed cost for each month:

Fixed Cost (January) = $5,000 - (1,050 units × $4 per unit) = $5,000 - $4,200 = $800.

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NPV and IRR Each of the following scenarios is independent. All cash flows are after-tax cash flows. The present value tables provided in Exhibit 198.1 and Exhibit 19B.2 must be used to solve the following problems. Required: 1. Patz Corporation is considering the purchase of a computer-aided manufacturing system. The cash benefits will be $830,000 per year. The system costs $4,488,000 and will last ten years. Compute the NPV assuming a discount rate of 12 percent. $ Should the company buy the new system? Yes ✓ 2. Sterling Wetzel has just invested $396,000 in a restaurant specializing in German food. He expects to receive $53,804 per year for the next ten years. His cost of capital is 5.40 percent. Compute the internal rate of return. Round your answers to whole percentage value (for example, 16% should be entered as "16" in the answer box). % Did Sterling make a good decision? (Yes х

Answers

The internal rate of return is approximately 5%. Since the IRR is close to Sterling's cost of capital (5.40%), the decision to invest in the restaurant is marginally good.

To compute the NPV for Patz Corporation, Determine the present value factor for 12% discount rate and 10 years. Using the present value table, the factor is 5.650. Calculate the present value of cash benefits: $830,000 x 5.650 = $4,689,500. Subtract the initial cost: $4,689,500 - $4,488,000 = $201,500. The NPV is $201,500. Since the NPV is positive, the company should buy the new system.

To compute the IRR for Sterling Wetzel's investment, Calculate the present value factor: $396,000 / $53,804 = 7.36. Find the corresponding interest rate for the 10-year period. Using the present value table, the closest factor to 7.36 is 7.360 for a 5% discount rate. However, it is important to consider other factors like market conditions and competition before making a final decision.

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A collection of smaller budgets that leads to pro-forma financial statements is referred to as the ____A. overall budget.B. summary budget.C. pro-forma budget.D. master budget.

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A collection of smaller budgets that leads to pro-forma financial statements is referred to as the D. master budget.

A master budget is a company's valuable monetary making plans document. It normally covers a complete financial yr and consists of “lower-stage” budgets — like a income price range and a hard work price range — coins glide forecasts, monetary statements, and a monetary plan. The fundamental additives of a grasp price range encompass earnings and expenses, overhead and manufacturing costs, and the monthly, annual, common and projection totals. A master budget consists of all the lower-stage budgets inside an organization. It offers a organization a large evaluate of its budget and is regularly used as a valuable making plans tool. A strategic plan commonly bureaucracy the premise for an organization's numerous budgets, which all come collectively withinside the master budget.

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A collection of smaller budgets that leads to pro-forma financial statements is referred to as the master budget.

The correct answer is D. master budget.

A master budget is a comprehensive plan that includes all of the smaller budgets for each department or area of an organization. These smaller budgets may include sales, production, marketing, and administrative budgets, among others. The master budget is typically created on an annual basis and serves as a roadmap for the organization's financial activities for the upcoming year.Once the individual budgets are compiled and reviewed, they are consolidated into the master budget, which includes pro-forma financial statements such as a projected income statement, balance sheet, and cash flow statement.

These pro-forma financial statements provide a forecast of the company's financial performance and position for the upcoming year, based on the assumptions and projections used in the individual departmental budgets.The master budget is an important tool for management to use in planning and decision-making, as it provides a comprehensive view of the organization's financial position and performance.

It is also useful in tracking actual financial results against the budgeted amounts, allowing management to identify any areas where corrective action may be necessary. Overall, the master budget serves as a critical component of an organization's financial planning and control processes. The correct answer is D. master budget.

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The residual dividend policy approach is based on the theory that a firm^'s optimal distribution policy is a function of the firm^'s target capital structure, the investment opportunities that the firm has, and the availability and cost of external capital. The firm makes distributions based on the residual earnings.Consider the following example:Blime Inc. has generated earnings of dollar180 million.

Answers

Blime Inc.'s dividend payout ratio if it follows a residual dividend policy will be 71.33%. If Blime Inc. reduces the amount of its forecasted capital budget,  the amount that Blime Inc. will payout in dividends this year will increase. The most accurate statement is that most firms can still use the concepts behind a residual dividend policy to make long-run decisions about dividends.

The residual dividend policy approach is based on the theory that a firm's optimal distribution policy is a function of the firm's target capital structure, investment opportunities, and the availability and cost of external capital. The firm makes distributions based on residual earnings.

Blime Inc.'s dividend payout ratio, if it follows a residual dividend policy, can be calculated as follows:

Step 1: Calculate the total financing required for capital projects ($86 million) and split it into equity and debt portions based on the target capital structure (60% equity and 40% debt).

Equity financing = 0.6 * $86 million = $51.6 million
Debt financing = 0.4 * $86 million = $34.4 million

Step 2: Calculate the residual earnings, which is the amount left after financing capital projects.

