True new hiv infections declined since 2010 among newborns.
Since 2010, the number of new HIV infections among newborns has declined by 50%, due to increased access to antiretroviral treatments and prevention services that help reduce the number of women of reproductive age who become pregnant while living with HIV. These treatments and services help reduce vertical transmission of the virus, as well as reduce the overall number of women who are living with HIV. With access to these treatments, women and their partners can live longer and healthier lives, and the risk of passing on HIV to their newborns is significantly reduced. In addition, these treatments help reduce overall maternal mortality and morbidity.
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It is true that, Since 2010, fewer neonates have developed true new hiv infections.
Due to improved access to antiretroviral medications and services that help lower the proportion of women of reproductive age who fall pregnant while living with HIV, the number of new HIV infections among newborns has decreased by 50% since 2010.
Both the overall number of women living with HIV and the vertical transmission of the virus are reduced because to these therapies and services. Women and their partners can live longer, healthier lives with access to these therapies, and there is a considerably lower chance that they will infect their unborn children with HIV. Additionally, these therapies aid in lowering overall rates of maternal morbidity and mortality.
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what of the contraindications to the administration of misoprostol (cytotec) for treatment of a postpartum hemorrhage?
Hypersensitivity to prostaglandin is the contraindications to the administration of misoprostol (cytotec) for treatment of a postpartum hemorrhage.
In people who have previously experienced an allergic response or intolerance to prostaglandin, misoprostol is contraindicated. Regarding the negative consequences associated with misoprostol during pregnancy, those who are at danger for gastric ulcers as a result of NSAID use and are expecting baby should avoid using it.
A synthetic prostaglandin called misoprostol is used to deliver the baby, produce an abortion, treat postpartum haemorrhage brought on by insufficient uterine contraction, and diagnose and reduce stomach and duodenal ulcers. Misoprostol is given orally in order to prevent stomach ulcers.
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The appropriate magnification for a manual RBC cell count using a hemocytometer is which of the following?
A. 10X
B. 100X (Oil)
C. 40X (Dry)
D. 4X
When using a hemocytometer to manually count RBCs, the proper magnification is C) 40X. (Dry).
A microscope slide that has been specially created to allow cell counting is known as a hemocytometer. The middle of the slide has a sink, and a grid has been drawn around it. In the sink, a drop of a cell culture is put. The researcher uses the grid to manually count the number of cells in a particular area while examining the sample under a microscope. The sink has a predetermined depth. As a result, the concentration of the cells and the volume of the counted culture can both be determined.
Using a magnification of 40X allows us to see individual sells within the grid and count them distinctly as well. Each cell will appear clearly at high magnification as there is high contrast in image and cell appear larger in size as well.
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when a client expresses anxiety about an upcoming surgical procedure, which action would the nurse take first to help decrease anxiety?
Take the client's vital signs and ask questions about the source of the anxiety.
The nurse would begin by taking the client's vital signs and determining the source of the concern. When a client is anxious, it is usual for them to have a higher pulse rate, thus a comprehensive history and physical are not necessary. Although an anxiolytic or preoperative sleep aid may be beneficial, it should not be the nurse's first action.
Anxiety is characterised by feelings of fear, dread, and unease. It may cause you to sweat, feel agitated and anxious, and have a racing heart. You may have anxiety when confronted with a challenging situation at work, before taking a test, or before making an important choice.
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a person is developing shock resulting from an injury that has caused severe bleeding. which of the following would occur first? group of answer choices skin appearing pale. increased perspiration. increased breathing rate. increased heart rate.
A person's heart rate will increase if they are experiencing shock due to heavy bleeding from an accident. Hence, choice "d" increasing heart rate is right.
The heart rate is what?Adults typically have resting heart rates between 60 and 100 per minute. Better cardiac health and function are frequently indicated by a lower resting heart rate. A well-trained athlete, for instance, might have a typical resting heart rate that is close to 40 per minute.
An unhealthy heart rate is what?The body's cardiac problems are reflected in irregular heart rates and heart beats. This can occasionally be lethal if discovered and if untreated. conditions in which the heartbeat drops below 60 beats a minute or exceeds 120–140 beats per minute.
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the nurse is caring for a client who has been physically restrained due to extremely aggressive and violent behavior. while conducting the client assessment, which finding(s) will lead the nurse to remove with restraints temporarily? select all that apply.
