A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of renal caliculi. The patient reports oral temperature is 100.8 F. Which of these goals is the priority nursing focus for this patient?
a. Control nausea
b. Prevent infection
c. Manage pain
d. Maintain fluid balance
The priority nursing focus for a patient admitted with a diagnosis of renal caliculi and an oral temperature of 100.8 F is to prevent infection. Renal caliculi are also commonly known as kidney stones, which are caused by the crystallization of minerals in the urine.
When a patient has kidney stones, they are at an increased risk of developing a urinary tract infection (UTI) due to the obstruction and irritation caused by the stones. An elevated oral temperature can also indicate an infection. Therefore, preventing infection is the priority goal for this patient. The nurse should closely monitor the patient's vital signs, encourage adequate hydration, and promptly report any signs of infection such as fever, chills, or changes in urine output or color. Additionally, the nurse should educate the patient on proper hygiene practices to prevent UTIs, such as wiping front to back and urinating after sexual activity. While managing pain, controlling nausea, and maintaining fluid balance are important nursing interventions for a patient with kidney stones, preventing infection takes precedence as it can lead to serious complications if left untreated.
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severe IPV is 3x greater if experienced _____ ____ and 5x greater if witness ____ violence. co-victimized individuals have elevated rates of _____-____ IPV and ongoing _____.
Severe IPV (Intimate Partner Violence) is 3x greater if experienced physical abuse and 5x greater if witnessed domestic violence. Co-victimized individuals have elevated rates of repeat-cycle IPV and ongoing trauma.
Severe IPV is 3x greater if experienced child abuse and 5x greater if witness parental violence. Co-victimized individuals have elevated rates of recurrent-severe IPV and ongoing trauma.
IPV stands for intimate partner violence, which is a form of domestic violence that involves physical, sexual, emotional, or psychological abuse by a current or former partner or spouse. IPV can have serious and lasting consequences for the health and well-being of victims and their children
Therefore, Severe IPV (Intimate Partner Violence) is 3x greater if experienced physical abuse and 5x greater if witnessed domestic violence. Co-victimized individuals have elevated rates of repeat-cycle IPV and ongoing trauma.
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Which sterile garb item can be reused?
Select one:
Bouffant cap
Non-shedding gown
Shoe covers
Sterile gloves
Shoe covers can be reused after proper cleaning and sterilization.
Shoe covers can be reused after proper cleaning and sterilization, while other items like bouffant caps, non-shedding gowns, and sterile gloves are typically single-use and discarded after each procedure to maintain sterility. The sterilization method may be defined as the permanent method to block the process of sterilization in humans. It can occur in the case of both males and females known as vasectomy and tubectomy. The males are sterilized in a vasectomy process that blocks the transfer of sperm in the semen. Tubal ligation is a sterilization process for females and has more dangerous changes as compared with vasectomy.
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A full-term, 24-hour-old infant in the nursery regurgitates and suddenly turns cyanotic. Which immediate intervention should the PN implement?
A. Stimulate the infant to cry
B. Give oxygen by positive pressure
C. Suction the oral and nasal passages
D. Turn the infant onto the right side
The immediate intervention that the PN should implement is B. Give oxygen by positive pressure.
Regurgitation and sudden cyanosis in a newborn can indicate aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs. Giving oxygen by positive pressure can help to improve oxygenation while preventing further aspiration.
Suctioning the oral and nasal passages (C) may help to clear any residual secretions, but it should not be the first intervention as it can cause further distress and potentially worsen the situation.
Stimulating the infant to cry (A) may not be effective in this situation as the infant may not be able to breathe effectively due to aspiration.
Turning the infant onto the right side (D) may also not be effective as it does not address the underlying issue of aspiration and may potentially worsen the situation.
Therefore, the immediate intervention that the PN should implement is B. Give oxygen by positive pressure.
