Option a and b are correct.
the superficial portion of the dermisgroup is called the papillary region includes touch receptors called Meissner's corpuscles.
Skin-based touch receptors are a subtype of sensory neuron that respond to mechanical stimulus. They have specific ends. Touch receptors therefore communicate with the central nervous system about tactile inputs as a component of the somatosensory system.
Mechanoreceptors fall into one of three categories: baroreceptors, proprioceptors, or tactile. Due to the physical distortion of their plasma membranes, mechanoreceptors detect stimuli. They contain mechanically-gated ion channels, which respond to pressure, touch, stretching, and sound by opening or closing their gates. Merkel's discs, Meissner's corpuscles, Ruffini endings, and Pacinian corpuscle are the four basic tactile mechanoreceptors found in human skin; two of these structures are found closer to the skin's surface and two are deeper. Krause end bulbs, a fifth variety of mechanoreceptor, are exclusively found.
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from a viable plate count you obtained the following results after diluting a bacterial sample and plating 0.20 mls of the dilutions on various media: how many cfu/ml were in the original sample?
The original sample is 2 ml. So after dilution it is 0.2 ml.
What is dilution?An object that dissolves in a solvent is referred to as a solute. A solvent is something that allows a solute to dissolve and form a solution.
Typically, a liquid is a solvent, while a solid is a solute. Solutions are uniformly constituted or homogenous mixtures.
When compared to a diluted solution, a concentrated solution has a substantial amount of solute dissolved into it. A diluent is something we employ to thin out a solution. A serial dilution is a different kind of dilution. When we continually diluted a stock, we experienced the second sort of dilution.
Therefore, The original sample is 2 ml. So after dilution it is 0.2 ml.
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terms used to describe factors (or sets of factors) that limit population size include group of answer choices density-dependent and independent limiting factors. extrinsic and intrinsic limiting factors. all of these are correct. environmental resistance.
Terms used to describe factors (or sets of factors) that limit population size include, density-dependent and independent limiting factors, extrinsic and intrinsic limiting factors. So option (d) all of the above is correct.
Limiting elements in the natural environment, such as access to food, water, shelter, and space, can alter animal and plant populations. Populations may also be affected by other limiting factors like as competition for resources, predatory behavior, and sickness.
A population's per capita growth rate changes—typically declines—with rising population density due to density-dependent limiting constraints. One illustration is how individuals of a group compete for scarce food.Independent of population density, certain factors affect per capita growth rate. Natural catastrophes like forest fires are examples.
Diverse limiting variables can interact in intricate ways to produce different patterns of population expansion. Some populations exhibit cyclical oscillations, where the population size varies cycle by cycle in a predictable manner.
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suppose that fish size is a heritable trait in a population of fish. the allele conferring large size (s) is incompletely dominant to the allele conferring small size (s). heterozygotes (ss) are of intermediate size. suppose that a population of fish is at hardy-weinberg equilibrium and the frequency of the s allele is 0.9. what proportion of the next generation will be of intermediate size?
The proportion of dominating people in the following population is (1+4)%, or 5%.
The Hardy-Weinberg rule states that in the absence of evolutionary driving forces, allele and genotype frequencies in a population remain constant.
It claims that the binomial expansion of the square of the sum of p and q can be used to describe the total genotype frequencies.
The following sum equals one: (p+q) ²= p²+ 2pq + q².
In this instance, "p" represents the frequency of the dominant allele, and "q," that of the recessive allele. The expression "2pq" represents the population's frequency of heterozygotes.
The frequency of the dominant allele is given by p+q=1, while the frequency of the recessive allele is given by q = 0.9 for a certain hereditary trait. Consequently,
p=1-q
P=1-0.9 = 0.1
p²= (0.1) =0.01 or 1% of the population has a homozygous dominant genotype.
The percentage of heterozygous dominant genotypes in the population as a whole is 4% (PQ)² = 2 X 0.1 X 0.2 ".
∴ (1+4)%
=5%.
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ANSWER PLEASEEEEEEEEE
A person can have hundreds of different type of cells because:different cells result from genetic variation in meiosis.different cell types have different genes.different cell types all have the same genes but have different genes active.None of these choices is correct.
Humans have specialized cells in the body. Each cell type performs a unique function. Humans have different type of cells with different structures and functions.
All the cells in a human's body contain the same DNA. However, the human body is composed of many different types of cells. Because of gene regulation, each cell type possess a different set of active genes although all the cells of the body contain the same DNA.