While conducting the client assessment, Removing the restraints will facilitate blood supply will lead the nurse to remove with restraints temporarily.
When a patient is in restrains the position of the restrain should be checked how often?Before using restraints, the health care professional should be conversant with the restraining device. A five-person team is also ideal for restraining an aggressive patient. Each person will be in charge of one extremity, with the patient's head being supervised and positioned by the fifth person. Every 30 minutes, the nurse must review the restraints. Restraint reassessment and care include neurovascular assessment (circulation to hands, fingers, feet, and toes), skin assessment (bruising of restrained area), and addressing a patient's activities of daily life such as toileting, feeding, and drinking. These interventions must be properly documented on the patient's chart.
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Proper Central Service workflow is important to help ensure safety and appropriate processing of souled materials. Which of the follow illustrates the proper one-way flow?
A. Decontamination, Clean Processing, Sterile Storage
B. Clean Processing, Sterile Storage, Decontamination
C. Decontamination, Sterile Storage, Clean Processing
D. Sterile Storage, Decontamination, Sterile Processing
the nurse is providing care for an elderly client who has a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (peg) feeding tube and is receiving continuous feeding. which interventions should the nurse include when providing care?
The senior consumer has a higher chance of developing hyperglycemia than hypoglycemia. This is because some enteral feeding formulations have a high carb load.
Without diabetes, what causes hypoglycemia?The causes of low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) among non-diabetics include some drugs, excessive alcohol consumption, hypothyroidism, complications from weight-loss surgery, liver or renal issues, anorexia nervosa, pancreatic issues, and certain genetic abnormalities.
What results in hypoglycemia?Blood Sugar Low Reasons excessive insulin consumption inadequate carbohydrate intake in relation to insulin dosage. when you should take your insulin. physical activity frequency and duration.
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your bivad patient is awake and alert, with warm, dry skin and pink mucous membranes. he has called you because he had a persistent vad alarm, which resolved by replacing his external controller with a spare prior to your arrival. the cardiac monitor shows ventricular tachycardia. your next step should be to:
Ventricular tachycardia is seen on the heart monitor. An VAD Coordinator there at hospital should be contacted to receive further instructions.
What are the main causes of tachycardia?Tachycardia is frequently brought on by: diseases that affect the heart, such excessive blood pressure (hypertension). coronary artery diseases (atherosclerosis), cardiac disease, cardiac arrest, heart muscle illness (cardiomyopathy), malignancies, or infections that reduce the amount of blood that reaches the heart muscle.
What is tachycardia and how is it treated?Tachycardia is the term used to describe a heartbeat that is more than 100 beats per minute when at repose. It can start in your brain's superior or inferior valves and range in severity from minor to severe. Treatments available include taking medications, having an ablation procedure performed, and having an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) installed.
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the nurse is caring for a woman in the labor room. the primary health care provider prescribes an oxytocic medication for the woman to augment her labor. which finding indicates a need to discontinue the oxytocic medication?
Program for Perinatal Education. A guide for advanced midwives on labor and delivery. Prenatal Care. assisting both mother and her unborn child during labor.
Which nursing intervention should be given top priority for a pregnant patient with dystocia?nursing intervention should be given top priority while treating a pregnant client with dystocia Monitoring the heartbeat of the fetus is the most important nursing intervention for the a pregnant female with dystocia since fluctuations may indicate fetal distress.
Which procedure would the nurse carry out to increase security for a client in labor and a fetus with such a prolapsed cord?Put the customer in Trendelenburg's place. Justification: Prompt measures are made to reduce cord compression and boost fetal oxygenation when cord prolapse occurs. Positioning the mother with her hips lower.
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Extraoral film is used for ALL of the following projections EXCEPTone. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
a. Lateral jaw radiographs
b. Occlusal radiographs
c. Cephalometric radiographs
d. Panoramic radiographs
The extraoral film is used for Lateral jaw radiographs, Cephalometric radiographs, and Panoramic radiographs except one that is an option(b)i.e, Occlusal radiographs.
There are two main types of dental X-beams: intraoral (the X-ray film is inside the backtalk) and extraoral film. Extraoral radiography resources that two together the image indicator and the X-ray motor are established outside the patient's backtalk. The X-ray beginning and the countenance indicator should be joined in order to create the asked countenance character.