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The doctor wants to give Joe an insulin injection, but Joe is unwilling to take it. He tells you that his little sister was on insulin and died in the night after taking her shot. How could insulin hurt somebody with diabetes?
a. Giving too much insulin can raise the plasma glucose levels until they become fatal.
b. Giving too much insulin can lower plasma glucose levels until the brain and heart do not get enough glucose to function properly.
c. Insulin causes the liver to decrease its function, leading to liver failure.
d. People with diabetes mellitus are really sick, and insulin may not be enough to keep them alive.
e. Eating too much food after taking insulin can cause plasma glucose to drop.
Your answer: b. Giving too much insulin can lower plasma glucose levels until the brain and heart do not get enough glucose to function properly.
Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate the amount of glucose in the blood. For people with diabetes, their body either doesn't produce enough insulin (Type 1) or doesn't use it effectively (Type 2). Insulin injections are used to help regulate blood glucose levels. However, giving too much insulin can cause blood glucose levels to drop too low, which can lead to hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia can cause symptoms such as confusion, dizziness, and seizures, and in severe cases, it can lead to unconsciousness and even death. It is important for people with diabetes to monitor their blood glucose levels closely and work with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate insulin dosage to avoid complications.
People with diabetes either do not produce enough insulin or their cells do not respond properly to it, resulting in high blood sugar levels.
When a diabetic person takes too much insulin, their blood sugar levels can drop too low, a condition known as hypoglycemia. Severe hypoglycemia can be dangerous, as the brain and heart need glucose to function properly. In extreme cases, it can lead to seizures, unconsciousness, or even death. It is essential for diabetic individuals to monitor their blood sugar levels and adjust their insulin doses accordingly to prevent hypoglycemia.
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What is used for documentation during a multiple-casualty incident (MCI)?
During a multiple-casualty incident (MCI), documentation is crucial for managing the situation and providing accurate information to first responders and medical personnel. There are several tools and techniques used for documentation during an MCI.
One of the most important documents during an MCI is the triage tag. This is a color-coded tag that is attached to each patient to indicate their priority level for treatment. The tag includes basic patient information, such as their name, age, and vital signs, as well as the triage category they have been assigned to. In addition to triage tags, medical personnel will also use patient care reports (PCRs) to document patient care and treatment. PCRs provide a detailed record of the patient's condition, treatment, and response to treatment, as well as any medications or interventions administered.
Other important documents during an MCI may include incident reports, which document the details of the incident and any actions taken, and transport records, which track the movement of patients from the incident scene to hospitals or other treatment facilities. Overall, documentation is a critical component of managing an MCI, as it allows first responders and medical personnel to provide effective care and communicate accurate information to other responders and agencies involved in the response.
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The provider documents CKD stage 5 and ESRD. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported?
When the provider documents CKD stage 5 and ESRD, the ICD-10-CM code N18.6 is reported. This code specifically indicates End Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) in patients with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) stage 5.
It is important for healthcare providers to accurately document the stage of CKD as well as ESRD to ensure proper coding and billing. This code is essential for proper tracking of patients with ESRD and for the initiation of dialysis services. It is important for providers to be familiar with the coding guidelines and accurately document all conditions to ensure proper coding and reimbursement. By reporting the correct ICD-10-CM code, providers can improve the accuracy of patient records, optimize the quality of care, and ensure proper payment for services rendered. In summary, when a provider documents CKD stage 5 and ESRD, the ICD-10-CM code N18.6 should be reported to accurately represent the patient's condition. Hi! For a provider documenting CKD stage 5 and ESRD, the appropriate ICD-10-CM codes to report are:1. N18.5: Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) stage 5.2. N18.6: End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD)It's important to accurately report both codes to properly reflect the patient's condition in medical documents.
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Which is an example of an incorrect dose error?
Select one:
Two of the same antibiotics are taken at once
Antibiotic dose is too high for patients infection
Multiple interacting medications causing severe kidney failure
Diagnosis of bacterial infection but patient is not taking any antibiotics
The antibiotic dose is too high for the patient's infection. Antibiotics are prescribed based on the type and severity of infection and the patient's individual factors such as age, weight, and medical history. Taking a dose that is too high can lead to harmful side effects and may not effectively treat the infection.