Residual earnings = Total earnings - Equity financing = $180 million - $51.6 million = $128.4 million

Step 3: Calculate the dividend payout ratio.
Dividend payout ratio = Residual earnings / Total earnings = $128.4 million / $180 million = 0.7133 or 71.33%

If Blime Inc. reduces its forecasted capital budget, the firm's annual dividend will increase, assuming all other factors are held constant. This is because a lower capital budget means the company will need less equity financing, resulting in a larger amount of residual earnings available for dividends.

The most accurate statement is that most firms can still use the concepts behind a residual dividend policy to make long-run decisions about dividends. While earnings and required investment may fluctuate, the residual dividend policy can help firms balance their need for capital investment and their commitment to providing returns to shareholders.

By basing dividend decisions on residual earnings, firms can ensure that they prioritize funding their growth and capital needs while distributing any remaining earnings to shareholders.

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Complete Question:

The residual dividend policy approach is based on the theory that a firm's optimal distribution policy is a function of the firm's target capital structure, the investment opportunities that the firm has, and the availability and cost of external capital. The firm makes distributions based on the residual earnings. Consider the following example:

Blime Inc. has generated earnings of $180 million. Its target capital structure consists of 60% equity and 40% debt. It plans to spend $86 million on capital projects over the next year and expects to finance this investment in the same proportion as its capital structure. The company makes distributions in the form of dividends. What will Blime Inc.'s dividend payout ratio be if it follows a residual dividend policy?

If Blime Inc. reduces the amount of its forecasted capital budget, how will this affect the firm's annual dividend, assuming that all other factors are held constant?

a. The amount that Blime Inc. will payout in dividends this year will increase.

b. The amount that Blime Inc. will payout in dividends this year will decrease.

Most firms have earnings that vary considerably from year to year and do not grow at a reliably constant pace. Furthermore, their required investment may change often. Which of these statements is the most accurate?

a. Most firms can still use the concepts behind a residual dividend policy to make long-run decisions about dividends.

b. A residual dividend policy can't be of any help to most firms.

. While growth rates are hard to predict, stock prices do reflect expected future growth opportunities . In late 2008, the consensus EPS forecast for P&G was $4.28. If investors believed that P&G was going to stop reinvesting and distribute all earnings in perpetuity, what is the implied stock price? Assume cost of equity is 10%. . The stock price of P&G at that time was $62.50.

Answers

The implied stock price of P&G if it stopped reinvesting and distributed all earnings in perpetuity would be $42.80. This is lower than the actual stock price of $62.50 at the time, suggesting that investors expected P&G to continue to reinvest earnings and grow its dividends.

To calculate the implied stock price of P&G if it stopped reinvesting and distributed all earnings in perpetuity, we can use the Gordon Growth Model, which is a formula used to calculate the intrinsic value of a stock based on the assumption that dividends will grow at a constant rate indefinitely.

The formula for the Gordon Growth Model is:

P0 = D1 / (ke - g)

Where P0 is the current stock price, D1 is the expected dividend in the next period, ke is the required rate of return, and g is the expected constant growth rate of dividends.

Using the information given in the problem:

Expected EPS = $4.28

Payout ratio (assuming all earnings are distributed) = 100%

Expected dividend per share = Expected EPS x Payout ratio = $4.28 x 100% = $4.28

Required rate of return (ke) = 10%

Expected constant growth rate of dividends (g) = 0% (since all earnings are being distributed)

Plugging these values into the formula, we get:

P0 = $4.28 / (0.10 - 0) = $42.80

The implied stock price of P&G if it stopped reinvesting and distributed all earnings in perpetuity would be $42.80. This is lower than the actual stock price of $62.50 at the time, suggesting that investors expected P&G to continue to reinvest earnings and grow its dividends.

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the perfect apartment or rented home is the one that fits your budget, permits you to save toward your goals, and what?

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The perfect apartment or rented home is the one that fits your budget, permits you to save toward your goals, and meets your specific needs and preferences.

What includes in a person's specific needs and preferences?

This includes factors such as location, size, amenities, condition, and proximity to your work, schools, transportation, and other important aspects of your lifestyle.

In addition to budget and savings, the perfect apartment or rented home should align with your long-term financial goals and provide you with the ability to meet other financial priorities, such as saving for retirement, emergencies, or other financial milestones. It should also support your overall financial well-being and not put you in financial stress or strain your budget.

Furthermore, the perfect apartment or rented home should also provide you with a sense of comfort, safety, and security.

It should meet your lifestyle needs, such as having enough space for your family, being in a safe neighborhood, and offering amenities or features that are important to you, such as a pet-friendly policy, on-site laundry, or a fitness center.

Ultimately, the perfect apartment or rented home is subjective and will vary depending on individual circumstances, financial goals, and personal preferences. It's important to carefully consider your budget, savings goals, lifestyle needs, and other factors to make an informed decision and find a living arrangement that best fits your unique situation.

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