The primary of an ideal transformer has 100 turns and its secondary has 200 turns. If the input current at the primary is 100 A, we can expect the output current at the secondary to be

Answer:

B. Electrons are transferred from the fur to the plastic rod.

Explanation:

Triboelectricity or friction charging refers to the ability of materials to gain or lose electrons as a result of rubbing them against something. This phenomenon has been observed in the case of rubbing plastic rod against fur, or glass rod against silk.

In the context of rubbing plastic rod against fur, what happens is that the fur which has an excess of charges loses electrons to the plastic rod. This makes the plastic rod to become positively charged, and the fur, negatively charged.

Answer:

20.07ohms

Explanation:

Impedance is defined as the opposition to the flow of current through the elements of the circuit.

Impedance for R-L AC circuit is expressed as Z = √R²+XL²

R is the resistance

XL is the inductive reactance.

Given resistance of the air condition = 20 ohms

Inductive reactance XL = 1.68 ohms

Z = √20²+1.68²

Z = √400+2.8224

Z = √402.8224

Z = 20.07 ohms

Hence the impedance of the air conditioner is 20.07ohms

Answer:

Explanation:

The formula for calculating the resistance of a material in terms of its resistivity is expressed as [tex]R = \rho L/A[/tex] where;

R is the resistance of the material

[tex]\rho[/tex] is the resistivity of the material

L is the length of the wire

A is the area = πr² with r being the radius

[tex]R = \rho L/\pi r^{2}[/tex]

If the length of a certain wire is doubled while its radius is kept constant, then the new length of the wire L₁ = 2L

The new resistance of the wire R₁ will be expressed as [tex]R_1 = \frac{\rho L_1}{A_1}[/tex]

since the radius is constant, the area will also be the same i.e A = A₁ and the resistivity also will be constant. The new resistance will become

[tex]R_1 = \frac{\rho(2L)}{A}[/tex]

[tex]R_1 = \frac{2\rho L}{\pi r^2}[/tex]

Taking the ratio of both resistances, we will have;

[tex]\frac{R_1}{R} = \frac{2\rho L/\pi r^2}{\rho L/ \pi r^2} \\\\\frac{R_1}{R} = \frac{2\rho L}{\pi r^2} * \frac{\pi r^2}{ \rho L} \\\\\frac{R_1}{R} = \frac{2}{1}\\\\R_1 = 2R[/tex]

This shoes that the new resistance of the wire will be twice that of the original wire

Answer:

No point on the x-axis

Pls see attached file

Answer:

metre per seconds

Explanation:

because velocity = distance ÷ time

Answer:

The meaning of the integral (120, 60)∫ |v(t)| dt is simply the distance covered by the particle from time t = 60 seconds to time t = 120 seconds

Explanation:

We are told that the particle moves back and forth along a straight line with velocity v(t).

Now, velocity is the rate of change of distance with time. Thus, the integral of velocity of a particle with respect to time will simply be the distance covered by the particle.

Thus, the meaning of the integral (120, 60)∫ |v(t)| dt is simply the distance covered by the particle from time t = 60 seconds to time t = 120 seconds

Answer:

931.00ft-lb

Explanation:

Pls see attached file

The work done in moving the object from x = 1 ft to x = 18 ft is 935  ft-lb.

Work is the product of the displacement's magnitude and the component of force acting in that direction. It is a scalar quantity having only magnitude and Si unit of work is Joule.

Given that force = 6x - 2 pounds.

So, work done in moving the object from x = 1 ft to x = 18 ft is = [tex]\int\limits^{18}_1 {(6x-2)} \, dx[/tex]

= [ 3x² - 2x]¹⁸₁

= 3(18² - 1² ) - 2(18-1) ft-lb

= 935  ft-lb.

Hence, the work done is  935  ft-lb.

Learn more about work here:

https://brainly.com/question/18094932

#SPJ2

Answer:

Explanation:

Let the charge on proton be q .

energy gain by proton in a field having potential difference of V₀

= V₀ q

Due to gain of energy , its kinetic energy becomes 1/2 m v₀²

where m is mass and v₀ is velocity of proton

V₀ q = 1/2 m v₀²

In the second case , gain of energy in electrical field

= 2 V₀q , if v be the velocity gained in the second case

2 V₀q = 1/2 m v²

1/2 m v² = 2 V₀q = 2 x 1/2 m v₀²

mv² = 2  m v₀²

v = √2 v₀

Answer:

the smaller particle moves with speed of 8.706 m/s in the opposite direction to the bigger particle.