Occlusal X-rays are created to capture come to pass on inside the house or floor of the opening, which helps the dental surgeon visualize adequate denticle happening and installation. Panoramic radiography, also called panoramic x-ray, is a two-spatial (2-D) dental radioactivity test that captures the complete opening in an alone representation, containing the dentition, upper and lower jaws, encircling forms, and tissues.
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many laws address patient privacy and confidentiality. what other resources address the provider's responsibility for keeping health information private?
The professional code of ethics will address the provider's responsibility to keep health information private.
HIPAA Security Rule. The HIPAA Privacy Rule protects PHI, while the Security Rule protects a subset of the information covered by the Privacy Rule. This subset includes all personally identifiable health information that an affected entity creates, receives, maintains, or transmits in electronic form. Federal law, the Privacy Regulation, gives you rights to your health information and sets rules and restrictions on who can view and receive your health information. The Privacy Rule applies to all types of health information protected from individuals, whether electronic, written or oral. HIPAA security rules require three types of safeguards: management, physics, and technology.
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a client with cholecystitis is placed on a low-fat, high-protein diet. which nutrient would the nurse teach the client to include in this diet? quizle
An individual with cholecystitis is put on a low-fat, high-protein diet and is advised to drink skim milk.
One tablespoon (15 mL) of fats and oils per meal, such as butter, margarine, mayonnaise, and salad dressing, is the maximum. Consume low amounts of high-fat foods like chocolate, whole milk, ice cream, processed cheese, and egg yolks. Every day, consume yoghurt, cheese, nonfat or low-fat milk, or other milk products. Cheeses should have less than 5 grammes of fat per ounce, so check the labels. Try yoghurt, cream cheese, or sour cream without added fat. Don't eat pasta with cream sauces or cream soups.
Bile can build up and result in cholecystitis if something prevents the gallbladder from emptying. Foods high in fat should be avoided if you have cholecystitis. Fried foods, canned fish, processed meats, full-fat dairy products, baked goods, fast food, and the majority of packaged snack foods fall under this category.
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the medical term for the study of the stomach and intestines is . a. gastroenterology b. entergastrology c. gastrology d. oncology
Option a. gastroenterology is the medical term for the study of the stomach and intestines.
The medical specialty known as gastroenterology is dedicated to treating problems with the digestive system. Gastroenterologists, or GI doctors occasionally, are medical professionals who focus on the field of gastroenterology. Gastroenterologists often treat gastrointestinal bleeding, irritable bowel syndrome, peptic ulcer disease, biliary tract illness, pancreatitis, colon polyps, dietary issues, and many other disorders.
The digestive system includes the gastrointestinal tract (oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, and anus), as well as the pancreas, liver, bile ducts, and gallbladder. A gastroenterologist is a professional with knowledge of the diseases that affect the digestive system.
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the nurse provides instructions to a client with rheumatoid arthritis about joint exercises that are important to prevent deformity and reduce pain. which statement by the client indicates the need for further instruction?
The nurse counsels a patient having rheumatoid on joint exercises that really are essential for avoiding deformity and minimizing pain. Which customer testimonial supports the
What is the source of pain?
Pain is an unpleasant feeling that is typically triggered by powerful or damaging stimuli. A World Association for the Research of Hurt defines pain as "a unpleasant emotional and sensory induced equal equal, and approaching, those connected with actual or possible cellular damage."
What physiologically produces pain?
physiology of pain. Although some pain is objective, the majority has a physiological basis and is connected to tissue damage. However, not all tissues respond to harm in the same manner. For instance, despite the fact that skin may burn,
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what is a good reason not to use distracters when administering maxillary facial anesthesia? group of answer choices the clinician needs her fingers for retraction of the upper lip. pulpal anesthesia may be blocked. movement may cause the anesthetic not to be placed at the target area. all options listed.
The use of distractors during the administration of maxillofacial anesthesia should be avoided since movement may result in the anesthetic not being applied to the intended location.
The most crucial method of pain control in oral and maxillofacial surgery is local anesthetic (LA). Safe and efficient LA not only allows patients to receive high-quality care, but also helps patients feel less anxious when they visit the clinic. The success of LA is greatly influenced by the selection of local anesthetic and injection techniques. Common local anesthetics used in oral and maxillofacial surgery currently belong to the class of amides and are injected into patients' bodies mostly through block or infiltration anesthesia. Additionally, the level of technique used by the operators, the patient's subjective psychology, and anatomical variations in the craniofacial structure all significantly affect LA in dental clinics.
