The two uniform, slender rods B1and B2, each of mass 2kg, are pinned together at P, and then B1is suspended from a pin at O. (This arrangement is called a double pendulum.) The counterclockwise couple C0, having moment 150????⋅m, is applied to B2beginning at t=0. Find the angular accelerations of B1and B2upon application of the couple, and the force exerted on B2at P.

Answer:

- the power rating of the resistance heater is 24139.5 W

- the inner surface temperature of the pipe at the exit is 96.34°C

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

Flow rate of water in the tube V" = 5L/min = 8.333 × 10⁻⁵ m³/s        

The water is to be heated from 10°C to 80°C;

so Average or mean temperature [tex]T_{avg[/tex] will be;

[tex]T_{avg[/tex] = (T₁ + T₂) / 2 = (10 + 80) / 2 = 90/2 = 45°C

Now, from the Table " Properties of Water " at average temperature;

at [tex]T_{avg[/tex] = 45°C

density p = 990.1 kg/m³

specific heat [tex]C_p[/tex] = 4180 J/kg-k

thermal conductivity k = 0.637 W/m-°C

Now, we determine the mass flow;

m" = pV"

we substitute

m" = 990.1 × 8.333 × 10⁻⁵

m" = 0.08250 kg/s

we know that the power rating of the resistance heater is equal to the heat transfer rate to the water;

Q' = m"[tex]C_p[/tex]( T₂ - T₁ )

we substitute

Q' = (0.08250 × 4180 ) ( 80 - 10 )

Q' =  344.85 × 70

Q' = 24139.5 W

Hence, the power rating of the resistance heater is 24139.5 W

Next, we determine the average velocity of water in the tube;

[tex]V_{avg[/tex] = V" / [tex]A_c[/tex]

[tex]V_{avg[/tex] = V" / ( [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex]πD² )

given that;  flows through a 2-cm-internal-diameter; D = 0.02 m

we substitute

[tex]V_{avg[/tex] = (8.333 × 10⁻⁵) / ( [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex]π × (0.02)² )

[tex]V_{avg[/tex] = (8.333 × 10⁻⁵) / ( 3.14159 × 10⁻⁴ )

[tex]V_{avg[/tex] =  0.265 m/s

Also, from table " saturated water property table "

At 45°C

viscosity μ = 0.596 × 10⁻³ kg/m-s

Prandtl number Pr = 3.91

Now, we determine the kinematic viscosity

v = μ / p

we substitute

v = ( 0.596 × 10⁻³ ) / 990.1

v = 6.01959 × 10⁻⁷ m²/s

so, Reynolds number in the flow region will be;

Re = ([tex]V_{avg[/tex] × D) / v

we substitute

Re = ( 0.265 × 0.02) / (6.01959 × 10⁻⁷)

Re = 8804.586

we can see that our Reynolds number (  8804.586 ) more than 2300 and less than 10,000.

Hydraulic and thermal entry length are equal in this flow region,

such that;

[tex]L_h[/tex] = [tex]L_t[/tex]

⇒ 10 × D = 10 × 0.02 = 0.2 m

we can see that the entry length ( 0.2 m ) is smaller than the given length ( 13 m ) in the question; the flow is a turbulent flow.

So we the Nuddelt number

Nu = [tex]0.023Re^{0.8} Pr^{0.4[/tex]

Nu = 0.023 × [tex]8804.586^{0.8[/tex] × [tex]3.91^{0.4[/tex]

Nu = 56.8

Hence, the heat transfer coefficient h will be;

h = [tex]\frac{k}{D}[/tex] × Nu

we substitute

h = [tex]\frac{0.637}{0.02}[/tex] × 56.8

h = 31.85 × 56.8

h = 1809.1 W/m²-°C

Now, area of the heat transfer will be

A[tex]_s[/tex] = πDL

we substitute

A[tex]_s[/tex] = π × 0.02 × 13

A[tex]_s[/tex] = 0.8168 m²

Finally we determine the inner temperature of the pipe at exit. using the relation;

Q' = hA[tex]_s[/tex]( T₃ - T₂ )

we substitute

24139.5 = 1809.1 × 0.8168( T₃ - 10 )

24139.5 = 1477.67288( T₃ - 80 )

24139.5 = 1477.67288T₃ - 118213.8304

24139.5 + 118213.8304 = 1477.67288T₃

1477.67288T₃ = 142353.3304

T₃ = 142353.3304 / 1477.67288T

T₃ = 96.34°C

Therefore, the inner surface temperature of the pipe at the exit is 96.34°C

Answer:

3.33m

Explanation:

λ = C/f

Where,

λ (Lambda) = Wavelength in meters

c = velocity=1.5m/s

f = Frequency=0.45

λ = 1.5/0.45

=3.33m.

