The Flexner report found that public could not distinguish between ill trained and rightly trained physicians.
The Flexner Report may be a book-length landmark report of medical education within the US and Canada, written by Abraham Flexner and revealed in 1910 underneath the aegis of the Carnegie Foundation. several aspects of the current yankee health profession stem from the Flexner Report and its aftermath
In his report, Flexner also wrote that African-American physicians ought to be trained in "hygiene instead of surgery" and will primarily function "sanitarians," whose purpose was "protecting whites" from common diseases like TB.
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What is the spinal cord structure that consists of nerves that leave the conus medullaris and lumbar enlargement and pass downward through the vertebral canal, resembling a horse tail?.
The spinal cord resembling a "horse tail" is called the cauda equina.
What is cauda equina?The collection of nerve roots descending from the spinal cord and cone of the spinal cord is called the cauda equina. The cauda equina contains nerve roots from L2 of the lumbar vertebrae to Co1 of the coccygeal spine (coccygeal end). For example, the L4 nerve root between the L4 and L5 vertebrae.
The nerves are located in the Cauda Equina section of the lower end of the spinal cord in the lumbosacral spine. Its function is to send and receive signals to and from the legs and pelvic organs.
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a 4-day-old newborn is receiving phototherapy at home for a bilirubin level of 14 mg/dl (238 mcmol/l). the nurse should plan to include which instruction in the teaching plan of care during the home visit to the mother of the newborn?
During the home visit with the newborn's mother, the teaching plan of care includes instruction on evaluating the newborn's skin integrity and fluid status.
Good skin integrity: what is it?Skin integrity is the state of your skin's health. The skin performs a variety of essential tasks when it is in good health. Your body's core temperature is maintained optimally, vitamin D from the sun is absorbed and processed, and electrolyte balance is supported, among many other things.
How do you keep a patient's skin healthy?Promote and preserve skin integrity by moisturizing dry skin to enhance lipid barriers, and do so at least twice each day. Avoid using hot water when bathing because it will cause more dry, cracked skin. Use a barrier or moisture lotion to protect skin as needed.
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which statement is true about emtala? a. a person who presents anywhere on the hospital campus and requests emergency services does not fall under emtala. b. emtala applies to physician's office. c. emtala primarily affects physicians and not the hospitals. d. emergency departments must post signs notifying patients and visitors of their right to a medical screening examination and treatment for emergency medical conditions.
The statement which is true about EMTALA is d. emergency departments must post signs notifying patients and visitors of their right to a medical screening examination and treatment for emergency medical conditions.
In 1986, Congress enacted the Emergency Medical Treatment & Labor Act (EMTALA) to confirm public access to emergency services despite ability to pay. Section 1867 of the Social Security Act imposes specific obligations on Medicare-participating hospitals that provide emergency services to produce a medical screening examination (MSE) once missive of invitation is created for examination or treatment for an emergency medical condition (EMC), as well as active labor, despite a person's ability to pay. Hospitals are then needed to produce stabilising treatment for patients with EMCs. If a hospital is unable to stabilize a patient inside its capability, or if the patient requests, an applicable transfer ought to be enforced.
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in public health, which of the following is/are control measures that would be implemented only in response to an outbreak of disease? select one: a. wastewater treatment b. recall of contaminated food c. restaurant inspections d. immunization of household pets against rabies e. both b and c
In public health, is/are control measures that would be implemented only in response to an outbreak of disease wastewater.
A plague is a surprising upward thrust within the wide variety of instances of disease. an outbreak may additionally occur in a community or geographical area, or may additionally affect several international locations. it is able to last for a few days or even weeks, or maybe for numerous years.
A few outbreaks are predicted each yr, such as influenza. disease outbreaks are resulting from bacteria, viruses, or other organisms which include parasites. they could occur while humans eat contaminated food or water, while a contagious ailment is unfolded from man or woman to character, or from the bite of an infected insect like a mosquito that causes West Nile Virus disease.
summary. rising outbreaks of arboviruses are most customarily tied to the convergence of a hard and fast of factors that have bodily and environmental, genetic and biological, ecological, social, political, and financial origins.