Some cases, taking too high of a dose may even result in antibiotic resistance, making it more difficult to treat future infections. Taking two of the same antibiotics at once is also an error, but it is not necessarily a dosage error. It is important to follow the prescribed schedule for antibiotics and not double up on doses, but taking two of the same antibiotics at once is unlikely to cause harm as long as the total dose is not too high. Multiple interacting medications causing severe kidney failure is another type of medication error, but it is not specific to antibiotics. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of all the medications a patient is taking to avoid harmful drug interactions. Finally, a diagnosis of bacterial infection but the patient not taking any antibiotics is not an example of a dose error, but rather a failure to follow the prescribed treatment plan. It is important for patients to take antibiotics as prescribed to effectively treat their infection and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.
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MC types of bone CA mention
There are several different types of Bone cancer, also known as bone CA. The most common types include osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma, and malignant fibrous histiocytoma.
Primary bone cancers: These originate in the bone itself and include osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, and Ewing sarcoma. Osteosarcoma is the most common type and usually occurs in children and young adults, while chondrosarcoma typically affects older adults and originates in the cartilage of the bone. Ewing sarcoma is a rare type of bone cancer that often affects children and young adults and arises from the cells in the bone marrow.
Secondary bone cancers: These are cancers that have spread (metastasized) to the bone from other parts of the body, such as breast, lung, prostate, and thyroid cancers. Secondary bone cancers are more common than primary bone cancers.
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Which sterile garb item is donned right after the bouffant cap?
Select one:
Eye shield
Face mask
Shoe covers
Sterile gloves
After donning the bouffant cap, the next sterile garb item to put on is typically the face mask.
The sterile garb item that is donned right after the bouffant cap is the face mask. It is important to wear the correct order of sterile garb to maintain a sterile environment and prevent contamination.
The bouffant cap is worn to cover the hair and prevent any loose hairs from falling into the sterile field. After putting on the bouffant cap, the face mask is worn to cover the nose and mouth, which reduces the risk of any respiratory secretions from contaminating the sterile field. The eye shield is then worn to protect the eyes from any splashes or sprays that may occur during the procedure.
Shoe covers are worn to prevent any dirt or dust on shoes from contaminating the sterile field. Finally, the sterile gloves are put on to protect both the healthcare worker and the patient from any microorganisms that may be present on the hands.
It is important to don each item in the correct order and follow sterile procedures to maintain a safe and sterile environment.
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what are 2 indications for the use of mechanical restraints? (PP)
Mechanical restraints are used as a last resort to protect patients who are at risk of harming themselves or others. They are only used when all other interventions have failed or when the patient is not able to participate in their own care due to their condition. Two indications for the use of mechanical restraints are:
1. Agitation and violence: If a patient is exhibiting aggressive or violent behavior and poses a danger to themselves or others, mechanical restraints may be used to prevent them from harming themselves or others. Restraints can help calm the patient down and allow them to regain control of their behavior.
2. Self-harm: If a patient is at risk of harming themselves, mechanical restraints may be used to prevent them from causing harm to themselves. Restraints can prevent the patient from accessing objects that they could use to harm themselves and can provide a safe environment until the patient can be stabilized.
It is important to note that the use of mechanical restraints should always be a last resort and that alternatives should be attempted before resorting to restraints. The use of restraints should also be monitored closely to ensure that they are not causing harm to the patient and that they are being used appropriately.
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What are established interventions that can be performed without calling medical direction?
A) Off-Line Control
B) Protocols
C) Scope of practice
D) Advanced directives
There are several established interventions that can be performed by healthcare professionals without calling medical direction.
One of these interventions is off-line control, which refers to the use of predetermined treatment protocols and guidelines to manage patient care. These protocols are developed based on evidence-based practices and are designed to help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about patient care.
Another intervention that can be performed without calling medical direction is the use of protocols. Protocols are sets of standardized procedures that healthcare professionals can follow to provide optimal patient care. They are developed based on established guidelines and evidence-based practices, and they are designed to ensure that patients receive consistent and high-quality care.
Additionally, healthcare professionals are guided by their scope of practice, which outlines the types of interventions they are allowed to perform without calling medical direction. This includes procedures such as taking vital signs, administering medications within their scope of practice, and providing basic life support.
