Two protons are released from rest, with only the electrostatic force acting. Which of the following statements must be true about them as they move apart? (There could be more than one correct choice.)a. Their electrical potential energy keeps decreasing.b. Their acceleration keeps decreasing.c. Their kinetic energy keeps increasing.d. Their kinetic energy keeps decreasing.e. Their electric potential energy keeps increasing.

Answer:

Explanation:

area of the coil  A = .08 x .08 = 64 x 10⁻⁴ m ²

flux through the coil Φ = area of coil x no of turns x magnetic field

= 64 x 10⁻⁴ x 50 x B where B is magnetic field

emf induced = dΦ / dt = ( 64 x 10⁻⁴ x 50 x B - 0 ) / .2

= 1.6 B

current induced = emf induced / resistance

12 x 10⁻³ = 1.6 B / 15

B = 112.5 x 10⁻³ T .

Answer:

2.9Ω

Explanation:

Resistors are said to be in parallel when they are arranged side by side such that their corresponding ends are joined together at two common junctions. The combined resistance in such arrangement of resistors is given by;

1/Req= 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 .........+ 1/Rn

Where;

Req refers to the equivalent resistance and R1, R2, R3 .......Rn refers to resistance of individual resistors connected in parallel.

Note that;

R1= 6.0Ω

R2 = 9.0Ω

R3= 15.0 Ω

Therefore;

1/Req = 1/6 + 1/9 + 1/15

1/Req= 0.167 + 0.11 + 0.067

1/Req= 0.344

Req= (0.344)^-1

Req= 2.9Ω

The equivalent resistance of this combination of resistors is 2.9Ω.

The combined resistance in such arrangement of resistors is provided by;

1/Req= 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 .........+ 1/Rn

here.

Req means  the equivalent resistance and R1, R2, R3

.Rn means the resistance of individual resistors interlinked in parallel.

Also,

R1= 6.0Ω

R2 = 9.0Ω

R3= 15.0 Ω

So,

1/Req = 1/6 + 1/9 + 1/15

1/Req= 0.167 + 0.11 + 0.067

1/Req= 0.344

Req= (0.344)^-1

Req= 2.9Ω

learn more about resistance here: https://brainly.com/question/15047345

Explanation:

It is given that,

Speed of bus 1 is 36 km/h and speed of bus 2 is 108 km/h. We need to find the distance between bus 1 and 2 after 20 minutes.

Time = 20 minutes = [tex]\dfrac{20}{60}\ h=\dfrac{1}{3}\ h[/tex]

As the buses are moving in opposite direction, then the concept of relative velocity is used. So,

Distance, [tex]d=v\times t[/tex]

v is relative velocity, v = 108 + 36 = 144 km/h

So,

[tex]d=144\ km/h \times \dfrac{1}{3}\ h\\\\d=48\ km[/tex]

So, the distance between them is 48 km after 20 minutes.

Answer:

The Independent variable in this experiment is the time taken by the ball to roll down each distance.

The dependent variable is the distance  through which the ball rolls

The control variables are: slope of hill, weight, of the ball, size of ball, wind speed, surface characteristics of the ball.

Explanation:

The complete question is

Jane is collecting data for a ball rolling down a hill. She measures out a set of different distances and then proceeds to use a stop watch to find the time it takes the ball to roll. What are the independent, dependent, and control variables in this experiment?

Independent variable have their values not dependent on any other variable in the scope of the experiment. The time for the ball to roll down the hill is not dependent on any other variable in the experiment. Naturally, some common independent variables are time, space, density, mass, fluid flow rate.

A dependent variable has its value dependent on the independent variable in the experiment. The value of the distance the ball rolls depends on the time it takes to roll down the hill.

The relationship between the dependent and independent variables in an experiment is given as

y = f(x)

where y is the output or the dependent variable,

and x is the independent variable.

Control variables are those variable that if not held constant could greatly affect the results of an experiment. For an experiment to be more accurate, control variables should be confined to a given set of value throughout the experiment.

Answer:

Explanation:

The greatest speed is attained at middle point or equilibrium point or where displacement from equilibrium point is zero .

When the object remains at one of the extreme point it experiences greatest acceleration but at that point velocity is zero . Due to acceleration , its velocity goes on increasing till it come to equilibrium point . At this point acceleration becomes zero . After that its velocity starts decreasing because of negative acceleration . Hence at middle point velocity is maximum .

The greatest acceleration is attained at maximum displacement or at one of the two extreme end .