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payton pill was seen today for his six-month well-child check. during the examination, the physician found that payton has a molluscum contagiosum infection. the physician prescribed zymaderm to treat the molluscum. what is/are the correct code(s)?
Since Payton pill has a molluscum contagiosum infection. the physician prescribed zymaderm to treat the molluscum, the correct code(s) is option A and B:
A) Z00.121
B) Z00.129
How should children with molluscum contagiosum be treated?Molluscum is not harmful and will go away on its own. Although children may continue to experience fresh bumps for months or even years, each one typically lasts approximately two months. If your child is bothered by the pimples, a doctor may recommend a lotion or, if there aren't many of them, may recommend freezing or scraping the bumps off.
Therefore, the use of podophyllotoxin cream may be a successful treatment. Every molluscum bump receives the cream, often twice daily for three weeks.
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See full question below
Payton Pill was seen today for his six-month well-child check. During the examination, the physician found that Payton has a Molluscum contagiosum infection. The physician prescribed Zymaderm to treat the Molluscum. What is/are the correct code(s)?
A) Z00.121
B) Z00.129
C) Z00.121, B08.1
D) Z00.129, B08.1
a 10 week pregnant client presents to the obstetrician's office with complaints of acute, right-sided abdominal pain, dizziness, and vaginal bleeding. a pelvic exam determines adnexal tenderness. what diagnosis should the nurse suspect?
For pregnant clients complaining of acute right-sided abdominal pain, dizziness, and vaginal bleeding, pelvic examination determines adnexal sensitivity. Nurses should doubt the diagnosis of endometriosis.
What does adnexal tenderness mean and what causes it?Adnexal tenderness is mild pain or tenderness in the pelvic area, including the uterus, ovaries, and fallopian tubes. The cause of adrenal tenderness includes: Ectopic Pregnancy: A pregnancy in which the embryo attaches to the fallopian tube, abortion. Endometriosis: A cyst in the ovary or fallopian tube.Does PID cause adnexal pain?All women with suspected PID (Pelvic inflamatory disease) should be evaluated for cervical discharge, cervical motion tenderness, uterine tenderness, adnexal tenderness, or a mass should undergo a pelvic examination. Diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease is clinical.
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the nurse manager is reviewing documentation describing a client's progress in terms of a critical path (care map) for postoperative colon resection recovery. the nurse manager notes that, although the documentation is complete, the client has made minimal progress in the areas of mobility and pain control during the prior 48 hours. who should the nurse manager contact next?
The nurse manager is reviewing documentation describing a purchaser's progress in phrases of a essential course (care map) for postoperative colon resection healing. Touch the customer's health care provider (HCP).
Most sufferers have a a success colon resection approach and move directly to live full and secure lives. If there's an underlying ailment, of route, continuing treatment may be important. Resection is the scientific time period for surgically getting rid of factors or all of a tissue, structure, or organ.
Resection can be finished for an intensive form of motives. A resection can also take away a tissue this is regarded to be cancerous or diseased, and the surgical treatment may deal with or remedy a disordered machine.
Colon resection (colectomy) is the surgical removal of component or the entire colon. Colectomy is a number one surgical treatment and might soak up to four hours to complete. Colectomy is done beneath brand new anesthesia and might require hospitalization for as a great deal as every week or more.
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a woman who has recently given birth complains of pain and tenderness in her leg. on physical examination the nurse notices warmth and redness over an enlarged, hardened area. the nurse should suspect and should confirm the diagnosis by
Thrombophlebitis and using real time and should confirm the diagnosis by color Doppler ultrasound.
Where is Doppler ultrasound done?The examination is carried out in a hospital room, a peripheral vascular lab, the ultrasonography or radiology unit, or both. During the examination, a transducer—a portable device—is covered in a liquid gel. The artery or veins being evaluated are targeted by high-frequency sound pulses from this equipment.