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the nurse should carefully screen a client who insists on using only oral contraceptive pills (ocps) for which contraindication?
Oral contraceptive pills can cause a variety of side effects, including high blood pressure, headaches, nausea, and a risk of clots and stroke.
Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are a commonly used form of contraception, but they can also cause a variety of side effects. They can increase blood pressure and can cause headaches, nausea, and breast tenderness. There is also a risk of blood clots and stroke, so it is important for the nurse to carefully screen a client who insists on using this form of contraception. Contraindications to using OCPs include smoking or a history of blood clots, high blood pressure, or certain medical conditions, such as diabetes or depression. Furthermore, OCPs can also interact with certain medications and herbal remedies, so it is important to ask the client about their medical history and any current medications they are taking before beginning the medication.
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High blood pressure, migraines, nausea, blood clot risk, and stroke are just a few of the negative effects that oral contraceptives might have.
Despite being a widely used method of contraception, oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) have a number of potential negative effects. In addition to raising blood pressure, they can also result in headaches, dizziness, and sore breasts.
The nurse must carefully examine a client who insists on using this method of contraception because there is a risk of blood clots and stroke as well. Smoking, a history of blood clots, high blood pressure, or certain medical disorders, such as diabetes or depression, are also reasons to avoid using OCPs.
Before starting the medicine, it's vital to question the client about their medical history and any current medications they're taking because OCPs can also interfere with some prescription drugs and herbal supplements.
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select a health care setting other than a hospital. what would you expect the similarities to be between the role of the health information manager in a hospital and in one of the other health care settings? what would you expect the differences to be?
The responsibility of the health information manager in a hospital or other place of healthcare is Self-Contained Ambulatory Care
What is Ambulatory care?
Ambulatory care, also known as outpatient care, is medical care delivered on an outpatient basis and includes services for diagnosis, observation, consultation, treatment, intervention, and rehabilitation. Even when delivered outside of hospitals, this treatment may involve cutting-edge medical equipment and techniques.The term "ambulatory care sensitive conditions" (ACSC) refers to medical illnesses like diabetes or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease when getting the right ambulatory treatment might delay or eliminate the requirement for hospitalization (or inpatient care).Numerous medical investigations, treatments, and preventative care can be carried out on an outpatient basis, including minor surgical and medical operations, the majority of dental services, dermatology services, and many types of diagnostic procedures.To learn more about Ambulatory care refer to:
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a 20-year-old client seen in the emergency department reports frequent 'skipped heart beats, and the nurse notes frequent premature ventricular complexes (pvcs) on the cardiac monitor. which action would the nurse take first?
PVCs in 20-year-olds are frequently caused by the use of stimulants, such as methamphetamine or caffeine-containing drinks. PVCs may lead to ventricular tachycardia.
What is the origin of methamphetamine?This drug is used to treat ADHD, or attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. It functions by altering the quantities of particular chemical compounds in the brain. Methamphetamine is a member of the stimulant drug category.
Which substance do athletes use?Stimulants. In order to combat exhaustion and improve alertness, athletes may utilize stimulants, which quicken the central nervous system. Along with nicotine and caffeine, they also include amphetamines, cocaine, ecstasy, and methylphenidate (Ritalin).
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which parental behavior indicates to the nurse that additional teaching about gastrostomy button care is needed?
Parents not being able to demonstrate proper gastrostomy button care techniques indicates to the nurse that additional teaching is needed.
Parents not being able to demonstrate proper gastrostomy button care techniques, such as cleaning the button and changing the dressing, indicates to the nurse that additional teaching is needed. The nurse should assess the family's understanding of the procedure and the child's condition before proceeding with teaching the family about gastrostomy button care. It is important for the nurse to explain the details of the procedure, its potential risks and benefits, and how to properly care for the button. Additionally, the nurse should assess the family's ability to take on the responsibility of caring for the child. If the nurse believes that the family is unable to provide the necessary care for the child, they should refer the family to a social worker for assistance. With the right guidance and education, the family will be able to provide the necessary care for the child with a gastrostomy button.