Explanation:

Speed of the original particle = 13 m/s

We designate particles as A and B

The final weights of the component particles are

Particle A = 1.4 N

particle B = 1.9 N

The speed of the larger piece (particle B) = 29 m/s

We know that weight is the product of a body's mass and acceleration due to gravity g which is equal to 9.81 m/s^2, therefore, masses of the particles are

particle A = 1.4/9.81 = 0.143 kg

Particle B = 1.9/9.81 = 0.194 kg

The momentum of a body is the product of its mass and its velocity i.e

P = mv

This means that the mass of the particle before splitting is  

0.143 kg + 0.194 kg = 0.337 kg

Momentum of the initial whole particle = mv

==> 0.337 x 13 = 4.381 kg-m/s

The bigger particle B remains horizontal, and has a momentum of

mv = 0.194 x 29 = 5.626 kg-m/s

According to the conservation of momentum, the total initial momentum of a system must be equal tot the total final momentum of the system.

Initial total momentum of the system = 4.381 kg-m/s (momentum of original particle before splitting)

Final total momentum of the system = Total momentum of the particles after splitting = 5.626 kg-m/s + ( 0.143 kg x [tex]V_{B}[/tex])

where  [tex]V_{B}[/tex]  is the velocity of smaller particle A

final total momentum of the system = 5.626 + 0.143[tex]V_{B}[/tex]

Equating the two momenta of the system, we'll have

4.381 = 5.626 + 0.143[tex]V_{B}[/tex]

4.381 - 5.626 = 0.143[tex]V_{B}[/tex]

-1.245 = 0.143[tex]V_{B}[/tex]

[tex]V_{B}[/tex]  = -1.245/0.143 = -8.706 m/s

The negative sign indicates that the smaller particle moves in the opposite direction to the bigger particle

Answer:

Explanation:

radius of aorta = 1.5 cm

cross sectional area = π r²

= 3.14 x 1.5²

= 7.065 cm²

volume of blood flowing out per second out of heart

= a x v , a is cross sectional area , v is velocity of flow

= 7.065 x 11.2

= 79.128 cm³

heart beat per second = 67 / 60

= 1.116666

If V be the volume of heart

1.116666 V = 79.128

V = 70.86 cm³.

Answer:

Explanation:

Given the height reached by a balloon after t sec modeled by the equation

h=1/2t²+1/2t

a) To calculate the height of the balloon after 40 secs we will substitute t = 40 into the modeled equation and calculate the value of t

If h(t)=1/2t²+1/2t

h(40) = 1/2(40)²+1/2 (40)

h(40) = 1600/2 + 40/2

h(40) = 800 + 20

h(40) = 820 feet

The height of the balloon after 40 secs is 820 feet

b) Velocity is the change of displacement of a body with respect to time.

v = dh/dt

v(t) = 2(1/2)t²⁻¹ + 1/2

v(t) = t + 1/2

when v = 0sec

v(0) = 0 + 1/2

v(0) = 1/2 ft/sec

at v = 30secs

v(30) = 30 + 1/2

v(30) = 30 1/2 ft/sec

average velocity = v(30) - v(0)

average velocity = 30 1/2 - 1/2

average velocity of the balloon between t = 0 and t = 30 = 30 ft/sec

c) Velocity is the change of displacement of a body with respect to time.

v = dh/dt

v(t) = 2(1/2)t²⁻¹ + 1/2

v(t) = t + 1/2

The velocity of the balloon after 30secs will be;

v(30) = 30+1/2

v(30) = 30.5ft/sec

The velocity of the balloon after 30 secs is 30.5 feet/sec

A)  The height of the balloon at the end of 40 sec is 820 feet.

B) The average velocity of the balloon is 30 ft/sec.

C) The velocity of the balloon at the end of 30 sec is

Given :

Part A)

The height of the balloon after 40 secs is :

h(t)=1/2t²+1/2t

h(40) = 1/2(40)²+1/2 (40)

h(40) = 1600/2 + 40/2

h(40) = 800 + 20

h(40) = 820 feet

The height of the balloon after 40 secs is 820 feet

Part B)

The average velocity of the balloon is  :

v = dh/dt

v(t) = 2(1/2)t²⁻¹ + 1/2

v(t) = t + 1/2

when v = 0 sec

v(0) = 0 + 1/2

v(0) = 1/2 ft/sec

When at v = 30secs

v(30) = 30 + 1/2

v(30) = 30 1/2 ft/sec

average velocity = v(30) - v(0)

average velocity = 30 1/2 - 1/2

average velocity of the balloon = 30 ft/sec

The average velocity of the balloon  is  30 ft/sec.