What two kinds of Doppler ultrasound are there?The various Doppler ultrasound models include Doppler in color This direction of blood circulation is indicated by a computer by converting sound waves into various colors. Doppler spectrum depiction in graphics of the blood flow throughout time. Ultrasound duplex combines Doppler ultrasound with conventional ultrasound images.
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a patient who is postoperative day 2 following a coronary artery bypass graft (cabg) has been experiencing significant pain in the region of his sternal incision. what patient teaching should the nurse perform with this patient?
"Try hugging a folded blanket across your chest once you move or breathe deeply," instruction should the nurse give to this patient.
How to Deeply BreatheTake a regular breath first. After that, take a deep breath: Allow your chest and lower belly to rise as you inhale slowly through your nose. Allow your abdomen to expand completely. Exhale slowly through your mouth.
What is the advantage of taking deep breaths?Deep breathing (also known as diaphragmatic breathing) is a technique that allows more air to enter your body while also helping to calm your nerves and reduce stress and anxiety. It can also help you develop your concentration and reduce pain.
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the nurse is giving a report to an assistive personnel (ap) who will be caring for a client who has hand restraints (safety devices). the nurse instructs the ap to check the skin integrity of the restrained hands how frequently?
Every 30 minutes, the nurse instructs the assistant to check the skin integrity of the restrained hands. The registered nurse should also check the neurovascular system of the extremity every 30 minutes.
What is the definition of skin integrity?The health of your skin is referred to as its integrity. The skin performs numerous vital functions when it is in good health. It aids in the maintenance of your body's optimal core temperature, aids in the absorption and processing of vitamin D from the sun, and keeps you hydrated besides supporting electrolyte balance, among other things.
How do you keep a patient's skin healthy?The following are some methods for promoting and preserving skin integrity: Moisturize dry skin at least twice a day to maximize lipid barriers. Bathing in hot water will result in dry, cracked skin. Use a moisture lotion or barrier to protect the skin as directed.
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a nurse providing education about hypertension to a community group is discussing the high risk for cardiovascular complications. what are risk factors for cardiovascular problems in clients with hypertension? select all that apply.
Smoking, diabetes, and physical inactivity are all risk factors for cardiovascular problems throughout hypertensive patients.
What effects does smoking have on your body?Cigarette smoking is linked to cancer, heart disease, stroke, lung disease, diabetes, but also chronic obstructive , that also includes emphysema and chronic bronchitis. Smoking also raises the risk of tuberculosis, certain eye diseases, as well as immune system problems such as rheumatoid arthritis.
What causes people to smoke?Nicotine addiction affects approximately 80-90% of people who smoke on a regular basis. Nicotine enters your body and travels to your brain inside of 10 seconds. It stimulates the release of adrenaline in the brain, resulting in a rush of pleasure as well as energy.
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a client tells the nurse she completed an educational program to manage her stress incontinence but is now discouraged. which information from the client indicates the need for further teaching? select all that apply.
Answer:
1. She performs the Kegel exercises every other day.
2. She quit drinking coffee with cream but drinks diet cola.
5. She has begun an exercise program that includes lifting weights.
Explanation:
Rationale: With stress incontinence, the client loses a small amount of urine involuntarily during activities that increase abdominal pressure, such as coughing, jogging, or lifting weights. This is due to weakened pelvic muscles and the inability to tighten the urethra enough to counteract bladder contraction. Kegel exercises, in which the woman contracts and relaxes the pelvic muscles to regain muscle tone should be done on a daily basis and may take up to 3 months before yielding positive results. Clients should avoid caffeine and alcohol that stimulate bladder contraction. Diet cola likely contains caffeine. The exercise program involving weight lifting also increases abdominal pressure, leading to incontinence. The client is correct to lose weight (source for increased abdominal pressure) and maintain adequate fluid intake.
a nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv). the client wants to know when medication for the disease will begin. what is the nurse's best response?
The nurse's best response is advised to starting medicines as soon as possible.
How is HIV handled?Antiretroviral therapy (ART), the term for HIV drugs, lowers the level of HIV in your blood, which slows the disease's progression in your body. This keeps the immune system capable of warding off more infections. No matter how long a person has had the infection or how healthy they are, ART requires taking a combination of HIV drugs every day. Visit HIV.gov to find out more about available treatments.
