what are the desired characteristics or values for the following parameters of an ideal amplifier? briefly justify your answers. o phase change as a function of the frequency o common mode rejection ratio o input resistance o output resistance

Answers

Answer 1

All the alternatives mentioned are correct, as regards the desired characteristics or values for the parameters of an ideal amplifier.

Here are the desired characteristics or values for the following parameters of an ideal amplifier:

A) Phase shift as a function of frequency: Ideally, an amplifier should have a phase shift of zero across the entire frequency spectrum. This means that the output signal is in phase with the input signal and there is no delay in the signal.

B) Common mode rejection ratio (CMRR): CMRR measures the ability of an amplifier to reject signals that are common to both inputs (such as noise). For an ideal amplifier, the CMRR should be infinite, meaning that it perfectly rejects common-mode signals.

C) Input resistance: An ideal amplifier should have an infinite input resistance. In other words, it should not load down the signal source, and the source should be able to supply the signal without any loss.

D) Output resistance: An ideal amplifier should have zero output resistance, meaning that its output voltage doesn't change regardless of the load connected to its output.

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Related Questions

assuming that the longest stage of 5-stage pipeline requires 0.6ns, and pipeline register delay is 0.1ns, calculate the clock cycle time of 5-stage pipeline and 10-stage pipeline.

Answers

The 10-stage pipeline's clock cycles would take 1.5ns to finish on average, which is 1.5ns longer than the 5-stage pipeline's.

To calculate the clock cycle time of a 5-stage pipeline and a 10-stage pipeline, we need to consider the time required for each stage and the pipeline register delay.

For a 5-stage pipeline with a longest stage of 0.6ns and a pipeline register delay of 0.1ns, the total clock cycle time would be:

Clock cycle time = longest stage time + pipeline register delay = 0.6ns + 0.1ns = 0.7ns

This means that each clock cycle in the pipeline would take 0.7ns to complete.

For a 10-stage pipeline with the same longest stage time and pipeline register delay, the total clock cycle time would be:

Clock cycle time = longest stage time + (pipeline register delay x (number of pipeline stages - 1)) = 0.6ns + (0.1ns x 9) = 1.5ns

This means that each clock cycle in the 10-stage pipeline would take 1.5ns to complete, which is longer than the 5-stage pipeline due to the additional pipeline stages.

It is worth noting that while longer pipelines can potentially increase performance by allowing for higher clock rates, they can also increase the risk of pipeline hazards and decrease overall efficiency due to increased latency and complexity.

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technician a says that brake fluid that is allowed to remain uncovered absorbs water. technician b says that if brake fluid is accidentally spilled on a fender of a vehicle, it can damage the paint. who is correct?

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Technician A and Technician B both are correct as brake fluid that is allowed to remain uncovered does absorb water and brake fluid can damage the paint on a vehicle's fender if it is accidentally spilled.

Technician A is correct because brake fluid is hygroscopic, which means it absorbs moisture from the atmosphere. This water can corrode brake parts and lead to failure, as well as increase the fluid's boiling point, leading to brake fade and reduced stopping power.
Technician B is also correct because brake fluid is made up of corrosive materials that can break down paint and other surfaces. If the brake fluid is not cleaned off the fender immediately, it can cause permanent damage to the paint.

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Kelvin contact resistance test structure in Fig. P3. 19, it is usually assumed that the voltmeter has very high input resistance and there is negligible voltage drop along the voltage measurement arm

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In the Kelvin contact resistance test structure in Fig. P3.19, it is usually assumed that the voltmeter has very high input resistance and there is negligible voltage drop along the voltage measurement arm.

This assumption is made because the purpose of the Kelvin contact resistance test is to measure the resistance of a contact without including the resistance of the contact leads.To achieve this, the current is passed through the current leads, and the voltage is measured using the voltage leads. However, if the voltage leads have any resistance, this will add to the measured resistance value, making it inaccurate. To avoid this, the Kelvin contact resistance test structure uses two sets of voltage leads, one to carry the current and another to measure the voltage, so that any resistance in the measurement leads is not included in the measured resistance value.By assuming that the voltmeter has very high input resistance and there is negligible voltage drop along the voltage measurement arm, the Kelvin contact resistance test structure ensures that any resistance in the measurement leads is insignificant compared to the resistance of the contact being measured. This allows for accurate measurement of contact resistance and is a common technique used in electrical testing.