Part C)

The velocity of the balloon at the end of 30 sec is :

v = dh/dt

v(t) = 2(1/2)t²⁻¹ + 1/2

v(t) = t + 1/2

The velocity of the balloon after 30secs will be;

v(30) = 30+1/2

v(30) = 30.5ft/sec

The velocity of the balloon after 30 secs is 30.5 feet/sec.

Learn more about "Velocity":

https://brainly.com/question/862972?referrer=searchResults

Answer:

A.21.3T

B.1.8x 10^6J/m^3

C.0.27x10^2J

D.6.6x10^-3H

Explanation:

Pls see attached file

Answer:

5.81 X 10^3 Ns

Explanation:

Given that

F = At² and F at t = 1.25 s is 781.25 N ?

A = F/t² at t = 1.25 s => F = 781.25/(1.25)² = 500 N/s²

d(Impulse) = Fdt

Impulse = ∫Fdt =∫At²dt evaluated in the interval 2.00 s ≤ t ≤ 3.50 s

Impulse = At³/3 = (500/3)(t³) = 166.7t³ between t = 2.00 s and t = 3.50 s

Impulse = 166.7[3.5³ - 2³] = 166.7[42.875 - 8] = 166.7[34.875] = 5813.7 Ns

5.81 X 10^3 N.s

Answer:

The induced emf in the short coil during this time is 1.728 x 10⁻⁴ V

Explanation:

The magnetic field at the center of the solenoid is given by;

B = μ(N/L)I

Where;

μ is permeability of free space

N is the number of turn

L is the length of the solenoid

I is the current in the solenoid

The rate of change of the field is given by;

[tex]\frac{\delta B}{\delta t} = \frac{\mu N \frac{\delta i}{\delta t} }{L} \\\\\frac{\delta B}{\delta t} = \frac{4\pi *10^{-7} *600* \frac{5}{0.6} }{0.25}\\\\\frac{\delta B}{\delta t} =0.02514 \ T/s[/tex]

The induced emf in the shorter coil is calculated as;

[tex]E = NA\frac{\delta B}{\delta t}[/tex]

where;

N is the number of turns in the shorter coil

A is the area of the shorter coil

Area of the shorter coil = πr²

The radius of the coil = 2.5cm / 2 = 1.25 cm = 0.0125 m

Area of the shorter coil = πr² = π(0.0125)² = 0.000491 m²

[tex]E = NA\frac{\delta B}{\delta t}[/tex]

E = 14 x 0.000491 x 0.02514

E = 1.728 x 10⁻⁴ V

Therefore, the induced emf in the short coil during this time is 1.728 x 10⁻⁴ V

The induced emf in the coil at the center of the longer solenoid is [tex]1.725\times10^{-4}V[/tex]

The induced emf is produced in a coil when the magnetic flux through the coil is changing. It opposes the change of magnetic flux. Mathematically it is represented as the negative rate of change of magnetic flux at follows:

[tex]E=-\frac{\delta\phi}{\delta t}[/tex]

where E is the induced emf,

[tex]\phi[/tex] is the magnetic flux through the coil.

The changing current varies the magnetic flux through the coil at the center of the long solenoid, which is given by:

[tex]\phi = \frac{\mu_oNIA}{L}[/tex]

so;

[tex]\frac{\delta\phi}{\delta t}=\frac{\mu_oNA}{L} \frac{\delta I}{\delta t}[/tex]

where N is the number of turns of longer solenoid, A is the cross sectional area, I is the current and L is the length of the coil.

[tex]\frac{\delta\phi}{\delta t}=\frac{4\pi \times10^{-7} \times600 \times \pi \times(1.25\times10^{-2})^2}{25\times10^{-2}} \frac{5}{60}\\\\\frac{\delta\phi}{\delta t}=1.23\times10^{-7}Wb/s[/tex]

The emf produced in the coil at the center of the solenoid which has 14 turns will be:

[tex]E=N\frac{\delta \phi}{\delta t}\\\\E=14\times1.23\times10^{-7}V\\\\E=1.725\times10^{-4}V[/tex]

Learn more about induced emf:

https://brainly.com/question/16765199?referrer=searchResults

Answer:

Explanation:

Using E= hc/wavelength

6.63 x10^-34 x3x10^8/ 236nm

19.86*10^-26/236*10^-9

=0.08*10^-35Joules

Answer:

The voltage across the resistor is zero, and the voltage across the capacitor is equal to the terminal voltage of the battery.