Lastly, advanced directives are legal documents that allow patients to communicate their healthcare wishes in advance, in case they are unable to do so in the future. Healthcare professionals can follow these directives without calling medical direction to ensure that the patient's wishes are being respected and that they receive the appropriate care.
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What is ginkgo used to treat? Is there FDA approval for its use?
Ginkgo is commonly used to treat memory and concentration problems, as well as circulation issues, tinnitus, and anxiety. However, the FDA has not approved ginkgo for any specific medical uses, and more research is needed to fully understand its potential benefits and risks.
Ginkgo biloba extract is commonly used as a dietary supplement to improve cognitive function, memory, and circulation. It has been studied for its potential use in treating Alzheimer's disease, dementia, and other age-related cognitive decline. However, the evidence is mixed and further research is needed.There is no FDA approval for the use of ginkgo biloba extract as a medical treatment. It is regulated as a dietary supplement, and the FDA does not evaluate the safety and effectiveness of dietary supplements before they are marketed to the public.
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For purposes of performing CPR, a child is defined as:
When performing CPR, a child is typically defined as someone between the ages of 1 and puberty (around 8-14 years old, depending on the individual).
For the purpose of performing CPR, a child is defined as any individual between the ages of 1 and 8 years old. The American Heart Association recommends that CPR be performed using the guidelines for children and infants in this age range, as they may require different techniques and adaptations to ensure their safety and effective resuscitation. When performing CPR on a child, it is important to take into consideration their smaller size and the potential for their airway to become obstructed. As with any CPR procedure, it is crucial to seek immediate medical attention and to continue providing care until emergency medical services arrive on the scene. Remember, early intervention and prompt CPR can greatly increase a child's chances of survival.
Child CPR involves modified techniques compared to adult CPR, as their bodies are smaller and more delicate. These techniques include using a lower compression depth (about 2 inches or 5 cm), giving chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute, and administering smaller rescue breaths. It's essential to be trained in child-specific CPR methods to ensure the best possible outcome in emergency situations.
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The client diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) should be placed on seizure precautions.
True
False
True. The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is a condition where the body produces too much of the antidiuretic hormone, leading to an imbalance of electrolytes and a decrease in urine output.
This can result in hyponatremia, or low sodium levels, which can lead to seizures. Therefore, clients with SIADH should be placed on seizure precautions, including monitoring their neurological status, providing a safe environment, and administering anticonvulsant medications if necessary. It is important to promptly recognize and manage any seizures that may occur in clients with SIADH to prevent further complications and ensure their safety.
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Despite re-suctioning the newborn's mouth and nose, it has not taken its first breath. You should:
A. Immediately clamp the umbilical cord
B. Wipe the infant's mouth out with gauze
C. Rub its back or flick the soles of its feet
D. Provide three rescue breaths and reassess
If the newborn has not taken its first breath despite re-suctioning the mouth and nose, the best course of action would be to provide three rescue breaths and reassess.
This is because the lack of breathing could be due to a respiratory issue, and providing rescue breaths can help initiate breathing and ensure oxygenation. Option A, immediately clamping the umbilical cord, would not be the best course of action in this situation as it could lead to the newborn being deprived of oxygen if the breathing issue is not resolved quickly. Option B, wiping the infant's mouth out with gauze, may help clear any remaining mucus or debris from the mouth but would not address the lack of breathing. Option C, rubbing the newborn's back or flicking the soles of its feet, may stimulate breathing but it would not be as effective as providing rescue breaths. It is important to note that this is a critical situation that requires immediate attention from a healthcare professional. If the newborn is not responding to rescue breaths or showing signs of improvement, emergency medical services should be contacted immediately.
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When giving care to a client, the nurse aide SHOULD avoid unnecessary exposure of the client in order to protect the clients right to: (A) privacy.
(B) confidentiality.
(C) personal choice.
(D) personal hygiene.
The nurse aide should avoid unnecessary exposure to the client in order to protect the client's right to privacy. This means that the client's personal information and health status should not be disclosed to unauthorized persons without the client's consent.
