What is the slope of each line? Line A: y = one-half x minus 4 Line B: y = 2 x minus 3

Answer:

irrational

Step-by-step explanation:

rational - a number that can turn into a fraction (you could do this with a perfect square)

Irrational - a number that cannot be expressed as a fraction

The square root of 29 is an irrational number because it can not be expressed as a fraction.

To determine whether the square root of 29 is rational or irrational, we need to check if it can be expressed as a fraction (ratio) of two integers.

Assuming that the square root of 29 is rational, we can represent it as √29 = a/b, where a and b are integers with no common factors other than 1, and b is not equal to 0.

Squaring both sides of the equation (√29)² = (a/b², we get 29 = (a²)/(b²).

This implies that 29 is equal to the ratio of two integers (a²)/(b²), which means that 29 can be expressed as a fraction. However, this is not true because 29 is a prime number and cannot be written as a fraction of two integers.

Therefore, the square root of 29 cannot be expressed as a fraction and is therefore irrational.

Hence, the square root of 29 is an irrational number.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

a building is 35ft tall=35

the scuba diver was 35ft below sea level=-35

the basement is 7.6ft below ground=-7.6

oliver owes his sister $23=-23

erica jumped 2.3ft above ground=2.3

Answer:

a building is 35ft tall=35

the scuba diver was 35ft below sea level=-35

the basement is 7.6ft below ground=-7.6

oliver owes his sister $23=-23

erica jumped 2.3ft above ground=2.3

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

Do you mean (5-4)*(25) or 5-4(25)

(5-4) * (25)

= 5^2

Or

5-4(25)

=5 - 100

=-95

?

Answer:

y = -1.71x + 6.42

Step-by-step explanation:

The gradient at any point on the curve is given by the expression;

[tex]\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{x } - 2} \\[/tex]

At the point (2,3), the gradient of the curve will be:

[tex]\frac{dy}{dx}|(x = 2) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{ 2}-2 } \\\\\frac{dy}{dx}|(x = 2) = m = - 1.71[/tex]

The equation of this curve at this point can be given by:

[tex]y - y_1 = m(x-x_1)[/tex]

Where [tex]x_1 =2, y_1 = 3[/tex]

Substituting these values into the given equation:

[tex]y - 3 = -1.71(x-2)\\y - 3 = -1.71x + 3.42\\y = -1.71x + 3.42 + 3\\y = -1.71x + 6.42[/tex]

Answer:

18

Step-by-step explanation:

to find the MAD you add all of the numbers first 22+19+30+13+17+21+8+15+12+23= 180

then you divide it by how many numbers there are for instance there are 10 because there are 10 pairs of numbers then you divide it by 180 and you get 18

hope it helped :)

Hey there! I'm happy to help!

First, we need to find 60% of 140. This is how many boxes she sold to the people her dad works with. 60% as a decimal is 0.6 (0.6 is 60% of 1, one represents the whole, or total).

0.6×140=84

We know that 1/4 of these had mint cookies. 1/4 is 25%, so let's find 25% of 84!

0.25×84=21

Therefore, Lauren sold 21 boxes of mint cookies to people her dad works with.

Have a wonderful day! :D

Answer:

The answer is C) 21

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm right, trust me :)

Answer:

1/2(6x-10)-x = 2x +3

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2(6x-10)-x =

Distribute

3x -5 -x

2x -5

We need to other side to be of the form 2x - constant where the constant is not equal to 5

2x-5 = 2x+3

Subtract 2x from each side

-5 =3

This is not  true so there is no solution

Answer:

y = 3x -2

Step-by-step explanation:

y intercept means the point x = 0

need not be confused in that

we can get the two coordinates as

( 2, -4) and ( 0, -2)

gradient is difference of y/ difference of x

-2+-4/0-2

-6/-2 indeed its 3

so as y intercept is -2

c = -2

y = 3x - 2

Answer: 22.4 cm!

Step-by-step explanation:

If you have the measurements of one side of an equal sided octagon, then you multiply that number (which in this case is 2.8) by 8. Hope this helps!

Answer:

The Y-intercept changes .

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The y-intercept changes

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

49π

Step-by-step explanation:

Circle area: πr^2

Since A to C is 14, and they're both in the center, A to B and B to C will both be 7 as a radius.

Since we know the radius, we can put it in the formula, πr^2.

We only need to solve for one circle, since both circles are the same. By solving the circle, we will put in 7 for the radius, giving us π7^2, which is 49π.

Answer:

8 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

For this the length is 11 inches, and when u subtract 3 from that you get 8. 11×2 is 22, 8×2 is 16

22+16=38

Answer:

8 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

P = 2w + 2l

l = w + 3

38 = 2w + 2(w + 3)

38 = 2w + 2w + 6

38 - 6 = 4w

4w = 32

w = 32 : 4

w = 8 inches

Answer:

8(.5)^x

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Biker 1: 20mph

Biker 2: 15mph

Step-by-step explanation:

Look at the x - axis bar thing at 1 hour, if you look up a little, you see 2 dots. Those are the dots for the mile per hour. You can see the blue dot is at 20 miles and the red one is at 15.