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which safety hazard are firefighters most likely to find in the space between the ceiling and the roof?

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Firefighters are most likely to find the following safety hazards in the space between the ceiling and the roof: accumulation of combustible material, poor ventilation, and exposure to hazardous chemicals.


Accumulation of combustible materials such as wood, paper, insulation, and other debris can provide fuel for a fire, which can be difficult to contain in a confined space like the one between a ceiling and a roof.

Poor ventilation in this space can make it difficult for firefighters to breathe, and they can be exposed to hazardous chemicals such as asbestos, lead, and dust. Firefighters have to be careful with that.

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For load-bearing applications, engineered materials are selected by matching their mechanical properties to the component's design specifications and service conditions.
a. True
b. False

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The statement "For load-bearing applications, engineered materials are selected by matching their mechanical properties to the component's design specifications and service conditions" is true because when selecting materials for load-bearing applications, one must consider the mechanical properties of those materials.

A load-bearing structure is a structure designed to carry the weight of the building or any other construction's imposed loads (people or objects). Such structures must be capable of holding the loads applied to them without failing (or cracking) under the pressure.

The mechanical properties of materials are used to determine which materials are best suited for bearing loads. A material's ability to sustain external forces without cracking, breaking, or otherwise failing is known as its mechanical properties.

Engineering materials are frequently employed in load-bearing applications. Therefore, when selecting materials for load-bearing applications, one must consider the mechanical properties of those materials.

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The XYZ Company is planning a new product line and a new factory to produce the parts and assemble the final products. The product line will include 13 different models. Annual production of each model is expected to be 1,000 units. Each product will be assembled of 250 components, but 65% of these will be purchased parts (not made in the new factory). There is an average of 8 processing operations required to produce each component, and each processing step takes 30 sec (including an allowance for setup time and part handling). Each final unit of product takes 48 min to assemble. All processing operations are performed at work cells that include a production machine and a human worker. Products are assembled at single workstations consisting of one worker each plus assembly fixtures and tooling. Each work cell and each workstation require 25 m2 of floor space and an additional allowance of 45% must be added to the total production area for aisles, work-in-process storage, shipping and receiving, rest rooms, and other utility space. The factory will operate one shift (the day shift, 2,000 hr/yr). Determine: (a) how many processing and assembly operations, (b) how many workers (direct labor only), and (c) how much total floor space will be required in the plant.

Answers

The plant will need to perform 9,100,000 processing and assembly procedures altogether.

What fundamental processing tasks are carried out in a manufacturing facility?

Shape operations, property-enhancing operations, and surface processing operations are the three distinct categories of processing operations. By using mechanical force, heat, or other forms and combinations of energy, shaping operations change the work material's geometry.

There are 250 components in each product.

Parts purchased as a percentage equal 65%.

250 - (65% x 250) = 87.5 is the number of components that will be produced in the new facility.

Eight processing steps are needed to manufacture each component.

The new factory's processing procedures per component totaled 8 x 87.5, or 700.

13 x 1000 x (700 + 1) = 9,100,000 is the total number of processing and assembly procedures needed for the 13 different models.

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all of the windings of three phase motors are always wired how?

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Three-phase motor windings can be wired in a delta or star configuration. Delta is for high power, star for low. Configuration depends on motor design and operating requirements.

The windings of a three-phase motor can be wired in either a delta or star (also called wye) configuration.

In a delta connection, the windings are connected in a triangle, with each end of a winding connected to the start of the next winding. This type of connection is commonly used for high voltage and high current applications, as it can handle higher power levels than a star connection.

In a star connection, the windings are connected in a Y shape, with one end of each winding connected to a common point called the neutral or star point, and the other ends of the windings connected to the three-phase power supply. This type of connection is typically used for low voltage and low current applications, as it is easier to connect and provides a neutral point for grounding.