Advantages of early therapy of HIVReduce your risk of passing HIV to HIV-negative individuals through intercourse, sharing needles, or mother-to-child transmission during pregnancy and childbirth
Reduce your risk of contracting some malignancies and illnesses caused by HIV.
Boost your potential to live a longer, healthier life
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after a series of visits to her care provider, a 40-year-old woman has been diagnosed with primary hypertension and metabolic syndrome. in addition to her persistently high blood pressure (bp) readings, what criterion would contribute to the woman's diagnosis of metabolic syndrome?
Metabolic syndrome, often known as syndrome X, is characterized by abnormally high blood pressure, insulin resistance, dyslipidemia, and/or abdominal obesity.
Insulin resistance, obesity, atherogenic dyslipidemia, and hypertension are all established cardiovascular risk factors that can co-occur. This condition is known as the metabolic syndrome. The underlying mediators, mechanisms, and pathways connecting these conditions are connected. Regarding both its use and definition, there has recently been debate. I go over the current metabolic syndrome criteria in this essay, along with the significance of the idea. It pinpoints a subpopulation of patients that share a pathophysiology and are very susceptible to developing cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes.
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a nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension and diabetes mellitus. the client's blood pressure this morning was 150/92 mm hg. when the client asks the nurse what his or her blood pressure should be, what is the nurse's most appropriate response?
Client asks the nurse what his or her blood pressure should be, 130/80 mm hg or lower is the nurse's most appropriate response
What is hypertension and diabetes mellitus ?Diabetes, obesity, and high blood pressure are frequently present together. The term "metabolic syndrome" refers to all of these disorders taken together. Cardiovascular problems are more likely to affect those with metabolic syndrome. There are several causes and risk factors that are similar between diabetes and hypertension.
A condition where the kidneys produce an excessive volume of urine and the body is unable to regulate the blood's level of glucose (a form of sugar).Diabetes causes small blood vessels in your body damage over time, stiffening the blood vessel walls. Due to the pressure increase, high blood pressure results. Type 2 diabetes and high blood pressure together significantly raise the risk of a heart attack or stroke.Learn more about Hypertension and diabetes mellitus here:
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an important aspect of client education is making sure medication and household cleaning products are safely secured away from where children have access. why are children more likely to try these products?
Children are most likely to use these products, as consumers. Combining home cleansers to make a more potent product also is not a good idea because they may create toxic waste that seems to be bad for children.
What is called medication?A dose form with one or even more active chemicals as well as potential inactive ones. Tablets, capsules, liquids, creams, and patches are just a few of the dose forms for drugs. Additionally, they can be administered in a variety of methods, including orally, intravenously, or as drops in the ear and eye. Medicines are substances or chemicals that treat, halt, or prevent illness, lessen symptoms, or aid inside the diagnosis of diseases. Thanks to modern medicine, doctors can now prevent and treat a wide range of illnesses. Today, there are many places to get medications.
Is medication a form of medical treatment and how its works?Medical care refers to the management and attention given to a patient in order to treat a condition. All forms of medical care are included, unless specifically stated differently (below). using prescription drugs or a non-prescription drug that has been diluted to a prescription level. There are several ways that drugs can affect your body. They can prevent pathogens (germs) from invading your body, eliminate cancer-causing aberrant cells, replenish missing nutrients (such vitamins or hormones), or alter how your body's cells function.
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the nurse discovers that an infusion of total parenteral nutrition (tpn) through a central line is empty, and a replacement bag is not yet ready. what should the nurse do next while waiting for the replacement bag?
The nurse should Hang an intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose in water while waiting for the replacement bag
What is total parenteral nutrition (tpn) ?A feeding technique that omits the gastrointestinal tract is called total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The majority of the nutrients the body requires are delivered through a vein in a particular mix. When a person cannot or shouldn't receive fluids or a feeding through their mouth, the technique is used.