Answer:

B. 70%

Step-by-step explanation:

7/10 of the numbers are more than 5

7/10= 70%

Answer:

Option B

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a nice and simple question. Here we can assume that next year, will be somewhat related to this graph - so this is only the theoretical probability. Therefore, if we can calculate the probability with which there are more than 5 inches of rain, it will apply to the next year as well.

____________

Taking a look at the graph, we see that 7 out of the 10 years given to us are greater than 5 inches of rainfall. Therefore, the probability that there will be more than 5 inches of rainfall next year should be 7 / 10 ( 7 years / 10 years ), and 7 / 10 with respect to percent would be 70%. Your solution is the second option.

Answer: $570

Step-by-step explanation:

She worked 5 hours more than 40.  Thus, for her extra hours she made 18*5, or $90.  For her other 40, she made 40*12, or $480.  Thus, she made 480+90 dollars, or $570.

Hope it helps <3

Answer:

$570

Step-by-step explanation:

Since she is working 40 hours you need to multiply 12 · 40 first and should get 480

Since there is an extra 5 hours you need to do 18 · 5 = 90

Lastly, you add 480 and 90 and you will get 570

Answer:

See the answers in the pics

Step-by-step explanation:

Srry, I didn't quite understood the last two equations

but I hope that from now on you will know how to solve equations and inequalities like this ;]

Answer:

LLLLLLLLLLLLLl

Step-by-step explanation:

The solution to the inequality equations are Option A, Option C, Option E.

The ordered pairs are ( 37 , 18 ) , ( 22 , 38 ) and ( 13 , 51 )

Inequalities are the mathematical expressions in which both sides are not equal. In inequality, unlike in equations, we compare two values. The equal sign in between is replaced by less than (or less than or equal to), greater than (or greater than or equal to), or not equal to sign.

In an inequality, the two expressions are not necessarily equal which is indicated by the symbols: >, <, ≤ or ≥.

Given data ,

Let the inequality equation be represented as A

Now , the value of A is

Let the number of sweatshirt = s

Let the number of towels be = t

Let the cost of one sweatshirt = $ 20.00

Let the cost of one towel = $ 15.00

The Coach asked the team to raise at least $1000

So , the value of 20s + 15t ≥ 1000

Now , substituting the values for s and t in the equation , we get

a)

The ordered pair to the solution of equation ( s , t ) = ( 37 , 18 )

So , 20s + 15t ≥ 1000   be equation (1)

Substituting the values for s and t in the equation , we get

20 ( 37 ) + 15 ( 18 ) ≥ 1000

740 + 270 ≥ 1000

1010 ≥ 1000

So , the inequality equation satisfies

b)

The ordered pair to the solution of equation ( s , t ) = ( 41 , 11 )

So , 20s + 15t ≥ 1000   be equation (1)

Substituting the values for s and t in the equation , we get

20 ( 41 ) + 15 ( 11 ) ≥ 1000

820 + 165 ≥ 1000

985  < 1000

So , the inequality equation does not satisfies

c)

The ordered pair to the solution of equation ( s , t ) = ( 22 , 38 )

So , 20s + 15t ≥ 1000   be equation (1)

Substituting the values for s and t in the equation , we get

20 ( 22 ) + 15 ( 38 ) ≥ 1000

440 + 570 ≥ 1000

1010 ≥ 1000

So , the inequality equation satisfies

d)

The ordered pair to the solution of equation ( s , t ) = ( 8 , 55 )

So , 20s + 15t ≥ 1000   be equation (1)

Substituting the values for s and t in the equation , we get

20 ( 8 ) + 15 ( 55 ) ≥ 1000

160 + 825 ≥ 1000

985  < 1000

So , the inequality equation does not satisfies

e)

The ordered pair to the solution of equation ( s , t ) = ( 13 , 51 )

So , 20s + 15t ≥ 1000   be equation (1)

Substituting the values for s and t in the equation , we get

20 ( 13 ) + 15 ( 51 ) ≥ 1000

260 + 765 ≥ 1000

1025 ≥ 1000

So , the inequality equation satisfies

Hence , the inequality equations are solved

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The probabilities are as follows A.3/10, B. 1/5, C. 1/10, D.  2/5

Probability is defined as the ratio of the number of favourable outcomes to the total number of outcomes in other words the probability is the number that shows the happening of the event.

Letitia tells her son, Evan, to close his eyes and pick out one piece of candy from the package. Calculate the probability of selecting each colour of candy.

The probability will be calculated as:-

The probability that Chelsey will draw out three pieces of candy in this order: red, green, yellow

3/10

The probability that Chelsey will draw out three pieces of candy in this order: green, yellow, red

1/5

The probability that Chelsey will draw out three pieces of candy in this order: yellow, red, green

1/10

The order in which she draws out the red, green, and yellow pieces affects the probability.