The specific configuration used depends on the motor's design, operating requirements, and the power supply available.

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is represented by a set of / data fields / variables (also known as properties or attributes) with their current value. it is is called____

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In this case, the question is: "is represented by a set of / data fields / variables (also known as properties or attributes) with their current value. it is is called____"

The answer is: An object is represented by a set of data fields or variables (also known as properties or attributes) with their current value. It is called an object.

What is an object?

An object is an instance of a class in object-oriented programming. It is a software bundle of variables and related methods. An object is defined by its class, which determines its attributes (properties or variables) and methods (functions). An object is an instance of a class that has its own identity, state, and behavior.

The state of an object is represented by its attributes, while its behavior is represented by its methods. Therefore, an object is represented by a set of data fields or variables (also known as properties or attributes) with their current value, and it is called an object.

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a 0.85-hp motor is required by a ducted fan to produce a 24-in stream of air having a velocity of 40 ft/s. estimate the efficiency of the fan.

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A 0.85-hp motor is required by a ducted fan to produce a 24-in stream of air having a velocity of 40 ft/s then the efficiency of the fan is 20.47.

The efficiency of a ducted fan is determined by the ratio of power output (the kinetic energy of the air stream) to the power input (the power of the motor). In this case, the power output can be calculated using the following equation:
Power Output = 0.5 x density of air (in kg per meter cube) x velocity of air (in m/s) x cross-sectional area of air (in meter square) x ( square of velocity of air (in m/s))
Since the velocity of the air is 40 ft/s (which is equivalent to 12.19 m/s), the power output can be calculated as follows:
Power Output = 0.5 x 1.2 kg/m3 x 12.19 m/s x (24 in x 24 in) x (12.19 m/s x 12.19 m/s) = 13024.7 Watts
The power input of the motor can be calculated using the following equation:
Power Input = 0.85 x 746 = 634.1 Watts
Therefore, the efficiency of the fan can be calculated using the following equation:
Efficiency = Power Output / Power Input = 13024.7 Watts / 634.1 Watts = 20.47

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A body is projected at 50m/s vertically upwards from the top of a building which is 120m high. Calculate:
i The time taken to reach a point P, 40m above the ground,

Answers

This is about projectiles and the time taken to reach point P, 40 meters above the ground, is approximately 4.04 seconds.

What is the explanation for the above response?

To solve this problem, we can use the kinematic equation that relates displacement, initial velocity, final velocity, acceleration, and time:

y = vi*t + (1/2)at^2

where y is the displacement (in meters), vi is the initial velocity (in meters per second), a is the acceleration (in meters per second squared), and t is the time (in seconds).

At the top of the building, the body has an initial velocity of 50 m/s, which is purely vertical. The acceleration due to gravity is -9.8 m/s^2 (negative because it acts downward).

When the body reaches point P, its displacement from the top of the building is 120 m - 40 m = 80 m.

So, we can use the above equation to find the time taken to reach point P:

80 = 50t + (1/2)(-9.8)*t²

Simplifying and solving for t, we get:

4.04 seconds

Therefore, the time taken to reach point P, 40 meters above the ground, is approximately 4.04 seconds

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true or false: since liquid can be considered as incompressible, the volume flow rates into and out of a steady flow device will remain constant.

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Since liquid can be considered as incompressible, the volume flow rates into and out of a steady flow device will remain constant. True, For a steady, incompressible flow, since the density is constant, it implies that the total volumetric flow rates entering and leaving a control volume are the same.

air is compressed steadily and adiabatically from 290k, 90 kpa to 480k, 390 kpa. what is the isentropic efficiency of the compressor? a

Answers

The Isentropic efficiency of the compressor Let's consider the given parameters; Initial conditions: T1 = 290 kP1 = 90 kPa Final conditions: T2 = 480 kP2 = 390 kPa The isentropic efficiency of the compressor can be calculated using the following formula:ηs = (h2s - h1) / (h2 - h1)Whereηs = Isentropic efficiency of the compressorh1 = Enthalpy at the inlet of the compressorh2 = Enthalpy at the outlet of the compressorh2s = Isentropic enthalpy at the outlet of the compressor.