TPN should not be abruptly stopped (particularly in patients taking insulin), since this could result in hypoglycemia. If, for whatever reason, the TPN solution runs out while a new bag is being prepared, hang D5W at the same rate of infusion until the new TPN bag is ready.Learn more about Total parenteral nutrition (tpn) here:
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stacy administers atropine drops sublingually, and jill's respirations quiet. despite having cheyne-stokes respirations for 2 hours while unconscious, jill suddenly regains consciousness. which explanation should the nurse offer to the family for this change in status?
An unexpected alertness sometimes occurs when a client is near death and is called a "rally".
How long is apnea in Cheyne-Stokes?In individuals with Cheyne-Stokes respiration, the duration of breathing is greater than 40 seconds as opposed to being shorter than 40 seconds in patients with central sleep apnea. Additionally, with Cheyne-Stokes respiration, the comparative duration of breathlessness is longer than the duration of an expiration. An apnea is a momentary cessation of breathing that comes from an irregular breathing pattern characterized by gradually deeper and occasionally quicker breathing then a gradual reduction.
What conditions cause Cheyne-Stokes?Unusual respiratory patterns with frequent apneas include Cheyne-Stokes respiration (CSR) (dysrhythmias). It was first noted in heart failure patients or stroke, but it has now been linked to various illnesses and the sleep apnea condition.
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a patient has taken levodopa-carbidopa (sinemet) for parkinson's disease for 2 weeks but reports no improvement in the symptoms. which response by the nurse is correct?
The correct response by the nurse for a patient that experiences no improvement after taking levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) for Parkinson's disease for 2 weeks is to inform the patient that it may take several months for a response to occur.
Levodopa and carbidopa are a combination used to treat Parkinson's disease. Levodopa changes into dopamine in the brain which helps to control movement while carbidopa prevents levodopa breakdown in the bloodstream so more levodopa can enter the brain.
Some side effects of this medication include lightheadedness, nausea, dizziness, headache, and trouble sleeping. One may need weeks or even months to feel improvement in the symptoms after they start taking this medication.
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a client with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (ckd) is presenting with fever and chest pain, especially when taking a deep breath. the nurse detects a pericardial friction rub on auscultation. which condition does the nurse suspect is common with this stage of kidney disease?
A patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) has chest pain, especially when inhaling deeply, and a fever. During auscultation, the nurse hears pericardial friction rub. Pericarditis is a problem that the nurse believes is typical of kidney disease at this stage.
Many persons with stage 5 CKD develop pericarditis as a result of their uremia and protracted dialysis. The symptoms of uremic pericarditis are similar to those of viral pericarditis, including all of its possible side effects, such as cardiac tamponade. The presenting symptoms include pericardial friction rub and mild to severe chest discomfort with respiratory accentuation. In the absence of infection, fever might vary and is more frequent in dialysis patients than in those with uremic pericarditis.
The thin, sac-like membrane that surrounds the heart (pericardium) experiences swelling and discomfort when it has pericarditis. Pericarditis may result from a viral infection or a cardiac stroke, among other things. The cause is frequently unknown. Sharp, stabbing chest discomfort that may radiate to the left shoulder and neck is the most typical symptom. Pericarditis typically starts suddenly and ends quickly. Most cases are minor and resolve on their own most of the time. Medication and (rarely) surgery are possible treatments for more severe conditions.
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using the nursing process to make ethical decisions involves following several steps. which step is the nurse implementing when reflecting on the decision-making process and the role it will play in making future decisions?
While the nurses make an ethical decision, it involves several steps. The nurse implements the step of Evaluating while reflecting on the decision-making process.
In the nursing process, decision-making plays a crucial role. This decision-making involves several steps. The most important part of decision-making is Evaluating. Evaluating an ethical decision is an important part as it helps to analyze the current situation and make the decisions ethically.
Evaluation of a problem has an important role in making decisions in a situation. It gives us a clear idea of how to handle the situations and how can it help optimally in the future given the circumstances.
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the nurse is explaining to new parents the various vaccinations their newborn will receive before being discharged home. which immunization should the nurse teach the parents about that will help decrease the incidence of hepatic disease later in life?