Answer:

A: Alpha decay.

Explanation:

The transmutation of ²³⁸U is a nuclear reaction that yields ²³⁴Th and an alpha particle.

Now, Alpha decay is a radioactive decay whereby an atomic nucleus emits an alpha particle which then changes into an atom with a mass number that is decreased by four and atomic number decreased by 2.

In this case, mass number is reduced from 238 to 234. Thus, it's an alpha decay.

Answer:

The maximum height above its initial position is:

[tex]h_{max}=1.53\: m[/tex]

Explanation:

Using momentum conservation:

[tex]m_{b}v_{ib}=m_{B}v_{fB}+m_{b}v_{fb}[/tex] (1)

Where:

Let's find v(fb) using equation (1)

[tex]m_{b}(v_{ib}-v_{fb})=m_{B}v_{fB}[/tex]

[tex]v_{fB}=\frac{m_{b}(v_{ib}-v_{fb})}{m_{B}}[/tex]

[tex]v_{fB}=\frac{0.1(900-300)}{2}[/tex]

[tex]v_{fB}=30\: m/s[/tex]

We need to find the maximum height, it means that all kinetic energy converts into gravitational potential energy.

[tex]\frac{1}{2}m_{B}v_{fB}=m_{B}gh_{max}[/tex]

[tex]h_{max}=\frac{1}{2g}v_{fB}[/tex]

[tex]h_{max}=\frac{1}{2(9.81)}30[/tex]

[tex]h_{max}=1.53\: m[/tex]

I hope it helps you!

The maximum height above its initial position is:  [tex]h_{max}[/tex]=1.53m

Simple harmonic motion is the periodic motion or back and forth motion of any object with respect to its equilibrium or mean position. The restoring force is always acting on the object which try to bring it to the equilibrium.

Using momentum conservation:

[tex]m_bv_{1b}=m_Bv_{fB}+m_bv_{fb}[/tex]

Where:

m(b) is the mass of the bullet

m(B) is the mass of the block

v(ib) is the initial velocity of the bullet

v(fb) is the final velocity of the bullet

v(fB) is the final velocity of the block

Now for finding the value of final velocity VfB

[tex]m_b(v_{1b}-v_{fb})=m_Bv_{fB}[/tex]

[tex]v_{fB}=\dfrac{m_b(v_{1b}-v_{fb})}{m_B}[/tex]

[tex]v_{fB}=\dfrac{0.1(900-{300})}{2}[/tex]

[tex]v_{fB}=30\ \frac{m}{s}[/tex]

We need to find the maximum height, it means that all kinetic energy converts into gravitational potential energy.

[tex]\dfrac{1}{2}m_Bv_{fB}=m_Bv_{fB}[/tex]

[tex]h_{max}=\dfrac{v_{fB}}{2g}[/tex]

[tex]h_{max}=\dfrac{30}{2\times 9.81}[/tex]

[tex]h_{max}=1.53\ m[/tex]

Thus the maximum height above its initial position is:  [tex]h_{max}[/tex]=1.53m

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Answer:

trial and error.

Explanation:

a problem solving method that involves trying all possible solutions until one works is using trail and error.

(a) The velocity is "6.2 m/s".

(b) The average force is "800.83 N".

According to the question,

Force,

Deflection,

           = [tex]1.2\times 10^{-2} \ m[/tex]

As we know,

The work done,

→ [tex]W = F\times d[/tex]

       [tex]= 800\times 1.2\times 10^{-2}[/tex]

       [tex]= 9.6 \ J[/tex]

(a)

Given:

Mass of hand,

Now,

→ [tex]\frac{1}{2} mv^2 = 9.6 \ J[/tex]

         [tex]v = \sqrt{\frac{2\times 9.6}{0.50} }[/tex]

            [tex]= 6.2 \ m/s[/tex]

(b)

→ [tex]v^2 = u^2 +2ax[/tex]

→ [tex]a= \frac{v^2}{2x}[/tex]

     [tex]= \frac{(6.2)^2}{2\times 1.2\times 10^{-2}}[/tex]

     [tex]= 1601.67 \ m/s^2[/tex]

hence,

The average force will be:

→ [tex]F_{avg} = m\times a[/tex]

           [tex]= 0.50\times 1601.67[/tex]

           [tex]= 800.83 \ N[/tex]

Thus the above answers are correct.