Answer - different cell types all have the same genes but have different genes active.
sympathetic stimulation causes multiple choice mesangial cells to release angiotensin, which ultimately leads to granular cell relaxation. mesangial cells to release angiotensin, which ultimately leads to granular cell contraction. granular cells to release renin, which ultimately leads to mesangial cell contraction. inhibited release of erythropoietin and contraction of granular and mesangial cells. granular cells to release renin, which ultimately leads to mesangial cell relaxation.
Sympathetic stimulation causes granular cells to release renin, which ultimately leads to mesangial cell contraction and is denoted as option C.
What is Sympathetic stimulation?This is referred to as the process in which the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated so as to enable certain types of activities such as heart and digestive rate to be adequately performed by the body for its survival.
In the digestive system, its stimulation results in granular cells releasing renin, which ultimately leads to mesangial cell contraction. This is responsible for the coagulation which occurs in the stomach.
Digestion of the milk is enhanced in this process especilly in young children and is therefore the reason why option C was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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pls help
What part of the brain is the arrow pointing to in the diagram below?
Pituitary gland
Cerebrum
Cerebellum
Cerebral cortex
which organisms do not use nadh to feed electrons into mitochondrial electron transport chains? group of answer choices animals that do not maintain a constant body temperature plants animals that maintain a constant body temperature eukaryotic algae bacteria and archaea
The statement "animals that do not maintain a constant body temperature" is correct, they are the organisms that do not use NADH to feed electrons into mitochondrial electron transport chains.
Animals that do not keep a constant body temperature do not need NADH and do not consume NADH during respiration, as NADH is needed for maintaining a constant body temperature and is thus required by the organism.
The second method uses the respiration process used by bacteria and archaea, which uses NADH. The eukaryotic algae in the third option employ NADH in respiration since eukaryotes often do so. In the fourth option, animals must use NADH for respiration in order to keep their body temperatures constant.
If NADH is not available, oxidative phosphorylation reactions uncouple, which maintains the body temperature. This type of reaction is seen in animals that are hibernating as well as in newborn animals and people.
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What famous geneticist worked in a monastery studying pea plants
Answer:
Explanation:
Gregor Mendel
What kind of mathematical relationship seems to exist between the length of the ulna and the height of an individual?
(Pearson's correlation )interpreted a very high significant (P < 0.001) relation between the length of the ulna and the height. The regression equation was derived to estimate the height of an individual from the length of the ulna in males and females.
The kind of mathematical relationship that seems to exist between the length of the ulna and the height of an individual is Pearson's correlation.
What is Pearson's correlation?The Pearson correlation coefficient (r) is the most commonly used metric for determining a linear relationship. It is a number ranging from -1 to 1 that indicates the strength and direction of a link between two variables. When one variable shifts, the other shifts in the same way.
Pearson's correlation revealed a highly significant relationship between ulna length and height. The regression equation was developed to estimate an individual's height from the length of the ulna in males and females.
Therefore, the mathematical relationship that exists is Pearson's correlation.
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Algor mortis, or postmortem cooling of the body, varies with ambient temperatures. Based on the results of your experiment, how does ambient temperature affect the rate of cooling of a body after death? explain your answer. Include how this might affect the use of the glaister equation in determining the time of death.
The ambient temperature affect the rate of cooling of a body after death occurs depends on the temperature differential between the body and the environment.
How long does it take for the body to cool down after death?Once vital functions cease, the body cools at an average of 1°C to 1.5°C per hour. Considering that the average temperature of a human being is between 36 °C and 37 °C, the corpse reaches the ambient temperature in 24 hours at most.
The higher the ambient temperature, the more important the evaporative heat loss will be. In fact, when ambient temperature is higher than body temperature, the only way to lose heat is through evaporation. Human beings lose heat through sweating.
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1. identify 10 biotic components of an chosen ecosystem.
Answer:
Explanation:
Biotic factors are living or once-living organisms in the ecosystem. These are
obtained from the biosphere and are capable of reproduction. Examples of
Biotic factors are animals, birds, plants, fungi, and other similar organisms.
Biotic describes a living component of an ecosystem; for example organisms, such as plants and animals.
Examples: All living things — autotrophs and heterotrophs — plants, animals, fungi, bacteria.
Living things that directly or indirectly affect organisms in
environment; organisms, interactions, waste; parasitism, and disease.
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Which best describes mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA)?
Mitochondrial DNA is the same as nuclear DNA.
Mitochondrial DNA is inherited through the father.
Mitochondrial DNA can be traced for generations.
Mitochondrial DNA requires large amounts for testin
Mitochondrial DNA can be traced for generations best describes mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA).