Now let's calculate the enthalpies; From the given conditions, we can find out the state point of the air at the inlet of the compressor using the steam tables: At P1 = 90 kPa, T1 = 290 K Using the steam tables, we find out h1 = 315.83 kJ/kg Similarly, we can find out the state point of the air at the outlet of the compressor using the steam tables: At P2 = 390 kPa, T2 = 480 K Using the steam tables, we find out h2 = 421.45 kJ/kg Now, let's calculate the isentropic enthalpy at the outlet of the compressor: Using the steam tables, we can find out the state point of the air at the outlet of the compressor if it were isentropic. At P2 = 390 kPa and S1 = S2Using the steam tables, we find out h2s = 455.41 kJ/kg Substituting these values in the isentropic efficiency formula, we get;ηs = (h2s - h1) / (h2 - h1)ηs = (455.41 - 315.83) / (421.45 - 315.83)ηs = 0.72Thus, the isentropic efficiency of the compressor is 72%.

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Technology __________ guides how frequently technical systems are updated, and how technical updates are approved and funded.
a. wrap-up
b. turnover
c. governance
d. changeover

Answers

Technology governance guides how frequently technical systems are updated and how technical updates are approved and funded. Option C is correct.

Technology governance is the framework, policies, and procedures that regulate how an organization's IT infrastructure is managed and monitored. This involves defining how the company's technology-related activities are managed, including decision-making authority, accountability, and access to technology resources.

Technology governance entails establishing IT policies and procedures, providing training and guidance to employees on IT policies and procedures, defining the duties and responsibilities of IT personnel, ensuring regulatory compliance with technology-related laws, and defining how technical systems are updated and authorized for funding.

Technology governance guides how frequently technical systems are updated, and how technical updates are approved and funded.

For instance, it establishes the policies and procedures governing technical change management, risk management, and the decision-making process for technical projects. Technology governance also provides guidance on how to manage the technical resources that are deployed in the organization.

Therefore Option C is correct. Governance guides the technical system.

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what is an impact, ballistic or creep ripple? what is the length of these ripples relative to their heights? how does this ratio compare to those for aerodynamic and hydrodynamic ripples?

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Impact, ballistic, and creep ripples are all types of surface features that can occur on materials subjected to different types of stresses.

Impact ripples are formed when a material is struck by a projectile or another object. Ballistic ripples are similar but are specifically formed by high-velocity projectiles. Creep ripples, on the other hand, are formed when a material is subjected to a constant stress over a long period of time, causing it to slowly deform.

The length of these ripples relative to their heights can vary depending on the specific material and conditions. However, in general, the ripples tend to have a relatively short wavelength compared to their height.

In comparison, aerodynamic and hydrodynamic ripples are formed by the flow of air or water over a surface. These ripples tend to have a much longer wavelength compared to their height, with the length-to-height ratio typically ranging from several to tens of thousands. This is because the fluid flow over the surface is generally much smoother and less abrupt than the stresses that cause impact, ballistic, and creep ripples.

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Apart from replacement and displament deep foundations,
1. whats a third soloution and
2 method of installation ,
3. advantages, disadvantages
4. how it is connected to the foundation, then describe the role this connection plays resisting forces (e.g. lateral restraint, and others)

Answers

Alternative deep foundation: helical piles. Installed with torque, ideal for limited access sites, vibration-free. Resist lateral forces.

What is the explanation for the above response?

The third solution for deep foundations is the use of micropiles.Micropiles are typically installed using a drilling rig, and the process involves drilling a small diameter hole (usually less than 30 cm) into the ground and then filling it with a high-strength grout material, followed by the installation of a steel reinforcing element.Advantages of using micropiles include their ability to be installed in low headroom areas, the ability to be installed in difficult soil conditions, and their low noise and vibration during installation. However, their load carrying capacity is typically lower than that of traditional piles, and their installation can be more expensive than other deep foundation solutions.Micropiles are connected to the foundation through a pile cap or a concrete footing, which transfers the load from the structure to the micropiles. The connection between the micropiles and the foundation provides lateral restraint and resists forces such as wind and earthquake loads. The micropiles can also provide uplift resistance, as they are typically installed at an angle to increase their effective length and capacity.