2/5

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Answer:

A = B

Step-by-step explanation:

A = 8!  = 8*7*6*5*4*3*2*1 = 40320

B = 8P8 = 8! / ( 8-8)! = 8! = 0! = 8! /1 = 8! = 40320

A = B

Answer:

C: 13/32

Step-by-step explanation:

Change 1/4 and 1/8 into 4/32 and 8/32 and add them up with the 7/32 and then subtract the top and you have your answer

Answer:

13/32 left over.

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you would want to convert the 1/4 and 1/8 to ?/32. You would get: 7/32 on housing, 8/32 on food, and 4/32 on transportation.

To get those numbers this is what you do: 1/4 was spent on food. 32 divided by 4 is 8. So that would be 8/32. I hope you understand, because I'm not that good at explaining!

Then you add those up: 7/32 + 8/32 + 4/32. You would get 19/32 as your total, which means you have 13/32 left over. I hope this helped!

Answer:

a) = Rs 16000

b) = 5%

c) = Rs 30,000,000

10% = 24,000,00/10 = Rs 240,000

20% = 240,000 x 2 = Rs 480,000

480,000/30 = Rs 16000

b) The bonus percentage needs to be increased by 5%

explanation:

Since every worker needs Rs 20000 we need to times it by 30

20000 x 30 = Rs 600,000

600,000 - 480,000 = Rs 120,000

Now we need to find the percentage of Rs 120,000

10% = Rs 240,000

5% = 240,000 divide by 2 = Rs 120,000

This is the best I can do for now please let me know if you understood the answer!

Answer:

1.Rs.16000

2.Bonus rate:25%

3.profit:Rs.3000000

Step-by-step explanation:

Case 1

Profit=Rs.2400000

Bonus Rate:20%

No.of employees =30

Now,

Bonus = (Bonus Rate of Profit) / no. Of employees

= 20% of Rs.2400000 / 30

= Rs. 16000

Case 2

Bonus=Rs.20000

Profit=Rs.2400000

Bonus rate=?

Now,

Bonus=bonus rate of profit / no. Of employees

Or,Rs. 20000 = Bonus rate × Rs. 2400000/30

Or, Rs. 20000=Bonus rate × Rs. 80000

Or,Rs.20000/Rs.80000 = Bonus rate

Bonus rate = 1/4=25%

Case 3

Bonus=Rs.20000

Bonus Rate = 20%

Now,

Bonus = bonus Rate of profit / no.of employees

Or, Rs. 20000 = 20% × Profit / 30

Or, Rs. 20000 × 30 / 0.2 = profit

Profit= Rs. 3000000

I hope it helped you

Answer:

8.5 units

Step-by-step explanation:

x is the adjacent side, the side that's 19 units is the opposite side.

Given the adj and the opp sides, use tangent.

tanθ= opp/adj

tan 66°= 19/ x

x(tan66°)= 19

x= 19/(tan 66°)

x= 8.5 units (nearest tenth)

Answer:

[tex]y=|\frac{1}{2} x-2|+2[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

If your original function is:

[tex]y=|\frac{1}{2} x-2|+3[/tex]

the translation of its graph vertically down one unit, can be obtained by simply subtracting 1 from the whole functional expression:

[tex]y=|\frac{1}{2} x-2|+3-1=|\frac{1}{2} x-2|+2[/tex]

Answer:

A stem and leaf plot is a special table where each data value is split into a "stem" (the first digit or digits) and a "leaf" (usually the last digit). The "stem" values are listed down, and the "leaf" values go right (or left) from the stem values.

Step-by-step explanation:

Example: Long Jump

Sam got his friends to do a long jump and got these results:

long jump

2.3, 2.5, 2.5, 2.7, 2.8 3.2, 3.6, 3.6, 4.5, 5.0

And here is the stem-and-leaf plot:

Stem Leaf

2 3 5 5 7 8

3 2 6 6

4 5

5 0

Stem "2" Leaf "3" means 2.3

Note:

Say what the stem and leaf mean (Stem "2" Leaf "3" means 2.3)

In this case each leaf is a decimal

It is OK to repeat a leaf value

5.0 has a leaf of "0"

Answer

the third(5/2)

Step-by-step explanation:

[(5^(-3))*(2^2)*(5^6)]/[(2^3)*(5^2)]

=[(5^3)*(2^2)]/[(2^3)*(5^2)]

=[5^(3-2)]*[2^(2-3)]

=5*(1/2)

=5/2 or 2.5

Answer:

5/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it helps!!

Btw it was right on the test!!

Answer:

6p+19

Step-by-step explanation:

combine like terms:

8p+10+-2p+-1+10

(8p+-2p)+(10+-1+10)

6p+19

HOPE THIS HELPS!!!!!!:)

Answer:

1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

There are four spots in total in the circle. Two of them are blue. Therefore, the probability of it lading on blue is 2/4, which simplifies to 1/2. Hope this helped.

Answer:

Infinitely many solutions.

Step-by-step explanation:

-36x + 8y = 16

-9x + 2y = 4

4(-9x + 2y = 4)

-36x + 8y = 16

Now, we can see that the two lines are exactly the same, which means that they have infinitely many solutions.

Hope this helps!