Mitochondrial DNA is the circular chromosome found inside the cellular organelles called mitochondria. Located in the cytoplasm, mitochondria are the site of the cell's energy production and other metabolic functions. Offspring inherit mitochondria and as a result mitochondrial DNA from their mother.
The mitochondrial genome is circular, whereas the nuclear genome is linear. The mitochondrial genome is built of 16,569 DNA base pairs, whereas the nuclear genome is made of 3.3 billion DNA base pairs. Unlike the DNA inside the nucleus, it is not a mixture of our parent's DNA, and each person's mtDNA is nearly identical to his or her mother's mtDNA.
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We know when we are moving up and down in an elevator because of the movemnt of tiny crystals in the
We know when we are moving up and down in an elevator because of the movement of tiny crystals in the otolith organs.
The sacculus and the utricle are the two otolith organs present in humans. These organs are responsible for sensing of gravity and also help in linear motions.
There are tiny crystals present in the otolith organs that help in linear motons or detecting when we are moving up or down. These crystals are termed as otoconia and are primarily made up of calcium carbonate.
These otoconia are responsible for detecting vertical movements and are present in the ear.
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18. Taxonomy grew as a science partly because ofA. the development of printing and navigationB. the work of Pliny the ElderC. the decline of the Greek civilizationD. none of the above helped taxonomy grow as a science
Taxonomy is a system of classification used in science specially to the classification of living organisms. Threfore, the taxonomy grew as a science there is none of the above as a way to help it grow as a science, being the correct alternative the D.
More energy can be released from fat molecule than from glucose molecule because the fat molecule contains more
Answer:
chemicals bonds
Explanation:
the more bonds, the more energy released!
Mendel first made sure that he had purebred dominant green pod plants and then he crossed them with yellow pod plants. What is the probability that the offspring are green? (5 pts)
Genotype: Phenotype:
Second, Mendel used the offspring from the first cross and allowed them to self pollinate. What is the probability that the resulting offspring are yellow? (5 pts)
Genotype: Phenotype:
(Create Punnett squares pls for both)
Using Punnett squares is useful to calculate genotypic and phenotypic probabilities among the progenies. Pods color is coded by a diallelic gene expressing complete dominance. 1) 100%. Genotype Gg. Phenotype Green. 2) 25% Genotype 25%GG + 50% Gg + 25%gg. Phenotypes 75% Green and 25% yellow.
What is a Punnett square?
The Punnett square is a graphic representation that shows the different types of gamete combinations according to the alleles involved in a cross.
Punnett square shows the probabilities of getting offspring with different genotypes and their consequent phenotypes.
What is complete dominance?Complete dominance is the inheritance pattern in which the dominant allele completely masks the expression of the recessive allele, which becomes evident in heterozygous individuals.
In the exposed example, the gene coding for pods color is diallelic and expresses complete dominance,
Green is dominant over yellowG is the dominant allele that codes for greeng is the recessive allele that codes for yellow1st cross) purebred dominant with purebred recessive
Parentals) GG x gg
Gametes) G G g g
Punett square) G G
g Gg Gg
g Gg Gg
F1) 100% Gg green individuals
2nd cross) between heterozygous individuals
Parentals) Gg x Gg
Gametes) G g G g
Punett square) G g
G GG Gg
g Gg gg
F2) Genotype
1/4 = 25% of the progeny is expected to be GG
2/4 = 50% of the progeny is expected to be Gg
1/4 = 25% of the progeny is expected to be gg.
Phenotype
3/4 = 75% of the progeny is expected to be green-poded individuals
1/4 = 25% of the progeny is expected to be yellow-poded individuals
1) What is the probability that the offspring are green?
The F1 is composed of heterozygous individuals, Gg.
There are 100% probability that the offspring are green.
Genotype: GgPhenotype: Green2) What is the probability that the resulting offspring are yellow?
The F2 is composed of green (homozygous dominant GG and heterozygous Gg) and yellow (homozygous recessive gg) individuals.
There are 25% probability that the offspring are yellow.
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How can a balanced reciprocal translocation that does not cause the person to have an abnormal phenotype cause that person’s offspring to have an abnormal phenotype?.
In a balanced reciprocal translocation, chromosomes are arranged in such a manner that no chromosome material gets gained or lost in the process.
A person who carries balanced translocation is usually unaware of the fact that he or she is having this sort of problem unless they give birth to a child. If one of the parents carries a balanced translocation, then it may possible that the child may inherit an unbalanced translocation in his life.
In an unbalanced translocation, the exchange of chromosomal material is unequal resulting into extra or missing genes. However, it is not necessary that if a parent has balanced translocation then he or she will always pass it on to the child.