Greatest restoring force too will be at position where acceleration is maximum because acceleration is produced by restoring force .

Restoring force is proportional to displacement or extension against restoring force . So it will be maximum when displacement is maximum .

Zero restoring force exists at equilibrium position or middle point or at point where displacement is zero . It is so because acceleration at that point is zero .

Answer:

New location at time 3.01 is given by: (7.49, 2.11)

Explanation:

Let's start by understanding what is the particle's velocity (in component form) in that velocity field at time 3:

[tex]V_x=x^2=7^2=49\\V_y=x+y^2=7+2^2=11[/tex]

With such velocities in the x direction and in the y-direction respectively, we can find the displacement in x and y at a time 0.01 units later by using the formula:

[tex]distance=v\,*\, t[/tex]

[tex]distance_x=49\,(0.01)=0.49\\distance_y=11\,(0.01)=0.11[/tex]

Therefore, adding these displacements in component form to the original particle's position, we get:

New position: (7 + 0.49, 2 + 0.11) = (7.49, 2.11)

Answer:

[tex]3.1\times 10^{5}m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

The computation of the speed does the proton gain is shown below:

The potential difference is the difference that reflects the work done as per the unit charged

So, the work done should be

= Potential difference × Charge

Given that

Charge on a proton is

= 1.6 × 10^-19 C

Potential difference = 500 V

[tex]v= \sqrt{\frac{2.q.\Delta V}{m_{p}}} \\\\\\= \sqrt{\frac{2\times 1.6\times 10^{-19}\times 5\times 10^{2}}{1.67\times 10^{-27}}}[/tex]

[tex]v= \sqrt{9.58\times 10^{10}}m/s \\\\= 3.095\times 10^{5}m/s\\\\\approx 3.1\times 10^{5}m/s[/tex]

Simply we applied the above formulas

Answer:

Mb²/2

Explanation:

Pls see attached file

Answer:

The induced  emf is  [tex]\epsilon =7.68 \ V[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The number of turns is  [tex]N = 1300 \ turns[/tex]

    The diameter is  [tex]d = 2.2 \ cm = 2.2*10^{-2}[/tex]

     The initial magnetic field is  [tex]B_i = 0.14 \ T[/tex]

      The final magnetic field is  [tex]B_f = 0 \ T[/tex]

      The  time taken is  [tex]dt = 9.0ms = 9.0*10^{-3} \ s[/tex]

The radius is mathematically evaluated as

      [tex]r = \frac{d}{2 }[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]r = \frac{2.2 *10^{-2}}{2 }[/tex]

     [tex]r = 1.1*10^{-2} \ m[/tex]

The induced emf is mathematically represented as

    [tex]\epsilon =- N * \frac{d\phi }{dt }[/tex]

Where  [tex]d\phi[/tex] is the change in magnetic field which is mathematically represented as

        [tex]d\phi = dB * A * cos\theta[/tex]

=>   [tex]d\phi = [B_f - B_i ] * A * cos\theta[/tex]

Here  [tex]\theta = 0[/tex] given that the axis of the coil is parallel to the field

Also A is the cross-sectional area which is mathematically represented as

       [tex]A = \pi r^2[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]A = 3.142 * [1.1*10^{-2}]^2[/tex]

       [tex]A = 3.8 *10^{-4] \ m^2[/tex]

So

    [tex]d\phi = [0 - 0.14 ] * 3.8*10^{-4}[/tex]

    [tex]d\phi = -5.32*10^{-5} \ weber[/tex]

So  

     [tex]\epsilon =- 1300 * \frac{-5.32*10^{-5} }{ 9.0*10^{-3} }[/tex]

    [tex]\epsilon =7.68 \ V[/tex]

Answer:

Your answer is( D) - Arago

Answer:

The rate at which the magnetic field changes is  [tex]\frac{\Delta B }{\Delta t } = - 5.33*10^{-3} \ T/ s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  electric field strength is [tex]E = 4.0 mV/m = 4.0 *10^{-3} V/m[/tex]

   The  radius of the  circular region where the electric field is induced is

   [tex]d = 1.5 \ m[/tex]

Generally the induced electric field is mathematically represented as

     [tex]E = - \frac{r}{2} * \frac{\Delta B }{\Delta t }[/tex]

The  negative sign show that the induced electric field is acting in opposite direction to the change in magnetic field