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a new nurse employed at a community hospital is reading the organization's mission statement. the new nurse understands that this statement:
The new nurse realises that this statement summarizes the organization plans to accomplish
Patients who already have autonomy are able to make their own decisions. This implies that nurses must ensure that patients have all of the information they need to make an informed decision regarding their medical treatment. The nurses have no influence on the patient's decision. In terms of medical competence, nurses should deliver treatment that prevents or reduces danger. This attitude would prevent a nurse from delivering negligent care to a patient.
A nurse showing this philosophy would avoid providing negligent treatment to a patient. The Code applies to all sorts of nurses, including researchers, managers, staff nurses, or public health nurses. At times, nurses may need to handle ethical dilemmas as a team, as the most difficult decisions should not be taken by a single individual.
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while dealing with her flu symptoms at home, the woman was careful to drink large amounts of water. how would this effect her fluid and electrolyte balance?
If the body has too much or not enough water, it may develop an electrolyte imbalance. Electrolytes are minerals that are present in all parts of the body, including the blood and tissues. The electrical charge they carry is implied by their name.
The body needs electrolytes, which are minerals, to: the water is evenly distributed, carry nutrients into cells and remove waste, enabling neurons to communicate will help muscles to efficiently relax and contract, maintain the heart and the brain working
Humans consume electrolytes in their diet and beverages. The preservation of electrolyte balance is assisted by the liver and kidneys. If a person eats a variety of foods and drinks enough water, electrolytes frequently remain at the proper amounts.
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a nurse caring for a client is articulating the steps for carrying out nursing activities that will assist in achieving client goals. the nurse is in which phase of the nursing process?
A nurse giving client care will describe how to carry out nursing tasks that will help the client achieve their goals. The nursing process is in the planning phase for the nurse.
The planning stage is where goals and outcomes are planned that straightforwardly impact patient care and established EDP guidelines. These patient-specific aims and the accomplishment of the aforementioned assist in guaranteeing a positive consequence. Nursing process care plans are essential in this place stage of aim setting.
During the planning phase of the feeding process, the nurse demonstrates arrangement, identifies and drafts wonted client outcomes, selects evidence-based nursing interventions, and communicates the plan of fostering care. The suckling process involves five steps: amount, disease, preparation, exercise, and evaluation.
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a 4-year-old child weighing 33 1b (15 kg) has a prescription to receive 100 ml/kg per 24 hours for the first 10 kg and then 50 ml/kg per 24 hours for the next 10 kg. which parental statement would the nurse recognize as correctly reflecting the child's recommended daily fluid intake?
The parental statement that nurse would identify as correctly reflecting child`s recommended daily fluid intake is "Ten 4-oz (120-mL) servings is required.
Why do need fluid intake ?Drinking enough water every day is very important for many reasons: It regulates body temperature, keeps joints lubricated, fights infections, nourishes cells and maintains organ function. Staying hydrated also improves sleep quality, cognition, and mood.
How much liquid should be drink per day?The American Academy of Medicine suggests daily fluid intake to be adequate for healthy men and women at about 13 and 9 cups, respectively. 1 cup is 8 ounces. People who are physically active or exposed to very warm weather may need more fluid. The recommended total daily fluid intake is 3,000 ml for men and 2,200 ml for women. Increasing fluid intake has no compelling health benefits, except perhaps to prevent (recurring) kidney stones.
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which response would the nurse provide to a perimenopausal woman who asks about complementary treatment options for hot flashes?
Take estrogens is the response that the nurse would provide to a perimenopausal woman who asks about complementary treatment options for hot flashes.
Taking estrogen is the safest and most efficient way to ease the discomfort of hot flashes, but doing so has hazards. The advantages may outweigh the hazards if oestrogen is prescribed for you and you begin taking it within ten years of your last period or before the age of 60.
The abrupt sensation of warmth in the upper body known as a hot flash is typically most acute across the face, and chest. You might blush as your skin turns red. Sweating might also result from it. You could become chilly if you shed quite so much body heat.
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the nurse is planning to assess the client's thyroid gland. to facilitate palpation, the nurse should ask the client should to:
To facilitate palpation, the nurse should ask the client to turn the neck just a little bit to the right and bring the chin to the chest.
The subject may be evaluated while sitting or standing. Try to feel the thyroid isthmus between both the suprasternal notch and the cricoid cartilage. While doing the palpation the thyroid with the other hand, slightly retract the sternocleidomastoid muscle with the first.