The Nurse advises getting hep B immunization to prevent hepatitis B. Cirrhosis and liver cancer can both be avoided later in life with it, according to research.
What causes infant liver disease?
Neonatal hemochromatosis, a condition previously known as gestational alloimmune liver disease, is the most frequent cause of abrupt liver failure in the newborn era. Following this are metabolic disorders, viral infections, hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis, and other uncommon causes.
According to a study, it can prevent both cirrhosis and liver cancer later in life.
Therefore, nurses inform the parents about factors that will lower the risk of developing liver disease in later life.
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27. a nurse is caring for a client who suddenly develops dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, restlessness, and tachycardia. the nurse suspects pulmonary embolism. what is the priority intervention for this client at this time?
The nurse is caring for a client who reports dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, restlessness, and tachycardia and is suspected of pulmonary embolism. The priority intervention for the client would be to place the client on Oxygen.
In the question, it is stated that the client is facing issues and suddenly reports dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, restlessness, and tachycardia. The nurse suspects that the client is suffering from a Pulmonary Embolism. The nurse should intervene in this situation by putting the client on Oxygen.
Pulmonary Embolism is a type of blockage in the pulmonary arteries in the patient's lungs. Generally, it is the clotting of the blood cells that travel to the lungs and causes difficulty in breathing.
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christina, who is 44, wonders if she should be concerned about her risk of breast cancer. christina went through menarche at age 12, has no children, and is in generally good health. christina's mother was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 58. according to the american cancer society, christina should . . .
Christina, who is 44, wonders if she should be concerned about her risk of breast cancer in female external genital structures.
Medical doctors recognize that breast most cancers happen while some breast cells begin to develop abnormally. these cells divide extra rapidly than healthful cells do and preserve to accumulate, forming a lump or mass. Cells may also unfold (metastasize) thru your breast to your lymph nodes or to different parts of your body.
Maximum breast cancers start inside the ducts or lobules. Breast cancer can unfold outdoors the breast thru blood vessels and lymph vessels. while breast cancer spreads to different components of the body, it's far said to have metastasized.
Breast cancer is greater, not unusual in the left breast than in the proper. The left breast is five - 10% more likely to expand cancer than the proper breast. The left aspect of the body is also kind of five% more vulnerable to cancer (a form of pores and skin cancer)
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the nurse determines the risk for a pressure ulcer in an older adult who is 6 feet tall and weight 155 pounds. which client information should the nurse use in planning care to reduce this individual's risk for a pressure ulcer? (select all that apply)
The patient information that the nurse can use in planning care to reduce this individual's risk for a pressure ulcer include:
B. Dry mucous membranes
C. Prealbumin level of 7 mg/dL
D. Fasting glucose of 140 mg/dL
F. Uses food stamps to get food
How to illustrate the information?One area of concern that the nurse should address is the possibility of skin breakdown as a result of arthritic pain or immobility. Because this man is underweight, malnourished, and dehydrated, as evidenced by dry mucous membranes, the nurse plans care to address dehydration as a significant risk factor for pressure ulcers.
Because water is required for intracellular functioning and cell durability, dehydration increases the risk of pressure ulcers. Because this man is underweight and malnourished, the nurse bases his care on an assessment of hypoproteinemia, which increases his risk of pressure ulcers significantly.
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Complete question
The nurse determines the risk for a pressure ulcer in an older adult who is 6 feet tall and weighs 155 lb. Which patient information should the nurse use in planning care to reduce this individual's risk for a pressure ulcer? (Select all that apply.) a. Osteoarthritis of the neck b. Dry mucous membranes c. Prealbumin level of 7 mg/dL d. Fasting glucose of 140 mg/dL e. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/dL f. Uses food stamps to get food
describe how you would draw on communication theories to design an intervention to increase childhood vaccine uptake among vaccine skeptical parents in the united states. make sure to discuss framing and draw on specific health behavior and communication theories as applicable
When designing an intervention to increase childhood vaccine uptake among vaccine skeptical parents in the United States, it is important to consider the theories of framing and health communication.