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how does the sovent drainage and waste system operate without the venting piping used in traditional systems?

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The solvent drainage and waste system operates without venting piping by using a combination of air flow and pressure.

Instead of relying on venting piping to exhaust fumes and waste, the system takes in air from the atmosphere and circulates it through the system with a blower or compressor. This creates a pressure difference that drives the solvent out of the system, taking any remaining waste with it. The pressure also keeps odors from escaping and prevents the system from backflowing.

Drainage is the removal of a mass of water either naturally or artificially from the surface or subsurface from a place.

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Which is a small plain text file that a website might place on your local drive?

Answers

Answer:A cookie

Explanation:To track interests.

what device will produce an electrical current when a turbine is used to rotate an iron core wrapped with a coil of wire near a magnet?

Answers

A device that will produce an electrical current when a turbine is used to rotate an iron core wrapped with a coil of wire near a magnet is a generator.

A generator is a device that uses electromagnetic induction to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy. It operates on the basis of the Faraday Law of Electromagnetic Induction, which states that a current is induced in a conductor that is moving through a magnetic field.

The following components are found in a basic generator:

1) rotating magnetic field 2) rotating armature 3) wires 4) coils 5) commutator 6) brushes

Generators are used in a variety of applications, including power plants, wind turbines, and hydroelectric facilities. They are essential for converting mechanical energy into electricity. They have also been utilized as backup power supplies for homes and businesses.

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for designing heat exchangers at the pinch, what is the criterion for matching streams above the pinch and what is the criterion for matching streams below the pinch? why are such criteria needed? (10 points)

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The criteria for matching streams above the pinch for designing heat exchangers is to make sure that the hot stream and the cold stream are both having the same temperature. The criteria for matching streams below the pinch is to make sure that the hot stream and the cold stream have the same heat capacity.

These criteria are needed to ensure that there is an efficient heat exchange, meaning that the hot stream will give up most of its heat to the cold stream. In order for this to occur, it is essential that the temperature and heat capacity of the two streams are similar. If the temperatures of the hot and cold streams are too different, the efficiency of the heat exchange will be greatly reduced.

Similarly, if the heat capacities of the hot and cold streams are too different, the heat exchange will not be efficient. Thus, these criteria are necessary for efficient heat exchange.

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a 1,200a feeder is tapped (over 10ft but less than 25 ft long)to supply a 225a main breaker panelboard having a 180a continuous load. what's the minimum size thhn copper feeder tap conductor that can be used?

Answers

The correct answer is To determine the minimum size of the THHN copper feeder tap conductor, we need to calculate the ampacity of the tap conductor based on the 75-degree Celsius column of the NEC table 310.16.

First, we need to find the equivalent ampacity of the 225A main breaker panelboard. Since it is a continuous load, we have to multiply it by 1.25. So, 225A x 1.25 = 281.25A. Next, we need to find the percentage of the feeder ampacity required for the tap conductor. The NEC table 310.16 allows tap conductors to have an ampacity not less than one-third of the rating of the overcurrent device protecting the feeder. Therefore, 1200A/3 = 400A. Finally, we can calculate the minimum size THHN copper feeder tap conductor using the following formula: Minimum conductor ampacity = (281.25A - 180A) + 180A = 281.25A Minimum conductor ampacity = 281.25A / 0.8 (derating factor) = 351.56A From the NEC table 310.16, the minimum size THHN copper conductor with an ampacity of 351.56A is 2/0 AWG. Therefore, the minimum size THHN copper feeder tap conductor that can be used is 2/0 AWG.

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calculate the cumulative infiltration and the infiltration rate on a silty clay soil after one hour of rainfall at 1cm/h if the initial effective saturation is 20 percent. assume ponding depth h0 is negligible in the calculations.