The nurse aide must respect the client's right to privacy and maintain confidentiality in all aspects of care. Personal hygiene is also an important aspect of care for the client. However, it should not come at the cost of the client's privacy. The nurse aide must ensure that the client is clean and comfortable while maintaining their dignity and privacy. This means that the nurse aide should avoid unnecessary exposure of the client during tasks such as bathing, toileting, and dressing. The nurse aide must balance the need for personal hygiene with the client's right to privacy and confidentiality.
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You have just applied an occlusive dressing to an open chest wound on a man who was stabbed. While awaiting the arrival of the transporting EMTs, it is MOST important to monitor the patient for
After applying an occlusive dressing to an open chest wound on a man who was stabbed, it is crucial to closely monitor the patient's condition until the EMTs arrive.
The most important thing to monitor for is any signs of respiratory distress. The occlusive dressing creates a sealed environment over the wound, which prevents air from entering the chest cavity and could cause tension pneumothorax if air is trapped inside. This can lead to a life-threatening condition in which the lungs are compressed, making it difficult or impossible for the patient to breathe.Therefore, it is essential to carefully observe the patient's breathing and look for any signs of respiratory distress such as rapid breathing, shallow breathing, or difficulty breathing. Additionally, monitoring the patient's vital signs, including heart rate, blood pressure, and oxygen saturation levels, can help identify any potential complications.It is also important to keep the patient calm and reassure them while waiting for the EMTs to arrive. This can help prevent the patient from becoming anxious or agitated, which could worsen their condition. By closely monitoring the patient's respiratory function and vital signs, while also keeping them calm, you can help ensure that the patient receives the appropriate medical attention as soon as possible.
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What are the elements that should be on an Admixture Label? (12)
The elements present on an Admixture Label must be able to provide an elaborate statement of the admixture and its proper usage, ensuring safe and effective application.
The elements that should be on an Admixture Label includes the following:
1) The trade name of the admixture (Product name)
2) The name of the manufacturer or supplier, and contact information
3) The type of admixture (Description and purpose of the admixture)
4) The intended use or function of the admixture
5) The recommended dosage range, and mixing instructions
6) The date of manufacture and expiration date (Shelf life and expiration date)
7) The batch or lot number
8) Any hazard warnings or precautions (Safety and precautionary measures)
9) Any relevant regulatory compliance information or standards
10) Any other important information or instructions for use. It is important for the admixture label to provide a clear and accurate description of the product and its intended use, as well as any potential hazards or risks associated with its use.
11)Storage and handling requirements
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In a hospital setting, current medications are also known as:
Select one:
Admitting
Routine
Standing
Stat
Routine medications are also known as current medications in a hospital setting.
In a hospital setting, current medications are also known as "routine medications." These are medications that the patient was taking before being admitted to the hospital and are expected to continue taking during their hospital stay. The term "routine" refers to the fact that these medications are part of the patient's regular medication regimen, and they are usually administered at fixed times throughout the day. "Admitting" refers to the process of a patient being admitted to the hospital, "standing" refers to medication orders that are to be administered at regular intervals until the order is discontinued, and "stat" refers to a medication order that is to be given immediately or as soon as possible.
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Cardiomyopathy related to myocarditis.
Etiology
Finding
Cardiomyopathy can be related to myocarditis, as myocarditis can be a potential cause of cardiomyopathy. Myocarditis is inflammation of the heart muscle, which can weaken and damage the heart muscle over time, leading to cardiomyopathy.
The finding of myocarditis in a patient with cardiomyopathy may suggest that the underlying cause of the cardiomyopathy is related to an inflammatory process. Treatment for both myocarditis and cardiomyopathy may involve medications to reduce inflammation and manage symptoms, as well as lifestyle changes to improve heart health. It is important for individuals with either condition to work closely with their healthcare provider to develop an individualized treatment plan. Cardiomyopathy related to myocarditis involves the development of weakened heart muscles due to inflammation. Etiology: Myocarditis is often caused by viral infections, such as coxsackievirus or adenovirus, which lead to inflammation of the heart muscle. This inflammation can then result in cardiomyopathy, a condition where the heart muscle becomes enlarged, thickened, or rigid, affecting its ability to pump blood effectively. Finding: Cardiomyopathy related to myocarditis is typically diagnosed through a combination of physical examination, patient history, and medical tests such as electrocardiogram (ECG), echocardiogram, and sometimes cardiac MRI or biopsy. Blood tests to identify the underlying viral infection may also be performed.