Explanation:

This is because when a capacitor is charged no current or voltage flows through it so it will have a voltage equal to the terminal voltage of the battery

Explanation:

It is given that, An astronaut is in equilibrium when he is positioned 140 km from the center of asteroid X and 481 km from the center of asteroid Y, along the straight line joining the centers of the asteroids. We need to find the ratio of their masses.

As they are in equilibrium, the force of gravity due to each other is same. So,

[tex]\dfrac{Gm_xM}{r^2}=\dfrac{Gm_yM}{r^2}\\\\\dfrac{m_x}{r_x^2}=\dfrac{m_y}{r_y^2}\\\\\dfrac{m_x}{r_x^2}=\dfrac{m_y}{r_y^2}\\\\\dfrac{m_x}{m_y}=(\dfrac{r_x^2}{r_y^2})\\\\\dfrac{m_x}{m_y}=(\dfrac{140^2}{481^2})\\\\\dfrac{m_x}{m_y}=0.0847[/tex]

So, the ratio of masses X/Y is 0.0847

Answer:

Explanation:

Frequency, in physics, the number of waves that pass a fixed point in unit time; also, the number of cycles or vibrations undergone during one unit of time by a body in periodic motion. ... See also angular velocity; simple harmonic motion.

Answer:

D. There are drilling platforms all along the coast that are used to drill for natural gas that can be used to generate electricity

Explanation:

Solar panels are a renewable resource because the sun will not run out. The power plant uses water, so it is also a renewable resource. Windmills use wind, and wind will not run out so it is a renewable resource. However, natural gas and oil are not renewable resources because they will run out one day.

Answer:

Q = -3280J

Explanation:

From the First Law of Thermodynamics, energy cannot be created nor destroyed but it can be converted from one form to another with the interaction of heat. Mathematically, this can be expressed as:

ΔU = Q + W        ----------(i)

Where;

ΔU = total change in internal energy of a system.

Q = heat exchanged between the system and the surrounding

W = work done by or on the system.

If heat is lost into the surrounding, then Q = -ve, else Q = +ve

If work is done on the system, then W = -ve, else W = -ve

=> From the question, Rick is the system and does a work of

W = +1090J  [since Rick does the work, W = +ve]

=>Also, the internal energy decreases by 2190J, therefore,

ΔU = -2190J   [since there is a decrease in internal energy]

Substitute the values of W and ΔU into equation (i) as follows;

-2190 = Q + 1090

=> Q = -2190 - 1090

=> Q = -3280J

Therefore, the value of Q = -3280J

Answer:

B.solar panels generate electricity that keeps the satellites running.

Explanation:

Solar panels are a renewable resource because they take energy from the sun.

Answer:

There are 586maxima

Explanation:

Pls see attached file

Answer:

The electric field strength between the plates can be increased by decreasing the length of each side of the plates.

Explanation:

The electric field strength is given by;

[tex]E = \frac{V}{d}[/tex]

where;

V is the electric potential of the two opposite charges

d is the distance between the two parallel plates

[tex]E =\frac{V}{d} = \frac{\sigma}{\epsilon _o} \\\\(\sigma = \frac{Q}{A} )\\\\E = \frac{Q}{A\epsilon_o} \\\\E = \frac{Q}{L^2\epsilon_o}[/tex]

Where;

ε₀ is permittivity of free space

L is the length of each side of the plates

From the equation above, the electric field strength can be increased by decreasing the length of each side of the plates.

Therefore, decreasing the length of each side of the plates, could be made to increase the strength of the electric field between the plates

Answer:

a

  [tex]F =326.7 \ N[/tex]

b

  [tex]M = 6[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

          The mass of the rock is  [tex]m_r = 200 \ kg[/tex]

          The  length of the small object from the rock is  [tex]d = 2 \ m[/tex]

          The  length of the small object from the branch [tex]l = 12 \ m[/tex]

An image representing this lever set-up is shown on the first uploaded image

Here the small object acts as a fulcrum

The  force exerted by the weight of the rock is mathematically evaluated as

      [tex]W = m_r * g[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]W = 200 * 9.8[/tex]

     [tex]W = 1960 \ N[/tex]

 So  at  equilibrium the sum  of the moment about the fulcrum is mathematically represented as