Where  [tex]\frac{\Delta B }{\Delta t }[/tex] is the change in magnetic field

So  

       [tex]\frac{\Delta B }{\Delta t } = - \frac{2 * E }{r}[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]\frac{\Delta B }{\Delta t } = - \frac{2 * 4.0 *10^{-3}}{ 1.5 }[/tex]

       [tex]\frac{\Delta B }{\Delta t } = - 5.33*10^{-3} \ T/ s[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

a )

This type of spectrum is called line emission spectrum . Because it consists of lines . It is emission spectrum because it is due to emission of radiation from a source .

b ) The wavelength of a photon  is inversely proportional to its energy .  Photon  due to transition between n = 1 and n = 3 will have higher energy than

that due to transition between n = 2 and n = 5 . So the later photon ( B)  will have greater wavelength or photon  due to transition between n = 2 and n = 5 will have greater wavelength .

Answer:

The bright fringes will appear much closer together

Explanation:

Because λn = λ/n ,

And the wavelength of light in water is smaller than the wavelength of light in air. Given that the distance between bright fringes is proportional to the wavelength

Answer:

C) 200 m/s

Explanation:

The sound travels a total distance of 360 m in 0.03 minutes.

v = (360 m) / (0.03 min × 60 s/min)

v = 200 m/s

Answer:

A field is a way of mapping forces surrounding any object that can act on another object at a distance without apparent physical connection. The field represents the object generating it. Gravitational fields map gravitational forces, electric fields map electrical forces, and magnetic fields map magnetic forces.

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

The rod will act as pendulum for small oscillation .

Time period of oscillation

[tex]T=2\pi\sqrt{\frac{l}{g} }[/tex]

angular frequency ω = 2π / T

= [tex]\omega=\sqrt{\frac{g}{l} }[/tex]

b )

ω = 20( given )

velocity = ω r = ω l

Let the maximum angular displacement in terms of degree be θ .

1/2 m v ² = mgl ( 1 - cosθ ) ,

[ l-lcosθ is loss of height . we have applied law of conservation of mechanical energy .]

.5 (  ω l )² = gl( 1 - cos θ )

.5 ω² l = g ( 1 - cosθ )

1 - cosθ  = .5 ω² l /g

cosθ = 1 - .5 ω² l /g

θ can be calculated , if value of l is given .

Answer:

a) 2.278 x 10^-5 volts

b) 1.139 x 10^-6 Ampere

c) 2.59 x 10^-11 W

Explanation:

The radius of the wire r = 2 mm = 0.002 m

the number of turns N = 200 turns

direction of the magnetic field ∅ = 25°

magnetic field strength B = 0.02 T

varying time = 2 sec

The cross sectional area of the wire = [tex]\pi r^{2}[/tex]

==> A = 3.142 x [tex]0.002^{2}[/tex] = 1.257 x 10^-5 m^2

Field flux Φ = BA cos ∅ = 0.02 x 1.257 x 10^-5 x cos 25°

==> Φ = 2.278 x 10^-7 Wb

The induced EMF is given as

E = NdΦ/dt

where dΦ/dt = (2.278 x 10^-7)/2 = 1.139 x 10^-7

E = 200 x 1.139 x 10^-7 = 2.278 x 10^-5 volts

b) If the two ends are connected to a resistor of 20 Ω, the current through the resistor is given as

[tex]I[/tex] = E/R

where R is the resistor

[tex]I[/tex] = (2.278 x 10^-5)/20 = 1.139 x 10^-6 Ampere

c) power delivered to the resistor is given as

P = [tex]I[/tex]E

P = (1.139 x 10^-6) x (2.278 x 10^-5) = 2.59 x 10^-11 W

Answer:

f = 500 x 10^12Hz

Explanation:

E=hc/wavelength

E=hf

hc/wavelength =hf

c/wavelength =f

f = 3 x 10^8 / 600 x 10^-9 = 500 x 10^12Hz

Answer:

Infrared telescope and camera

Explanation:

An infrared telescope uses infrared light to detect celestial bodies. The infrared radiation is one of the known forms of electromagnetic radiation. Infrared radiation is given off by a body possessing some form of heat. All bodies above the absolute zero temperature in the universe radiates some form of heat, which can then be detected by an infrared telescope, and infrared radiation can be used to study or look into a system that is void of detectable visible light.

Stars are celestial bodies that are constantly radiating heat. In order to see a clearer picture of the these bodies, Infrared images is better used, since they are able to penetrate the surrounding clouds of dust, and have located many more stellar components than any other types of telescope, especially in dusty regions of star clusters like the Trapezium cluster.