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In a situation where the DNR documentation is not available, you should
In a situation where DNR is not available, healthcare providers must act in the best interest of the patient while also adhering to ethical and legal obligations.
The first step is to check if the patient has a designated healthcare surrogate or power of attorney for healthcare decisions. If so, the surrogate can make decisions on behalf of the patient regarding resuscitation. If no surrogate is available, the healthcare providers must rely on their professional judgment to determine if resuscitation is medically necessary and if the benefits of resuscitation outweigh the potential harms. In this situation, healthcare providers may also consult with colleagues, ethics committees, and/or legal professionals to make a well-informed decision. It is important to note that withholding resuscitation without clear documentation can lead to legal and ethical issues, so it is important for healthcare providers to document their decision-making process thoroughly. Overall, healthcare providers must prioritize the patient's best interest and ensure that their actions align with ethical and legal guidelines.
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A patient with hypertensive end stage renal failure, stage 5, and secondary hyperparathyroidism is evaluated by the provider and receives peritoneal dialysis. The provider evaluates the patient once before dialysis begins. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
The CPT code for the evaluation is 99203. The ICD-10-CM codes for hypertensive end-stage renal failure, stage 5, and secondary hyperparathyroidism are I12.0, N18.5, and E21.3, respectively. The code for peritoneal dialysis is not provided.
For the evaluation, the provider would use CPT code 99203, which is for a new patient office visit that includes a detailed history, examination, and medical decision making. The ICD-10-CM codes for the patient's conditions are I12.0 for hypertensive end-stage renal failure, N18.5 for stage 5 chronic kidney disease, and E21.3 for secondary hyperparathyroidism. The code for the peritoneal dialysis procedure is not provided, as it would depend on the specific details of the procedure, such as the approach and duration. It's important to use accurate codes to ensure appropriate reimbursement and accurate record-keeping.
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Which product is classified as an antacid?
◉ Bisacodyl
◉ Calcium carbonate
◉ Docusate sodium
◉ Psyllium
Out of the given options, calcium carbonate is classified as an antacid. Antacids are medications that are used to neutralize stomach acid and relieve symptoms of heartburn, acid reflux, and indigestion.
Calcium carbonate is a common antacid that works by neutralizing the excess acid in the stomach. It is also used to supplement calcium intake in individuals who have calcium deficiency. Bisacodyl is a laxative that is used to treat constipation, while docusate sodium is a stool softener that is used to relieve constipation. Psyllium is a fiber supplement that is used to treat constipation and improve bowel movements. Therefore, calcium carbonate is the correct answer as it is classified as an antacid, whereas the other options have different medicinal uses.
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While communicating with medical direction, you receive an order to give medication. What is the next thing you should do?
When communicating with medical direction and receiving an order to give medication, the next thing you should do is to repeat the order back to them to ensure that you have correctly understood the medication and dosage prescribed.
This is important to prevent errors and ensure patient safety. Once you have confirmed the order, you should document the order, the time it was received, and the name of the person who gave the order. You should also document the time the medication was administered,
After receiving an order to give medication while communicating with medical direction, the next step you should take is to confirm the order. Make sure to verify the specific medication, the correct dosage, and the proper administration route with the medical director. Once you have confirmed these details, you can proceed with administering the medication according to the instructions given.
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When do coronary arteries primarily receive blood flow?
A) During inspiration
B) During diastole
C) During expiration
D) During systole
The Coronary arteries are the blood vessels that supply oxygenated blood to the heart muscle. The timing of blood flow to these arteries is crucial for proper heart function. Primarily, the coronary arteries receive blood flow during diastole, which is the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle.