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Answer:

Pressure of water = Voltage

Flow rate of water = Current

Obstructions present in the river = Resistance

Explanation:

We can describe Ohm's Law by using the river analogy,

Answer:

zhvshshisvdiscdoscd if vdidg

Answer:

250w

Explanation:

W=Fd

W= 250 x 4= 1000J

P=E/t=1000/4s=250w

Answer:

K.E. = ½ × mv²

= ½ × 120 × (2.5)²

= 60 × 6.25

= 375 J

Answer:

Cumulus, Stratus, and Cirrus. There are three main cloud types.

Explanation:

hopes it help^_^

Answer:

The speed of the waves is __6__ m/s.​

Explanation:

Given

Total number of vibrations = 90

Total time taken for 90 vibrations = 60 seconds

Frequency of the wave = 90/60 = 1.5 Hz

The length of the rope as shown in the attached figure is 6 meters

The  wavelength = 6/1.5 = 4.0 meters.

As we know

v=f*w

v = velocity

f = frequency

w = wavelength

Substituting the given values we get -

speed = 6.0 m/s

The speed of the waves obtained is 6 m/s

f = n/t

f = 90 / 60

f = 1.5 Hz

How to determine the velocity

v = λf

v = 4 × 1.5

v = 6 m/s

Complete question

See attached photo

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Answer:

Final speed after 2 seconds = 34.6 m/s

Explanation:

Given:

Initial speed of coin (u) = 15 m/s

Time taken = 2 seconds

Find:

Final speed after 2 seconds

Computation:

Gravitational acceleration of earth = 9.8 m/s²

Using first equation of motion;

v = u + at

or

v = u + gt

where,

v = final velocity

u = initial velocity

g = Gravitational acceleration

t = time taken

v = 15 + 9.8(2)

v = 15 + 19.6

Final speed after 2 seconds = 34.6 m/s

Hi there!

[tex]\large\boxed{PE = 7.35 J, \text{ }v \approx 3.13 m/s}[/tex]

To find the potential energy of the ball at B, we can use the equation:

PE = mgh

Plug the given gravity, mass, and height:

PE = (1.5)(0.5)(9.8) = 7.35 J

At A, all of this potential energy is changed to kinetic energy, so we can use the following equation:

v = √2KE/m

Plug in the solved for energy and mass:

v = √2(7.35)/1.5

Solve:

v ≈ 3.13 m/s

Answer:

Option B

Explanation:

Forces acting on the skier-

F1 [tex]= -mg sin(30)[/tex] down the slope  

F2 [tex]= -mg cos(30)[/tex]

F3 = friction force  [tex]= 0.74 mg cos(30)[/tex]  

Net force, down the slope  

[tex]= -mg sin(30)+ 0.74 mg cos(30)\\= mg(.74 cos(30)-sin(30))\\= 0.14mg\\= 1.38m[/tex]

Acceleration [tex]= F/m= 1.38[/tex] m/s2  

Acceleration remains constant, initial speed is 20 m/s

Speed at time t is [tex]1.38t- 20[/tex] m/s

Distance down the slope at time t is [tex]0.69t^2- 20t[/tex]

When the skier stops, her speed is 0. Thus,  

, [tex]1.38t- 20= 0\\t= 20/1.38\\= 14.5[/tex] seconds

Distance travelled in 14.5 seconds [tex]= (0.69)(14.52- 20(14.5)= -145 m[/tex](negative because it is down the slope).

Option B is correct

Answer:

100kg

Explanation:

100kg=100kg

:P

Answer: 50 because thats the mass weight

Explanation: Its the obviouse answer.

Answer: B) He has too many independent variables.

Explanation: Nothing in the experiment is a constant or being measured.