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when someone is standing, gravity stretches the bottom of the lung down toward the floor to a greater extent than the top of the lung. what implications would this have on the flow of air in the lungs? where does gas exchange occur in the lungs?
Gravity stretches the bottom of the lung down toward the floor more than the top of the lung while someone is standing. Increased ventilation occurs further down in the lung as a result of the concentration gradient.
What is at the bottom of the lungs?The diaphragm, a skeletal muscle that aids in breathing, protects the bottom of the lungs. Breathing necessitates the synchronization of the lungs, the chest wall, and, most crucially, the diaphragm.
How does the structure of the lungs affect breathing?The mechanics of breathing are controlled by the structure of the lungs and the thoracic cavity. During inspiration, the diaphragm contracts and descends. The intercostal muscles contract and expand the chest wall outward. The intrapleural pressure lowers, the lungs expand, and the air is pulled into the airways.
Why is the left lobe of the lungs smaller?The left lobe is also smaller to create room for the heart. The left and right lungs are suspended by the lung root and separated by a mediastinum, which acts as a membrane divider between the two. Each lung has three surfaces, each called after its position in the thorax.
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Put the steps of the Calvin Cycle in the correct order. Watch the video as many times as you need to understand this process.
1. The enzyme used in this reaction is called Rubisco and results in an unstable 6 carbon molecule that quickly splits into two three carbon molecules called 3-phosphoglycerate
2. ADP and NADP+ return to the thylakoids to be converted back to ATP and NADPH by the light reactions.
3. NADPH and ATP are used to in CO2 reduction where3PG is reduced to form G3P.
4. The cycle turns 6 times to form a glucose molecule.
5. ATP is used to combine the rest of the G3P molecules to form RuBP molecules
6. CO2 is attached to RuBP, a 5 carbon molecule
The correct order of the steps of Calvin cycle are:
6. CO2 is attached to RuBP, a 5 carbon molecule.
1. The enzyme used in this step is called Rubisco and the resultant is an unstable 6 carbon molecule that instantly splits into two three carbon molecules known as 3-phosphoglycerate.
3. NADPH and ATP are used to in CO2 reduction where 3PG is reduced to form G3P.
2. ADP and NADP+ come back to the thylakoids to be converted back to ATP and NADPH by the light-dependent reactions.
5. ATP is used to combine the remaining G3P molecules to form RuBP molecules.
4. The cycle turns 6 times to form a glucose molecule.
Calvin cycle is an important part of the light-independent reaction. It is involved in the synthesis of glucose molecules.
Rubisco stands for Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase-oxygenase. It is the most abundant enzyme present in the Earth.
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a microbiologist wants to estimate the concentration of a certain type of bacterium in a wastewater sample. she puts a 0.5 ml sample of the wastewater on a microscope slide and counts 39 bacteria. estimate the concentration of bacteria, per ml, in this wastewater. round your answer to the nearest whole number.
The estimated concentration of bacteria per mL in the wastewater if she puts a 0.5 ml sample of the wastewater on a microscope slide and counts 39 bacteria is 78 counts per mL.
The solution to this problem is as simple as 39/0.5 because if you have x amounts of y/2 overall, you will have x amounts in y. (just multiplying both sides by 2, no distributions involved). For a clearer understanding see the solution below:
Let X represent the number of bacteria observed in 0.5 mL.
Let A represent the true concentration in bacteria per mL.
The X ~ Poisson(0.5A)
The observed valus of X is 39.
The estimated concentration is {A} = 39 / 0.5 = 78
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What is the phrase that is most closely associated with natural selection?
Natural selection is the process in which the population with the best adaptation is favorable. It is usually associated with the phrase "survival of the fittest".
Identify the cell organelles found only in plant cells and those found in both animal and plant cells.
Answer:
Animal cells each have a centrosome and lysosomes, whereas plant cells do not. Plant cells have a cell wall, chloroplasts and other specialized plastids, and a large central vacuole, whereas animal cells do not.
Which molecular structures could be found in lipids but not a carbohydrate, protein, or nucleic acid?
Answer:
Proteins, carbohydrates and lipids are made from three basic molecules: carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. However, all proteins contain an element not found in carbohydrates and lipids is nitrogen.
Explanation:
Question 4 of 10
What is the purpose of a conclusion?
A. To predict how something will turn out
B. To explain why the data support or reject the hypothesis
OC. To collect or analyze the experimental data
D. To make an educated guess about a particular question
SUBMIT
A conclusion's purpose is to forecast how something will turn out.