The During diastole, the heart is at rest and the chambers are filling with blood. This is the ideal time for the coronary arteries to receive blood flow, as the heart muscle requires oxygen and nutrients to function properly. During systole, which is the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle, the heart muscle is working hard to pump blood out of the chambers and into the rest of the body. This can limit blood flow to the coronary arteries, as the heart muscle requires more oxygen and nutrients during this phase. Therefore, during diastole, when the heart is at rest and filling with blood, the coronary arteries primarily receive blood flow to supply the heart muscle with the oxygen and nutrients it needs to function properly.
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A client is receiving unfractionated heparin (UFH) by infusion. Of which finding does the nurse notify the primary health care provider (PCP)?
A. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) 60 seconds
B. Platelets 32,000/mm3 (32 × 109/L)
C. White blood cells 11,000/mm3 (11 × 109/L)
D. Hemoglobin 12.2 g/dL (122 mmol/L)
The nurse would notify the primary health care provider (PCP) if the platelets were 32,000/mm3 (32 × 109/L) as this is a potential sign of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious adverse reaction to unfractionated heparin.
The other findings listed (PTT, white blood cells, and hemoglobin) are within normal range and would not necessarily require notification of the PCP, Your answer: B. Platelets 32,000/mm3 (32 × 10^9/L)
Explanation: When a client is receiving unfractionated heparin (UFH) by infusion, the nurse should monitor the patient's laboratory values closely. In this case, the nurse should notify the primary health care provider (PCP) if the platelet count drops significantly, as it may indicate a potential complication called heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).
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Mr. Dingess has been constipated for a few days, and she wants to speak to the pharmacist about getting a product to help. The pharmacist is likely to recommend a(n):
◉ Acid reducer
◉ Antidiarrheal
◉ Antiflatulent
◉ Laxative
Jaundice
If no pain, this is ___?___ until proven otherwise.
They need ___?___.
Consider ___?___ (benign prognosis) and neonatal jaundice.
___?___ is the most commonly used intervention to tx and prevent severe hyperbilirubinemia.
If no pain, this is considered a sign or symptom until proven otherwise. They need to undergo further evaluation to determine the underlying cause of jaundice. Consider benign prognosis and neonatal jaundice. Phototherapy is the most commonly used intervention to tx and prevent severe hyperbilirubinemia.
Jaundice is a medical condition in which the skin, whites of the eyes, and mucous membranes turn yellow due to a high level of bilirubin in the blood. If a patient with jaundice doesn't experience pain, the condition is considered "uncomplicated jaundice" until proven otherwise.
The patient needs further evaluation to determine the underlying cause of jaundice. Benign causes of jaundice can include Gilbert's syndrome, a genetic condition in which the liver doesn't process bilirubin properly, and neonatal jaundice, a common condition in newborns caused by the immaturity of their liver.
The most commonly used intervention to treat and prevent severe hyperbilirubinemia (high levels of bilirubin in the blood) is phototherapy, which involves exposing the skin to a special type of light that helps break down bilirubin.
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true or false?
those with extremely unstable medical and psychiatric conditions may need to be put in seclusion or restraints to keep themselves and others safe
True. It is possible that individuals with extremely unstable medical and psychiatric conditions may pose a risk to themselves or others. In such cases, seclusion or restraints may be necessary to keep them and those around them safe.
However, this should always be a last resort and should only be done under the guidance and supervision of trained medical professionals. It is important to prioritize the safety and well-being of all individuals involved, while also respecting the dignity and autonomy of those who require such interventions.
It is also important to work towards addressing the underlying causes of the instability and seeking alternative solutions whenever possible.
In certain situations, individuals with extremely unstable medical and psychiatric conditions may require seclusion or restraints to ensure their safety and the safety of others.
This approach is typically employed as a last resort when less restrictive interventions have been unsuccessful. Seclusion refers to isolating the individual in a safe, private space to prevent harm, while restraints involve using physical or mechanical methods to limit a person's movement. It is important to note that healthcare professionals follow strict protocols and ethical guidelines when implementing such measures, prioritizing patient well-being and monitoring the individual closely throughout the process.
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