Answer:

principal stresses :б1 = 32.62mPa  б2 = 31.38mPa

Max Shear stress : 16.31 mPa

Orientation of max principle plane = 44.43°

Orientation of minimum principal plane = 134.43°

Explanation:

Given data:

Torque = 50 N-m

weight = 80 kgs

half of weight is subjected to each leg

radius of bone = 10 mm = 0.010 m

a) Determine the principal stresses and shear stress

first calculate the max shear stress ( this will occur in the outermost element

= 16T / π*d^3   where : T = 50 , d = 0.020 m

hence max shear stress = 32 mPa

next determine compressive stress

= ( 40*g)  / π/4*d^2 . where : d = 0.020 m , g = 9.81

hence compressive stress = 1.24 mPa

draw and calculate the radius of Mohr's circle

radius of Mohr's circle = 32.0060

Hence principal stresses = 32.0060 ± 0.62

б1 = 32.62mPa  

б2 = 31.38mPa

attached below is the remaining part of the solution

Answer:

b. inverse

Explanation:

[tex]E = \frac{V}{d} \\ d \: is \: the \: distance \\ [/tex]

Answer:

Use some Glue.. . . Aluminium is not magnetic, so your magnet can't sticl to aluminium without using Glue. You cannot get a magnet to stick to aluminum, no matter how hard you try. Aluminum is diamagnetic, which means it repels a magnetic field.

Explanation:

Hope It Help

brainliest please

Answer:

1) The angle of deflection will be less than 45° ( C )

2)  The angle of deflection will be greater than 45° but less than 90° ( E )

Explanation:

1) Assuming that the force applied  has a direction which is perpendicular to the Earth's magnetic field

∴ Fearth > Fapplied   hence the angle of deflection will be < 45°

2) when the Fearth < Fapplied

the angle of deflection will be :   > 45°  but  < 90°

Answer:

Wind is a renewable energy source. Overall, using wind to produce energy has fewer effects on the environment than many other energy sources. Wind turbines do not release emissions that can pollute the air or water (with rare exceptions), and they do not require water for cooling.

Explanation:

Frequency, is defined as the rate of rotation, or the number of rotations in some unit of time. Angular frequency, , is the rotation rate measured in radians. These three quantities are related by f = 1 T = ω 2 π .

The frequency is the number of oscillation per unit time and it is used for defining the cyclic process like rotation, oscillation, wave etc.

The SI unit of the frequency is denoted as Hertz and the symbol λ represents it where one hertz means the wave completed one cycle in one second.

The frequency which explains the phenomenon of oscillatory and vibration like the mechanical vibration, sound signals, light, frequency waves etc. The  “period” represented as the time required by the wave for one oscillation, i.e., it is inversely proportional to the frequency.

If the flashes, then the period is the time between the two flashes. And the frequency is the total number of flashes per second.

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#SPJ2

Seasonal change in the angle of sunlight, caused by the tilt of the Earth's axis, is the basic mechanism that results both in warmth of the weather and in length of the day.

Explanation:

F = ma is the formula of Newton's Second Law of Motion. Newton's Second Law of Motion is defined as Force is equal to the rate of change of momentum. For a constant mass, force equals mass times acceleration.

...

Answer:

Banks and financial.

Business.

Communication.

Defense and military.

Education.

Internet.

Medical.

Transportation.

etc..

Answer:

Super markets

Hospitals

Industries

Explanation:

In supermarket's computers helps them manage and organise data .

Answer:

I1 = ε/R1

I2 = ε/R2

I3 = ε/R3

Explanation:

From the image, we see that the resistors are connected in parallel. This means that the voltage passing through them is the same.

Now, formula for current is; I = V/R

In this case, V which is voltage is denoted by ε.

Thus;

I1 = ε/R1

I2 = ε/R2

I3 = ε/R3

Answer:

(a)  0.273 A

(b) 4.368 V

(c) 1.638 V

Explanation:

From the question,

(a) Applying ohm's law

V = IR'...................... Equation 1

Where V = Voltage of the battery, I = Current in each of the resistor, R' = Total resistance of the combined resistors

Since the Two resisstors are connected in series,

(i) The same current flows through both resistors

(ii) The total resistor (R') = R₁+R₂

Therefore,

V = (R₁+R₂)I

Make I the subject of the equation

I = V/(R₁+R₂)................. Equation 2

Given: V = 6 V, R₁ = 16 Ω, R₂ = 6 Ω

Substitute into equation 2

I = 6/(16+6)

I = 6/22

I = 0.273 A

(b) The potential difference across the first resisto

V₁ = IR₁...................... Equation 3

Given: I = 0.273 A, R₁ = 16 Ω

Substitute these values into equation 3

V₁ = 0.273(16)

V₁ = 4.368 V

(c) The Potential difference across the second resistor is

V₂ = IR₂.................... Equation 4

V₂ = 0.273×6

V₂ = 1.638 V