Answer:

1) on the surface you can see the slits with equal spacing, on the one hand and on the other hand it is smooth.

2)If the angle is zero we see a bright light called undispersed light

For different angles we see the colors of the spectrum

3) must be able to see the well-collimated light emission source

Explanation:

1) A diffraction grating (diffraction grating) is a surface on which a series of indentations are drawn evenly spaced.

These crevices or lines are formed by copying a standard metal net when the plastic is melted and after hardening is carefully removed, or if the nets used are a copy of the master net.

The network can be of two types of transmission or reflection, in teaching work the most common is the transmission network, on the surface you can see the slits with equal spacing, on the one hand and on the other hand it is smooth.

The number of lines per linear mm determines which range of the spectrum a common value can be observed to observe the range of viable light is 600 and 1200 lines per mm.

2) when looking through the diffraction grating what we can observe depends on the relative angle between the eye and the normal to the network.

If the angle is zero we see a bright light called undispersed light

For different angles we see the colors of the spectrum, if it is an incandescent lamp we see a continuum with all the colors in the visible range and if it is a gas lamp we see the characteristic emission lines of the gas.

3) Before mounting the grid on the spectrometer, we must be able to see the well-collimated light emission source, this means that it is clearly observed.

The spectrometers have several screws to be able to see the lamp clearly, this is of fundamental importance in optical experiments.

Answer:

The  frequency is  [tex]F = 325 Hz[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The frequency for the first note is  [tex]F_1 = 330 Hz[/tex]

     The  beat frequency of the first note is  [tex]f_b = 5 \ Hz[/tex]

     The  frequency for the second note is  [tex]F_2 = 350 \ H_z[/tex]

      The  beat frequency of the first note is [tex]f_a = 25 \ Hz[/tex]

Generally beat frequency is mathematically represented as

        [tex]F_{beat} = | F_a - F_b |[/tex]

Where [tex]F_a \ and \ F_b[/tex] are frequencies of two sound source

  Now in the case of this question

For the first note

     [tex]f_b = F_1 - F \ \ \ \ \ ...(1)[/tex]

Where  F is the frequency of the string note

For the second note  

      [tex]f_a = F_2 - F \ \ \ \ \ ...(2)[/tex]

Adding  equation 1 from 2

      [tex]f_b + f_a = F_1 + F_2 + ( - F) + (-F) )[/tex]

      [tex]f_b + f_a = F_1 + F_2 -2F[/tex]

substituting values

       [tex]5 +25 = 330 + 350 -2F[/tex]

=>     [tex]F = 325 Hz[/tex]

Answer:

B) the particle's momentum.

Explanation:

We know that

The centripetal force  on the particle when its moving in the radius R and velocity V

[tex]F_c=\dfrac{m\times V^2}{R}[/tex]

The magnetic force on the particle when the its moving with velocity V in the magnetic filed B and having charge q

[tex]F_m=q\times V\times B[/tex]

At the equilibrium condition

[tex]F_m=F_c[/tex]

[tex]q\times V\times B=\dfrac{m\times V^2}{R}[/tex]

[tex]R=\dfrac{m\times V}{q\times B}[/tex]

Momentum = m V

Therefore we can say that the radius of curvature is directly proportional to the particle momentum.

B) the particle's momentum.

Answer:

Explanation:

For this exercise we will use that the potential is created by the charge inside the equinoctial surface and just like in Gauss's law we can consider all the charge concentrated in the center.

Therefore the potential on the ferric surface is

        V = k Q / r

where k is the Coulomb constant, Q the charge of the sphere and r the distance from the center to the point of interest

a) On the surface the potential

        V = 9 10⁹ Q / 0.5

        V = 18 10⁹ Q

Unfortunately you did not write the value of the load, suppose a value to complete the calculations Q = 1 10⁻⁷ C, with this value the potential on the surfaces V = 1800 V

b) The equipotential surfaces are concentric spheres, let's look for the radii for some potentials

for V = 1300V let's find the radius

             r = k Q / V

             r = 9 109 1 10-7 / 1300

             r = 0.69 m

other values ​​are shown in the following table

V (V)      r (m)

1800     0.5

1300     0.69

 800      1,125

 300     3.0

In other words, we draw concentric spheres with these radii and each one has a potential difference of 500V

C) The spacing of the spheres corresponds to lines of radii of the electric field that have the shape

         E = k Q / r²

Answer:

8.33` m/s^2 and 8333.3 N

Explanation:

a) acceleration:

ā=v^2/r

ā=(15m/s)^2/27m

ā=225/27 m/s^2

ā=8.333 m/s^2

force:

F=mā. where the is equal to v^2/r

F=1000kg*8.3 m/s^2

F=8333.3 N

Answer:

8.33` m/s^2 and 8333.3 N

Explanation:

Answer:

Yes. Something similar occurs here on Earth.