A crucial hormone gland, the thyroid gland is vital for the progress, maturation, and maintenance of the human body. By continuously releasing a regular amount of thyroid hormones into the bloodstream, it aids in the regulation of numerous bodily processes.
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the nurse is planning a dietary menu for a client with heart failure who is being treated with digoxin and furosemide. which would be the best dinner choice from the daily menu?
2–3 pound weight increase in a short period of time Prior to giving the patient a diuretic like furosemide, the nurse evaluates the patient's potassium level according to recent lab test findings.
Which posture does the nurse put the patient in before a pericardiocentesis?A semirecumbent position with the patient at a 30- to 45-degree tilt is ideal. The anterior chest wall and the heart are more closely aligned in this configuration.
Where should a nurse position a patient who has coronary artery disease (CAD)?If possible, ask the patient to bend forward or place them so they are lying on their left side. When auscultating the heart sounds, it's typical to hear lung noises.
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what independent nursing interventions should the nurse include when planning care for a client who is in a fluid volume excess (fve)?
The independent nursing interventions which the nurse should include when planning care for a client who is in a fluid volume excess (FVE) are monitor for orthopnea, and elevate edematous extremities.
Edema is an engorgement of fluid in your bodily tissues that results in swelling. Body positioning: Leg, ankle, and foot edoema can be reduced by lifting the legs three or four times daily for a total of 30 minutes above heart level. For those with minor venous illness, elevating the legs may be sufficient to minimise or eradicate edoema, but more serious instances necessitate further interventions.
When you are lying down, you may get orthopnea, which is eased by sitting up or standing up. A feeling of shortness of breath that causes the person to wake up, frequently after one or two hours of sleep, is known as paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND), and it is typically resolved when the patient is upright.
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A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide twice daily. The nurse should include which of the following instructions in the teaching? 1. Take the second dose at bedtime 2. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods. 3. Obtain your weight weekly. 4. Monitor for muscle weakness. 5. Dangle your legs from the side of the bed before standing.
Correct answer is option (2). Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
The nurse need to inform that "they need go drink mil with each dose of medicine" To lessen gastric irritation, the patient should take furosemide with food or milk.
Additional information: -Due to fluid loss brought on by furosemide's diuretic effect, the patient taking the drug is at an increased risk of hypotension.
-Furosemide has a diuretic effect that causes potassium to be excreted through the kidneys, which puts the patient at an increased risk for potassium loss. The client needs to eat more foods high in potassium.
-To prevent nocturia-related sleep disturbances, the client should take each dose of medication in the morning.
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The above question is incomplete. Check below the complete question -
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide twice daily. The nurse should include which of the following instructions in the teaching?
1. Take the second dose at bedtime
2. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
3. Obtain your weight weekly.
4. Monitor for muscle weakness.
5. Dangle your legs from the side of the bed before standing.
the nurse reviews the medical reports of four clients. which client may have secondary | dysmenorrhea?
Clients who may have secondary dysmenorrhea are clients who have a history of uterine cysts or polyps.
What is dysmenorrhea?Dysmenorrhea is a term used to describe complaints of painful cramps that generally appear during menstruation or menstruation. Dysmenorrhea is one of the most common problems related to menstruation.
Women who experience primary dysmenorrhea have abnormal uterine contractions. This is due to chemical imbalances in the body. For example, prostaglandin chemicals control uterine contractions.
Meanwhile, secondary dysmenorrhea is caused by other medical conditions, for example, such as endometriosis, uterine cysts, or polyps. To diagnose dysmenorrhea, the doctor will evaluate your medical history and perform several complete physical and pelvic examinations.
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A type of shock that includes brain trauma that results in depression of the vasomotor center is cardiogenic.
a. True
b. False
A type of shock that involves brain trauma leading to depression of the vasomotor center is cardiogenic is b) a false statement
Cardiogenic shock occurs when the heart cannot pump the amount of blood the body needs. Even if you don't have a heart attack, it can also occur if any of these problems occur and heart function suddenly declines. Cardiogenic shock is a type of circulatory shock resulting from severe impairment of ventricular pump function rather than vascular or volume abnormalities. Cardiogenic shock has four stages.
Early, compensatory, progressive, refractory. In the early stages, there is a decrease in cardiac output without clinical symptoms.
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