Framing theory posits that the way in which information is presented can influence how it is interpreted and how likely people are to act on it. In the context of vaccines, this means that pro-vaccine messages should be framed in a way that is likely to be effective with the target audience.
Health communication theory suggests that people are more likely to engage in healthy behaviors if they feel that they have the knowledge and skills to do so. In the context of vaccines, this means that parents should be provided with accurate information about vaccines and be given the opportunity to ask questions and get clarification. Additionally, parents should be given resources to help them make informed decisions about vaccines.
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high folate intake may: question 20 options: increase the incidence of colon cancer. cause other vitamin deficiencies because folate competes for absorption sites. mask a vitamin b12 deficiency, giving rise to permanent nerve damage. cause acne.
Folic acid intake that is too high can increase the risk of colon cancer. so folic acid should be taken according to the doctor's advice.
Folic acid contributes to the formation of DNA and new body cells. Vitamin B9 also plays a role in supporting the formation of red blood cells so that it can prevent anemia.
Other benefits of folate play a role in increasing egg and sperm cells. In addition, folic acid can reduce the risk of heart disease and stroke. Folic acid is an essential vitamin that cannot be produced by the human body. Therefore, the need for vitamin B9 needs to be met with food or supplements.
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if an asymptomatic patient older than 50 years is offered a test to detect colon cancer, which, if completed, will reduce the cost of his or her health insurance, this would be an example of which type of intervention?
According to the given statement Secondary intervention—motivation an example of which type of intervention.
What is the asymptomatic patients?Asymptomatic denotes the absence of symptoms. If then: Have cured from a disease or ailment and don't have any symptoms, you are deemed asymptomatic. Have a disease or condition yet lack the symptoms of it, such as glaucoma or early-stage high blood pressure.
What are the rules for asymptomatic Covid?Day 0 refers to the day symptoms first manifested or the date that specimen was taken for the positive test in the case of patients who are asymptomatic with COVID-19. These individuals should stay isolated for at at least five days. They had to wear masks the entire tenth day.
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considering the normal frequency of bowel evacuation, how infrequently can evacuation occur and still be considered within normal range? a. once a day c. once a week b. once every 2 days d. once every 2 weeks
Evacuation which occur Once a week and still be considered within normal range
What is bowel movement ?Faeces pass through the gut and out the anus, consisting of undigested food, bacteria, mucus, and intestinal lining cells. known also as defecation.
Brown, uniformly formed stools that don't hurt to pass and aren't too loose, hard, or painful are typically signs of a healthy bowel movement. There is no perfect range for everyone's bowel movements; the normal, healthy range may include one to three bowel movements per day or as little as three bowel movements per week.Normal bowel habits range from two or three evacuations per day to one per weekLearn more about Bowel movement here:
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a client who has experienced nonunion of a fracture is scheduled for bone grafting using cadaver bone. the client appears restless and anxious about the procedure. after determining that the client understands the surgical procedure, the nurse should explore which item next?
Bone grafting using cadaver bone is scheduled for a customer whose fracture has failed to heal. The customer seems uneasy and restless during the process. After ascertaining that the patient is aware of the surgical process, the nurse should inquire about any concerns the patient may have with developing hepatitis or perhaps an infection with the human immunodeficiency virus.
Without treatment (such as surgery), nonunion is a broken bone's inability to mend completely. It is common to refer to a fracture with nonunion as a "false joint" or pseudoarthrosis because it typically takes on the structural appearance of a fibrous joint. When there is no healing between two sets of diagnostic imaging, such as an X-ray or CT scan, the diagnosis is typically made. Usually, this happens 6 to 8 months later. A fracture's major consequence, nonunion, can happen when the fracture moves excessively, has insufficient blood supply, or becomes infected. Smokers are more likely to experience nonunion. Normal bone repair is halted or interfered with. In very few instances, a nonunion may continue to mend without treatment since the process of bone healing is highly unpredictable. Generally speaking, if a nonunion is still present at six months after the injury, it won't heal without special care, usually orthopaedic surgery. A delayed union is a non-union that eventually heals.
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