Explanation:

Gravity tends to pull objects perpendicularly to the ground. In space, the absence of this force means there is no compression on the spine due to gravity trying to pull it down. This means that astronauts undergo an increase in height in space.

Here on Earth, we experience gravity pull on our spine during the day. At night when we sleep, we lie down with our spine parallel to the ground, which means that our spine is no longer under compression from gravity force. The result is that we are a few centimetres taller in the morning when we wake up, than we are before going to bed at night. The increase is not much pronounced here on Earth because there is a repeated cycle of compression and decompression of our spine due to gravity, unlike when compared to that of astronauts that spend long duration in space, all the while without gravity forces on their spine

Answer:

31.55° and 148.45°

Explanation:

Formula for calculating the force experiences by the proton placed in a magnetic field is as expressed below;

F = qvBsinθ where;

F is the magnetic force experienced by the proton

q is the charge on the proton

v is the velocity of the proton

B is the magnetic field

θ is the angle between the proton's velocity and the field (Required)

Given parameters

F =  7.00 * 10⁻¹³N

q = 1.602*10⁻¹⁹C

v = 4.80 * 10⁶ m/s

B = 1.74 T

θ  =?

From the formula F = qvBsinθ;

sinθ = F/qvB

sinθ = 7.00 * 10⁻¹³/1.602*10⁻¹⁹* 4.80 * 10⁶*1.74

sinθ =  7.00 * 10⁻¹³/13.38*10⁻¹³

sinθ = 0.5231689 * 10⁰

sinθ = 0.5231689

θ = sin⁻¹0.5231689

θ = 31.55°

The following are the positive values of the angle between 0° and 360°

Sin is positive in the first and second quadrant. In the second quadrant the angle is equal to 180°-31.55° = 148.45°.

Hence the possible values of the angle from smallest to largest are 31.55° and 148.45°

Answer:

t = 2.95 min

Explanation:

Given that,

The diameter of flywheeel, d = 1.5 m

Mass of flywheel, m = 250 kg

Initial angular velocity is 0

Final angular velocity, [tex]\omega_f=1200\ rpm = 126\ rad/s[/tex]

We need to find the time taken by the flywheel to each a speed of 1200 rpm if it starts from rest.

Firstly, we will find the angular acceleration of the flywheel.

The moment of inertia of the flywheel,

[tex]I=\dfrac{1}{2}mr^2\\\\I=\dfrac{1}{2}\times 250\times (0.75)^2\\\\I=70.31\ kg-m^2[/tex]

Now,

Let the torque is 50 N-m. So,

[tex]\alpha =\dfrac{\tau}{I}\\\\\alpha =\dfrac{50}{70.31}\\\\\alpha =0.711\ rad/s^2[/tex]

So,

[tex]t=\dfrac{\omega_f-\omega_i}{\alpha }\\\\t=\dfrac{126-0}{0.711}\\\\t=177.21\ s[/tex]

or

t = 2.95 min

Answer:

The wave is traveling in the y axis direction

Explanation:

Because the wave will always travel in a direction 90° to the magnetic and electric components

Answer:

Option A

Explanation:

Acceleration will be obviously zero when Force = 0

That is how:

Force = Mass * Acceleration

So, If force = 0

0 = Mass * Acceleration.

Dividing both sides by Mass

Acceleration = 0/Mass

Acceleration = 0 m/s²

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{\mathrm{A. \: It \: will \: be \: 0 \: meters \: per \: second \: per \: second. }}[/tex]

Explanation:

[tex]\mathrm{force=mass \times acceleration}[/tex]

The force is given 0 newtons.

[tex]\mathrm{force=0 \: N}[/tex]

Plug force as 0.

[tex]\mathrm{0=mass \times acceleration}[/tex]

Divide both sides by mass.

[tex]\mathrm{\frac{0}{mass} =acceleration}[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{0 =acceleration}[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{acceleration= 0\: m/s/s}[/tex]

Answer:

Using ohms law

The current is found from Ohm's Law.

I = V /R = E /R = Bxy /Rt.