What is the experiment's conclusion?The purpose of the conclusion is to analyze what you have presented in the project, as well as to approve the problem statement and finish the project.It also includes the approval of the problem statement, information presented in the project and analysis, and new information that is not relevant to the project or presentation.The amount of conclusion can be changed by making it larger and analyzing more specific things, as well as editing more grammar errors. The conclusion can bring together the main points in your assignment.It establishes the premises and shows how they come together to support your claim, which means it briefly revisits each key point.So here correct answer is Option A) To predict how something will turn out.
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PLEASE SOMEONE HELP EXPLAIN THIS IT’S DUE FIRST THING TMRW MORNING!!
Determine the empirical formula of a 28.00 gram sample containing 22.90 grams carbon and 5.10 grams hydrogen.
Explanation:
The compound is found to be composed of 75% carbon and 25% hydrogen.
100 g of the compound contains 75 g of carbon and 25 g of hydrogen.
The atomic masses of carbon and hydrogen are 12 g/mol and 1 g/mol respectively.
The number of moles of C =
12 g/mol
75 g
= 6.25 moles
The number of moles of H =
1 g/mol
25 g
= 25 moles
The mole ratio C:H=6.25:25=1:4
The empirical formula of the compound is CH
4
.
Which activity of the polymerase is responsible for degrading the pre-genomic rna during hepatitis b dna replication?.
RNase H activity of the polymerase is responsible for degrading the pre-genomic rna during hepatitis b dna replication.
What is the function of polymerase?DNA polymerases' major function is to efficiently and properly replicate the genome in order to maintain the genetic code and ensure that it is faithfully passed down through the generations.
What does DNA polymerase do?A double-stranded DNA molecule is duplicated into two identical DNA molecules during the process of DNA replication, which is carried out by DNA polymerase. With the help of the polymerase chain reaction, generally known as PCR, scientists have been able to duplicate DNA molecules in test tubes.
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Example A: A person ate a ham sandwich and ran a race. She finished in first place.
Claim: The ham sandwich was the reason she won, and she should eat ham sandwiches before all her races.
Example B: A person ate different meals before 20 races that he ran. For ten races, he ate spaghetti before the race and finished in either first, second, or third place. For the other ten races, he ate fried chicken and finished in second place once, but finished in sixth or seventh place in the rest of the races.
Claim: Spaghetti helped his performance, and he should eat spaghetti before all his races.
Which claim is based on higher-quality evidence?
Answer:
Explanation:
there are more trials, that contain solid results, rather than a 1 time, so bee(I can't type the letter by itself for some reason)
a(n) is a site within a chromosome that serves as the starting point for dna synthesis. here, the two dna strands unwind, and replication proceeds outward in opposite directions from this site. this provides an opening called a(n) that forms two .
The origin of replication is a site within a chromosome that serves as the starting point for DNA synthesis.
This provides an opening called a replication fork those forms two DNA.
DNA union begins at a particular put on a chromosome called a root. Within the begin-with instrument, one girl strand is started at the beginning on one parental strand and the moment is started at another root on the inverse parental strand.
In this way, as where one strand develops from each root. A few infections utilize this sort of component.
DNA replication may be a handle that happens amid cellular division where two indistinguishable particles of DNA are made from a single atom of DNA.
As a semiconservative prepare, a single particle containing two strands of DNA in a twofold helix arrangement is isolated, where each strand serves as a layout for the modern DNA particles.
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When the ground becomes saturated in a rain storm and the excess cannot be soaked up, the water will travel along the ground until it hits a low-lying area or a larger body of water. The water that is not absorbed into the ground, including the larger body of water, is _______.
A.
groundwater
B.
a puddle
C.
fertilizer
D.
surface water
The water that is not absorbed into the ground, including the larger body of water, is surface water and is denoted as option D.
What is Surface water?This is referred to as the body of water which is present on a terrestrial surface such as land etc.
Examples of surface water include rivers, oceans etc and they comprise of the water that is not absorbed into the ground to form what is known as ground water due to different types of factors and parameters which is therefore the reason why option D was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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The bigger body of water, as well as the water that is not absorbed into the earth, is considered surface water. Thus, option D is correct.
What are the factor in formation of surface water?Rainfall is the principal source of surface water. It is a mixture of groundwater and surface runoff.
Groundwater and surface water are intimately related. Through the pores and fissures in the soil, sand, and rocks, some surface water seeps deep into the ground.
Runoff is the term for the surface water that results from precipitation and melted snow.
Therefore, The water that is not absorbed into the ground, including the larger body of water, is surface water.
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