Answers

The cumulative infiltration and infiltration rate on a silty clay soil after one hour of rainfall at 1cm/h with initial effective saturation of 20 percent are 252 cm and 4.21 cm/h, respectively.

To calculate the cumulative infiltration and the infiltration rate on a silty clay soil after one hour of rainfall at 1cm/h if the initial effective saturation is 20 percent, we need to first calculate the cumulative infiltration (Icum) and infiltration rate (f). The cumulative infiltration is given by the equation: Icum = h0 + ∫f (dt). Here, h0 is negligible and ∫f (dt) = f x t. So, Icum = f x t.

The infiltration rate can be calculated using the Kostiakov equation: f = K x t1/2. Here, K is the Kostiakov coefficient, which is a function of the initial effective saturation (Si). For a silty clay soil, K = 0.0026 x Si0.5 (cm/min1/2). Thus, in this case, K = 0.0026 x 200.5 = 0.164 cm/min1/2. Since the rainfall intensity is 1 cm/h, t = 1 hour = 60 min. So, the infiltration rate, f = 0.164 x 601/2 = 4.21 cm/h. The cumulative infiltration is Icum = 4.21 x 60 = 252 cm. So, the answers are 252 cm and 4.21 cm/h, respectively.

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3
Biocatalysis helps create flavors and scents through what process?
altering DNA

chemical reactions

purifying components in a formula

aiding with the decomposition process

Answers

Answer:

its B. ima keep it short its B

Explanation

Examine the following Entity and decide which rule of Normal Form is being violated:
ENTITY: CLIENT
ATTRIBUTES:
# CLIENT ID
FIRST NAME
LAST NAME
STREET
CITY
ZIP CODE

Answers

The question at hand is: Examine the following Entity and decide which rule of Normal Form is being violated:

ENTITY: CLIENTATTRIBUTES:# CLIENT IDFIRST NAMELAST NAMESTREETCITYZIP CODE. The entity "CLIENT" violates the third rule of normal form (3NF). This rule states that all attributes must be functionally dependent on the primary key. In this case, the primary key is CLIENT ID, but the attributes FIRST NAME, LAST NAME, STREET, CITY, and ZIP CODE are not functionally dependent on it. To be in 3NF, each of these attributes would need to be related to CLIENT ID in such a way that they could not be determined by any other attribute.

For example, a separate entity for ADDRESS could be created with STREET, CITY, and ZIP CODE as attributes, and then related to the CLIENT entity through a foreign key.

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what is the purpose of the ground symbol used in electrical circuit diagrams? group of answer choices to show that there is a return path for the current between the source of electrical energy and the load. to show the source of electrical energy for the load. to show that there is common bus for connection of the source of electrical energy to the load.

Answers

Answer:

To show that there is a return path for the current between the source of electrical energy and the load.

the equation used to determine the approximate amount of of critical stress to propagate a crack is known as the friffith equation the griffith equation is

Answers

The Griffith equation is used to calculate the approximate amount of critical stress necessary to propagate a crack. The formula for the equation is K = √(πE/2Y), where E is Young's modulus, and Y is the geometrical factor, which depends on the shape of the crack.

The equation is based on the energy release rate for crack propagation and was developed by A.A. Griffith in 1921. The equation is used to calculate the stress intensity factor (K) for a crack in an elastic material.

The Griffith equation is important for engineers as it can be used to estimate how much stress a material can withstand before it will fracture. This is important when designing components or structures that will be subject to loading or fatigue. Additionally, the equation can be used to calculate the stress concentration factor (Kt) at a point of crack initiation.

In conclusion, the Griffith equation is an important equation used to calculate the approximate amount of critical stress necessary to propagate a crack. This equation can be used by engineers to ensure that their designs are able to withstand the expected loads, as well as calculate stress concentration factors.

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the manganese content of a certain stainless steel is to be verified by an activation measurement. the activity induced in a sample of volume v by neutron capture during a time t is given by

Answers

By measuring the activity of a sample over time, the manganese content of stainless steel can be verified.