         [tex]\sum M_f = F * cos \theta * l - W cos\theta * d = 0[/tex]

Here  [tex]\theta[/tex] is very small so  [tex]cos\theta * l = l[/tex]

                               and  [tex]cos\theta * d = d[/tex]

Hence

       [tex]F * l - W * d = 0[/tex]

=>    [tex]F = \frac{W * d}{l}[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]F = \frac{1960 * 2}{12}[/tex]

       [tex]F =326.7 \ N[/tex]

The  mechanical advantage is mathematically evaluated as

          [tex]M = \frac{W}{F}[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]M = \frac{1960}{326.7}[/tex]

       [tex]M = 6[/tex]

Answer:

The  kinetic energy is [tex]KE = 7.59 *10^{10} \ J[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

       The  radius of the orbit is  [tex]r = 2.3 *10^{4} \ km = 2.3 *10^{7} \ m[/tex]

       The gravitational force is  [tex]F_g = 6600 \ N[/tex]

The kinetic energy of the satellite is mathematically represented as

       [tex]KE = \frac{1}{2} * mv^2[/tex]

where v is the speed of the satellite which is mathematically represented as

     [tex]v = \sqrt{\frac{G M}{r^2} }[/tex]

=>  [tex]v^2 = \frac{GM }{r}[/tex]

substituting this into the equation

      [tex]KE = \frac{ 1}{2} *\frac{GMm}{r}[/tex]

Now the gravitational force of the planet is mathematically represented as

      [tex]F_g = \frac{GMm}{r^2}[/tex]

Where M is the mass of the planet and  m is the mass of the satellite

 Now looking at the formula for KE we see that we can represent it as

     [tex]KE = \frac{ 1}{2} *[\frac{GMm}{r^2}] * r[/tex]

=>    [tex]KE = \frac{ 1}{2} *F_g * r[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]KE = \frac{ 1}{2} *6600 * 2.3*10^{7}[/tex]

         [tex]KE = 7.59 *10^{10} \ J[/tex]

Answer:

0.0081T

Explanation:

The magnetic field B in the toroid is proportional to the applied current I and the number of turns N per unit length L of the toroid. i.e

B ∝ I [tex]\frac{N}{L}[/tex]

B = μ₀ I [tex]\frac{N}{L}[/tex]                   ----------------(i)

Where;

μ₀ = constant of proportionality called the magnetic constant = 4π x 10⁻⁷N/A²

Since the radius (r = 4.2cm = 0.042m) of the toroid is given, the length L is the circumference of the toroid given by

L = 2π r

L = 2π (0.042)

L = 0.084π

The number of turns N = 1000

The current in the toroid = 1.7A

Substitute these values into equation (i) to get the magnetic field as follows;

B = 4π x 10⁻⁷ x  1.7 x  [tex]\frac{1000}{0.084\pi }[/tex]        [cancel out the πs and solve]

B = 0.0081T

The magnetic field along the central radius is 0.0081T

Answer:

The critical angle is  [tex]i = 41.84 ^o[/tex]

Explanation:

From the  question we are told that

    The index of refraction of the sugar solution is  [tex]n_s = 1.5[/tex]

   The  index of refraction of air is  [tex]n_a = 1[/tex]

Generally from Snell's  law

      [tex]\frac{sin i }{sin r } = \frac{n_a }{n_s }[/tex]

Note that the angle of incidence in this case is equal to the critical angle

Now for total internal reflection the angle of reflection is [tex]r = 90^o[/tex]

So  

      [tex]\frac{sin i }{sin (90) } = \frac{1 }{1.5 }[/tex]

      [tex]i = sin ^{-1} [\frac{ (sin (90)) * 1 }{1.5} ][/tex]

      [tex]i = 41.84 ^o[/tex]

Answer:

I believe it is 91

Explanation:

Answer:

F= 175.5N

Explanation:

Given:

Torque which can also be called moment is defined as rotational equivalent of linear force. It is the product of the external force and perpendicular distance

torque of 38N⋅m

angle of 120∘

Torque(τ): 38Nm

position r relative to its axis of rotation: 25cm , if we convert to metre for consistency we have 0.25m

Angle: 120°

To find the Force, the torque equation will be required which is expressed below

τ = Frsinθ

We need to solve for F, if we rearrange the equation, we have the expression below

F= τ/rsinθ

Note: the torque is maximum when the angle is 90 degrees

But θ= 180-120=60

F= 38/0.25( sin(60) )

F= 175.5N