The manganese content of certain stainless steel can be verified by an activation measurement. Activation measurements measure the activity induced in a sample by neutron capture during a specific time period. Activity is given by the equation A = N0e-λt, where N0 is the initial number of atoms, e is Euler's number (2.718...), λ is the decay constant, and t is time. In this equation, A is the activity at a time t and N0 is the initial number of atoms. The decay constant λ indicates the probability of a neutron capture reaction and is dependent on the material's manganese content.

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Please give a detail explanation, thank you
1) When solving the impact problems, we should always assume that during an impact between two bodies, there is no permanent deformation in the bodies.
True or false
2) If a semi-truck collides head-on with a mini car, which one will exert more force?
Semi-truck on the mini car
Mini car on the semi-truck
There is no force exerted
Both vehicles will exert equal force

Answers

The given statement "When solving the impact problems, we should always assume that during an impact between two bodies, there is no permanent deformation in the bodies" is False and  there is usually some amount of permanent deformation during an impact when semi-truck collides head-on with a mini car.

The statement is False because In reality, there is usually some amount of permanent deformation that occurs during an impact, especially if the impact is severe. However, in many cases, the amount of deformation may be negligible or can be ignored for simplicity in calculations.Therefore the statement is False.

If a semi-truck collides head-on with a mini car then According to Newton's Third Law of Motion, every action has an equal and opposite reaction. Therefore, both the semi-truck and the mini car will exert equal force on each other during a head-on collision. The force experienced by each vehicle will depend on factors such as their mass, speed, and the duration of the impact. However, it is likely that the semi-truck, being much larger and heavier than the mini car, will experience less of a change in velocity than the mini car and therefore will exert more force on the smaller vehicle.

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the low-level wind shear alert system (llwas) provides wind data and software process to detect the presence of a

Answers

The Low-Level Wind Shear Alert System (LLWAS) provides wind data and software processes to detect the presence of hazardous wind shear.

LLWAS (Low-level windshear alerting systems) is a tool with a system to detect the presence of windshears close to the airport, and will provide warning windshear information automatically if has exceeded its threshold.

It works by collecting data from wind speed and direction sensors located around an airport to provide real-time monitoring of changes in wind direction and speed that can lead to hazardous wind shear events. The data is used to create an alert if hazardous wind shear is detected.

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Individualized instruction has been emphasized since Dewey's times. However, in the 21st century, teaching is more complex because teachers _______________.
A) are more accountable for what students learn
B) have students with a wider variety of learning needs
C) have more special students placed in their regular classrooms

Answers

Option B. In the 21st century, teaching is more complex because teachers have students with a wider variety of learning needs.

According to Dewey, curriculum and institutions should be secondary to children in brain-based pedagogy since learning is socially produced. Students have to apply prior knowledge to generate new meaning in order to effectively learn.

This is what makes individualized instruction complex.Individualized instruction has been emphasized since Dewey's times. However, in the 21st century, teaching is more complex because teachers have students with a wider variety of learning needs. Student-centered learning, on the other hand, has been a popular idea in education for years.

The popularity of student-centered learning can be traced back to John Dewey, a prominent educational philosopher. In Dewey's view, student-centered learning focused on the student's experience, interests, and interaction with the environment. Therefore the correct option is B.

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in the context of dynamic person-situation interaction, the main difference between evocation and manipulation is that:

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Manipulation involves the intentional control of a situation by a person, whereas evocation is the process through which people elicit responses from others simply by displaying certain behaviors.

Manipulation is a term used in psychology to refer to the intentional control of a situation or environment by a person. It can be used to gain control over others, influence their behavior, or alter their perceptions.

Manipulation can be positive or negative, depending on the intention of the person doing the manipulating. Some forms of manipulation may involve deception, coercion, or exploitation.

On the other hand, evocation is a process through which people elicit responses from others simply by displaying certain behaviors. This is often done unintentionally, without the person being aware that they are having an impact on others.  

Unlike manipulation, evocation does not involve intentional control over a situation or environment.

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